Term
|
Definition
Airspace from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL 600, including the airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous States and Alaska.
IFR rules required.
Visibility: N/A
Distance to clouds: N/A |
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Term
|
Definition
From the surface to 10,000 feet MSL.
surrounds the nation's busiest airports in terms of IFR operations or passenger enplanements. The configuration of each Class B airspace area is individually tailored and consists of a surface area and two or more layers (resembling upside-down wedding cakes); designed to contain all published instrument procedures once an aircraft enters the airspace.
Visibility: 3 statute miles
Distance from clouds: Clear of clouds |
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Term
| What is required in Class B airspace? |
|
Definition
An ATC clearance is required for all aircraft to operate in Class B Airspace, and all aircraft that so cleared receive separation services within the airspace. The cloud clearance requirement for VFR operations is "clear of clouds".
Arriving or transiting aircraft must obtain an ATC clearance prior to entering Class B airspace on the appropriate frequency and relation to geographical fixes shown on local Class B aeronautical charts. Departing aircraft require a clearance to depart Class B airspace and should advise clearance delivery of their intended altitude and route of flight.
The aircraft must be equipped with an operable two-way radio capable of communicating with ATC on appropriate frequencies for that Class B airspace.
The aircraft must be equipped with an operable radar beacon transponder with automatic altitude reporting equipment.
Mode C Veil A mode C transponder with altitude reporting is required within 30 nautical miles of a Class B airport from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL.
An aircraft w/o a certified system installed may conduct operations within a Mode C veil provided the aircraft remains outside Class A, B, or C airspace; and below the altitude of the ceiling of a Class B (10,000 ft MSL) or Class C (4,000 ft MSL) airspace area designated for an airport or 10,000 feet MSL, whichever is lower. |
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Term
|
Definition
From the surface to 4,000 feet MSL above the airport elevation.
Surrounds those airports that have an operational control tower, are serviced by a radar approach control, and have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enplanements.
Visibility: 3 statute miles
Distance to clouds: 1000 feet above, 500 feet below, 2000 feet horizontal |
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Term
| What are the characteristics of Class C airspace? |
|
Definition
| Each Class C airspace area is individually tailored. The airspace usually consists of a 5 NM radius core surface area that extends from the surface up to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation, and a 10 NM radius shelf area that extends no lower than 1,200 feet up to 4,000 feet above airport elevation. |
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Term
| What is required in Class C airspace? |
|
Definition
A two way radio and unless otherwise authorized by ATC an operable radar beacon transponder with automatic altitude reporting equipment is required.
Two way radio communication must be established with the ATC facility providing ATC services prior to entry and thereafter maintain those communications while in Class C airspace.
Pilots of arriving aircraft should contact the Class C airspace ATC facility on the publicized frequency and give their position, altitude, radar beacon code destination, and request Class C service.
Radio contact should be initiated far enough from the Class C airspace boundary to preclude entering Class C airspace before two way radio communications are established. If the controller responds to a radio call with, "aircraft call sign, standby" radio communications have been established and the pilot can enter the Class C airspace. |
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Term
| What should you know about ATC instructions in Class C airspace? |
|
Definition
If workload or traffic conditions prevent immediate provision of Class C services, the controller will inform the pilot to remain outside the Class C airspace until conditions permit the services to be provided.
It is important to understand that if the controller responds to the initial radio call without using the aircraft call, radio communications have not been established and the pilot may not enter the Class C airspace. |
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Term
|
Definition
Airspace from the surface to 2,500 ft MSL above the airport elevation.
Visibility: 3 statute miles
Distance to clouds: 1000 feet above, 500 feet below, 2000 feet horizontal (same as class C). |
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Term
| What is required in Class D airspace? |
|
Definition
An operable two way radio is required.
Two way radio communication must be established with the ATC facility providing ATC services prior to entry and thereafter maintain those communications while in Class D airspace.
Pilots of arriving aircraft should contact the control tower on the publicized frequency and give their position, altitude, destination, and any request(s).
Radio contact should be initiated far enough from Class D airspace boundary to preclude entering the Class D airspace boundary to preclude entering Class D airspace before two way radio communications are established.
If the controller responds to a radio call with, "aircraft call sign, standby," radio communications have been established and the pilot can enter the Class D airspace. If workload or traffic conditions prevent immediate entry into Class D airspace, the controller will inform the pilot to remain outside the Class D airspace until conditions permit entry. |
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Term
|
Definition
Class E airspace is the controlled airspace not classified as Class A, B, C, or D airspace. Generally, ATC authorization is not needed.
1. Sectional and other charts depict
all Class E airspace below 14,500 feet
MSL.
