Term
| True or false: Once inside the final approach fix, one navigation receiver available to the pilot flying must remain tuned to and display the facility that provides final approach course guidance. |
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Definition
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Term
| The optimum final approach course length is __ miles but may be as long as __ miles. |
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Definition
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Term
| The FAF is the point where ______ and will be depicted by a ______ in the profile view of the approach along with a recommended, minimum, or mandatory crossing altitude |
|
Definition
the final approach begins; Maltese cross
(206) |
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Term
| True or false: Descent below stepdown fix altitude is limited to aircraft capable of simultaneous reception of final approach course guidance and the stepdown fix. |
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Definition
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Term
| The VDP is a defined point on the final approach course of a _____ approach procedure from which a normal descent (approximately 3°) from the ______ to the _____ may be commenced, provided visual reference with the runway environment is established |
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Definition
non-precision straight-in; MDA to the runway touchdown point
(206) |
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Term
| The VDP is normally identified by ___ and is computed for the non-precision approach with the _____ MDA on the IAP |
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Definition
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Term
| True or false: VDPs are a mandatory part of a non-precision procedure |
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Definition
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Term
| If VASI is not installed, the VDP is computed from the MDA to the _______. |
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Definition
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Term
| the pilot should not descend below the MDA until _______ |
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Definition
reaching the VDP and acquiring the necessary visual reference with the runway environment
(207) |
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Term
| For most aircraft in the USAF inventory, about __ percent of the HAT in seconds is the approximate amount of time needed to descend from the HAT to the runway on a normal glidepath. |
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Definition
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Term
| The MAP is the point on non-precision approaches where an aircraft will execute a missed approach if _______ |
|
Definition
the runway environment is not in sight or a safe landing cannot be accomplished
(208) |
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Term
| Note that when the FAF is the NAVAID for the approach, a course change of up to __ degrees may be required and the approach still be considered a straight-in approach. |
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Definition
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Term
| Timing is required when ______ |
|
Definition
the final approach does not terminate at a published fix
(208) |
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Term
| True or false: If timing is not specifically depicted on the instrument approach procedure, timing may still be used as a means of identifying the MAP based on your final approach speed and the DME of the MAP. |
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Definition
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Term
| True or false: If both timing and another means of identifying the MAP are published (e.g. DME), timing will only be used as a backup unless the other means of MAP identification is not operational or fails during the approach |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Descent below MDA/DA/DH is not authorized until __________ |
|
Definition
sufficient visual reference with the runway environment has been established and the aircraft is in position to execute a safe landing
(209) |
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Term
| The runway environment consists of one or more of the following elements |
|
Definition
The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the TDZE using the approach lights as a reference unless the red termination bars or the red side row bars are also visible and identifiable; The threshold, threshold markings or threshold lights; The runway end identifier lights; The touchdown zone, touchdown zone markings, or touchdown zone lights; The runway or runway markings; runway lights; visual approach slope indicator
(209) |
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Term
| _______ are required components for an ILS. |
|
Definition
glide slope; localizer, and outer marker (or suitable substitute)
(209) |
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Term
| What do you do if you are flying an ILS and you lose the glideslope? |
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Definition
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Term
| True or false: If you are flying an ILS and the localizer fails, the procedure is not authorized |
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Definition
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Term
| True or false: If you are flying an ILS and the OM (or at least one of its substitutes) is not available, then the procedure is not authorized |
|
Definition
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Term
| Airborne marker beacon receivers that have a selective sensitivity feature should always be operated in the _____ sensitivity position to ensure proper reception of the ILS marker beacons. |
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Definition
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Term
| Set the published _____ course in the course selector window prior to attempting localizer interception. |
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Definition
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Term
| True or false: The front course is the proper course to set even when flying a back course approach. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| The glide slope has a usable range of __ miles |
|
Definition
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Term
| True or false: Where available, use other NAVAIDs to help identify the localizer course and glide slope intercept point |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| The localizer signal typically has a usable range of __ miles within __° of the course centerline unless otherwise stated on the IAP. |
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Definition
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Term
| The ILS/LOC approach must be discontinued if the localizer course becomes unreliable, or any time _____ deflection of the CDI occurs on final approach. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Do not descend below localizer minimums if the aircraft is more than ______ below or ______ above the glide slope |
|
Definition
one dot (half scale); two dots (full scale)
(210) |
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Term
| The localizer signal typically has a usable range of __ miles within __° of the course centerline unless otherwise stated on the IAP. |
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Definition
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Term
| The ILS/LOC approach must be discontinued if the localizer course becomes unreliable, or any time _____ deflection of the CDI occurs on final approach. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Do not descend below localizer minimums if the aircraft is more than ______ below or ______ above the glide slope |
|
Definition
one dot (half scale); two dots (full scale)
(210) |
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Term
| The glide slope intercept altitude is identified by a ______ |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Do not descend below a descent restrictive altitude (minimum or mandatory) unless... |
|
Definition
established on final approach course
(211) |
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Term
| True or false: Obstacle clearance is provided to allow a momentary descent below DH while transitioning from the final approach to the missed approach. |
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Definition
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Term
| True or false: The middle marker (or a suitable substitute) may be used as the sole means of identifying the MAP |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| In order to fly a back course localizer approach, set the published ______ in the course selector window |
|
Definition
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Term
| If a RAIM failure occurs prior to the Final Approach Way Point (FAWP) or the approach mode does not activate prior to the FAWP... |
|
Definition
do not commence the approach and coordinate for an alternate clearance
(217) |
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Term
| In the T-6 if RAIM flag/status annunciation appears after the FAWP what do you do? |
|
Definition
climb to the missed approach altitude, proceed to the MAWP and execute a missed approach.
(218) |
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Term
| Arming the approach mode switches the aircraft to terminal CDI scaling (+/- __ NM). If the IAWP is beyond __ NM from the airfield, CDI sensitivity will not change until the aircraft is within that distance of the airport reference point |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| When within __ NM of the FAWP with the approach mode armed, the receiver will automatically initiate a RAIM check, and switch to approach sensitivity and RAIM (___ NM) |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Assigned altitudes must be maintained until... |
|
Definition
established on a published segment of the approach
(219) |
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Term
| To execute a missed approach on a GPS approach, ______ after crossing the MAWP. |
|
Definition
activate the missed approach
(219) |
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Term
| Once the missed approach is activated on a GPS approach, CDI sensitivity is set to __ NM |
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Definition
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Term
| True or false: In preparation for the radar approach, select a backup approach that is compatible with the existing weather and your aircraft where available |
|
Definition
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Term
| True or false: If you experience lost communications during a radar approach, you are automatically cleared to fly any published approach unless the controller issues a lost communications approach. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Attempt contact with the controlling agency if no transmissions are made within how long while being vectored to final on a radar approach? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Attempt contact with controlling agency if no transmissions are received for __ seconds while on final for an ASR approach |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Attempt contact with the controlling agency if no transmissions are received for ___ seconds while on final for a PAR approach |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| If you go lost comm during a radar approach and VFR cannot be maintained, what do you do? |
|
Definition
transition to your backup approach. Intercept the approach at the nearest point that will allow a normal rate of descent and not compromise safety. Maintain the last assigned altitude or the minimum safe/sector altitude (emergency safe altitude if more than 25 NM from the facility), whichever is higher, until established on a segment of the published approach
(220) |
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Term
| If you are flying a radar approach and there are no backup approaches compatible with the weather or with your aircraft... |
|
Definition
advise the controller upon initial contact of your intentions in the event of lost communications.
(220) |
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Term
| What controller instructions do you repeat on a radar approach? |
|
Definition
all headings, altitudes (departing and assigned), and altimeter settings until the final controller advises "do not acknowledge further transmissions."
(220) |
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Term
| On a radar approach, the controller is required to issue ceiling and visibility only when the ceiling is below _____ feet (_____ feet at civil airports) or below the highest ________, whichever is greater, or if the visibility is less than __ miles |
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Definition
1,500; 1,000; circling minimum; 3
(220) |
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Term
| Circling MDA for ASR approaches are found in the ______ |
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Definition
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|
Term
| True or false: on a radar approach, the MAP is always the runway |
|
Definition
False. The controller will inform you when you are at the MAP.