2. Where charts don't depict a Class E
base, it begins at 14,500 feet MSL.
3. In most areas Class E airspace base is
1,200 feet AGL.
3. In other areas, Class E airspace is
either the surface or 700 ft AGL.
4. Some Class E airspace begins at a chart-depicted altitude in feet MSL or MSL instead of MGL.
Ceiling: Up to but not including 18,000 ft MSL (the lower limit of Class A airspace). All altitudes above FL 600.
At or above 10,000 feet MSL:
Visibility: 5 statute miles
Distance to clouds: 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, 1 SM horizontal.
Less than 10,000 feet MSL:
Visibility: 3 statute miles
Distance to clouds: 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, 2,000 feet horizontal (same as Class C, D and G below 10,000 feet MSL). |
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Term
What are the steps for good decision-making?
aka Aeronautical Decision-Making (ADM) |
|
Definition
1. Identifying personal attitudes
hazardous to safe flight.
2. Learning behavior modification
techniques.
3. Learning how to recognize and
cope with stress.
4. Developing risk assessment skills.
5. Using all resources.
6. Evaluating the effectiveness of
one’s ADM skills. |
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Term
| What are the six steps of the formal risk management decisionmaking process? |
|
Definition
1. Identify Hazards
2. Assess Risks
3. Analyze Controls
4. Make Control Decisions
5. Use Controls
6. Monitor Results |
|
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Term
| What are the four fundamental principles of risk management? |
|
Definition
1. Accept no unnecessary risk. Flying is not possible without risk, but unnecessary risk comes without a corresponding return.
2. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level. Risk decisions should be made by the person who can develop and implement risk controls.
3. Accept risk when benefits outweigh dangers (costs).
4. Integrate risk management into planning at all levels. Because risk is an unavoidable part of every flight, safety requires the use of appropriate and effective risk management not just in the preflight planning stage, but in all stages of the flight. |
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Term
|
Definition
Single Pilot Resource Management (SRM) is:
1. The art and science of managing all the resources available to a single pilot (prior to and during flight) to ensure the successful outcome of the flight. |
|
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Term
|
Definition
SRM includes:
1. the concepts of Aerial Decision Making (ADM),
2. risk management (RM),
3. task management (TM),
4. automation management (AM),
5. controlled flight into terrain (CFIT) awareness,
6. situational awareness (SA). |
|
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Term
| How does SRM help the pilot? |
|
Definition
SRM training helps the pilot:
1. maintain situational awareness by
2. managing the automation and associated aircraft control and
3. navigation tasks.
This enables the pilot to:
1. accurately assess and manage risk and
2. make accurate and timely decisions. |
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Term
| What are the two defining elements of ADM? |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| What is a Hazard as defined by ADM? |
|
Definition
| Hazard is a real or perceived condition, event, or circumstance that a pilot encounters. |
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Term
| What does a pilot do when faced with a hazard as defined by ADM? |
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Definition
| The pilot makes an assessment of that hazard based upon various factors. The pilot assigns a value to the potential impact of the hazard, which qualifies the pilot’s assessment of the hazard, that being the risk involved. |
|
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Term
| How is risk defined according to ADM? |
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Definition
| Risk is an assessment of the single or cumulative hazard facing a pilot. |
|
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Term
| What is the antidote for an Anti-authority "Don't tell me" attitude? |
|
Definition
| Follow the rues. They are usually right. |
|
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Term
| What are the five hazardous attitudes? |
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Definition
| antiauthority, macho, impulsivity, resignation, invulnerability (AMIRI) |
|
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Term
| How are hazardous thought neutralized? |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| What should a pilot do after recognizing a thought as hazardous? |
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Definition
| The pilot should label it as hazardous, then state the corresponding antidote. |
|
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Term
| What is the antidote for Impulsivity, a "Do it quickly" attitude? |
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Definition
| Not so fast. Think first. |
|
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Term
| What is the antidote for Invulnerability, an "It won't happen to me" attitude? |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| What is the antidote for a Macho "I can do it" attitude? |
|
Definition
| Taking chances is foolish. |
|
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Term
| What is the antidote for Resignation, a "What's the use" attitude? |
|
Definition
| I'm not helpless. I can make a difference. |
|
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Term
| What does the pilot need to do to fly safely? |
|
Definition
| Assess the degree of risk and determine the best course of action to mitigate the risk. |
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Term
| One of the best ways single pilots can mitigate risk is to use the IMSAFE checklist to determine physical and mental readiness for flying. What does IMSAFE stand for? |
|
Definition
1. Illness — Am I sick? Illness is an obvious pilot risk.
2. Medication — Am I taking any medicines that might affect my judgment or make me drowsy?
3. Stress — Am I under psychological pressure from the job? Do I have money, health, or family problems? Stress causes concentration and performance problems. While the regulations list medical conditions that require grounding, stress is not among them. The pilot should consider the effects of stress on performance.