(221) |
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Term
| Approximately __ to __ seconds before final descent, the controller will advise that the aircraft is approaching the glide path |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| The controller will cease providing course and glide path guidance when: |
|
Definition
The pilot reports the runway/approach lights in sight, and the pilot elects to proceed visually
(221) |
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Term
| During a radar approach, perform turns during the transition to final by establishing an angle of bank on the ADI that will approximate a _____, not to exceed ____° AOB |
|
Definition
standard rate turn; 30°
(222) |
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Term
| When flying a radar approach, perform turns on final by establishing an angle of bank on the ADI that will approximate a _____. |
|
Definition
half-standard rate turn. NOTE: Do not begin using half-standard rate turns on final until the controller tells you
(222) |
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Term
| True or false: on a radar approach, you do not acknowledge controller instructions to stop or start turns |
|
Definition
False. Acknowledge the controller's commands to start and stop turns until advised not to acknowledge further transmissions
(222) |
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Term
| What must you have in order to fly a visual approach on an IFR flight plan? |
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Definition
The pilot must have either the airport or the preceding identified aircraft in sight, and the approach must be authorized and controlled by the appropriate ATC facility.
(222) |
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Term
| Before a visual approach can be authorized, the airport must have a ceiling at or above ____ feet and visibility _ miles or greater |
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Definition
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Term
| True or false: on a visual approach, if the pilot has the airport in sight but cannot see the preceding aircraft, ATC may still clear the aircraft for a visual approach; however, ATC retains both aircraft separation and wake separation responsibility |
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Definition
True. When visually following a preceding aircraft, acceptance of the visual approach clearance constitutes acceptance of pilot responsibility for maintaining a safe approach interval and adequate wake turbulence separation
(222) |
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Term
| True or false: cancel your IFR clearance when cleared for a visual approach |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| After being cleared for a visual approach, ATC expects you to... |
|
Definition
proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport in the most direct and safe manner to establish the aircraft on a normal straight-in final approach. Clearance for a visual approach does not authorize you to do an overhead/VFR traffic pattern
(223) |
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Term
| True or false: Visual approaches have no missed approach point. |
|
Definition
True because it is not an instrument approach
(223) |
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|
Term
| When cleared for a visual approach, the pilot has the following responsibilities: |
|
Definition
Advise ATC as soon as possible if a visual approach is not desired; Comply with controller's instructions for vectors toward the airport of intended landing or to a visual position behind a preceding aircraft; After being cleared for a visual approach, proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport in the most direct and safe manner to establish the aircraft on a normal final approach. You must have the airport or the preceding aircraft in sight; If instructed by ATC to follow another aircraft, notify the controller if you do not see it, are unable to maintain visual contact with it, or for any other reason you cannot accept the responsibility for visual separation under these conditions
(223) |
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Term
| Pilots operating on an IFR flight plan, when what cloud clearances can be maintainted with at least __ miles flight visibility and can reasonably expect to continue to the destination airport in those conditions, may request ATC authorization for a contact approach. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| ATC may only issue clearance for a contact approach under the following conditions: |
|
Definition
The pilot specifically requests the approach. ATC cannot initiate this approach; The reported ground visibility at the destination airport is at least 1 SM; The contact approach is made to an airport having a standard or special instrument approach procedure
(223) |
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Term
| True or false: a contact approach is not intended for an aircraft to conduct an approach to one airport, and then in the clear, proceed to another airport. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| True or false: Being cleared for a visual or contact approach authorizes the pilot to fly a 360° overhead traffic pattern |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| An aircraft conducting an overhead maneuver is VFR and the instrument flight rules (IFR) flight plan is canceled when the aircraft reaches the _____ |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Aircraft operating at an airport without a functioning control tower must initiate cancellation of the IFR flight plan when? |
|
Definition
prior to executing the overhead maneuver or after landing
(224) |
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|
Term
| When executing the visual segment, maintain what cloud clearances and proceed to the airport maintaining visual contact with what? |
|
Definition
clear of clouds; the ground
(224) |
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|
Term
| Converging runways are defined as runways having a ___ to ____ angle between them. |
|
Definition
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