4. Alcohol — Have I been drinking within 8 hours? Within 24 hours? As little as one ounce of liquor, one bottle of beer, or four ounces of wine can impair flying skills. Alcohol also renders a pilot more susceptible to disorientation and hypoxia.
5. Fatigue — Am I tired and not adequately rested? Fatigue continues to be one of the most insidious hazards to flight safety, as it may not be apparent to a pilot until serious errors are made.
6. Emotion — Am I emotionally upset? |
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Term
| the risk mitigation and hazard perception PAVE preflight planning checklist stand for? |
|
Definition
1. Pilot-in-command (PIC),
2. Aircraft,
3. enVironment, and
4. External pressures
are PAVE which form part of a pilot’s decisionmaking process. |
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Term
| What must a pilot do once the risks of a flight are indentified? |
|
Definition
| He or she needs to decide whether the risk, or combination of risks, can be managed safely and successfully. If not, make the decision to cancel the flight. If the pilot decides to continue with the flight, he or she should develop strategies to mitigate the risks. One way a pilot can control the risks is to set personal minimums for items in each risk category. |
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Term
| What are the P risk factors in a flight? |
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Definition
| P = PilotinCommand (PIC): The pilot must ask, “Am I ready for this flight?” in terms of experience, recency, currency, physical, and emotional condition. The IMSAFE checklist provides the answers. |
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Term
| What are the A limitation questions a pilot must ask before a flight? |
|
Definition
A = Aircraft:
1. Is this the right aircraft for the flight?
2. Am I familiar with and current in this aircraft?
3. Can this aircraft carry the planned load? |
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Term
| What are the V considerations a pilot must consider before a flight? |
|
Definition
WEATHER
1. What is the current ceiling and visibility?
2. Consider the possibility that the weather may be different than forecast. 3. Are there any thunderstorms present or forecast?
4. If there are clouds, is there any icing, current or forecast? What is the temperature/dew point spread and the current temperature at altitude?
TERRAIN
Evaluation of terrain is another important component of analyzing the flight environment.
AIRSPACE
Check the airspace and any temporary flight restriction (TFRs). |
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Term
| What are the E factors influencing a pilot and creating a sense of pressure to fly? |
|
Definition
1. The desire to demonstrate pilot qualifications
2. The desire to impress someone (Probably the two most dangerous words in aviation are “Watch this!”)
3. The pilot’s general goal-completion orientation
4. Emotional pressure associated with acknowledging that skill and experience levels may be lower than a pilot would like them to be. Pride can be a powerful external factor! |
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Term
| How can external pressures be managed by the pilot so s/he does not ignore risk factors? |
|
Definition
| The use of personal standard operating procedures (SOPs) is one way to manage external pressures. The goal is to supply a release for the external pressures of a flight. |
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Term
| What is the definition for airports? |
|
Definition
Any area of land or water used or intended for landing or takeoff of aircraft, including special types of facilities such as seaplane bases, heliports, and facilities to accommodate tilt rotor aircraft.
An airport includes an area used or intended for airport buildings, facilities, as well as rights of way together with the buildings and facilities. |
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Term
| What are the types of airports? |
|
Definition
1. Towered
2. Non-towered
Subdivided into:
a. Civil Airports open to the general public
b. Military/Federal Government airports, i.e., airports operated by the military, NASA, or other agencies of the Federal Government.
c. Private Airports designated for private or restricted use only, not open to the general public |
|
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Term
| What does a Towered Airport have? |
|
Definition
| A towered airport has an operating control tower. Air traffic control (ATC) is responsible for providing the safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of air traffic at airports where the type of operations and/or volume of traffic requires such a service. |
|
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Term
| What does Non-towered Airport not have/require? |
|
Definition
| It does not have an operating control tower and two-way radio communications are not required. |
|
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Term
| How does a sUAS pilot obtain information from a Non-Towered Airport? |
|
Definition
| It is a good operating practice for pilots to monitor other aircraft on the specified frequency for the benefit of other traffic in the area. The key to monitoring traffic at an airport without an operating control tower is selection of the correct common frequency (CTAF). |
|
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Term
|
Definition
| The acronym CTAF stands for Common Traffic Advisory Frequency. A CTAF is a frequency designated for the purpose of carrying out airport advisory practices while operating to or from an airport without an operating control tower. The CTAF may be a Universal Integrated Community (UNICOM), MULTICOM, FSS, or tower frequency and is identified in appropriate aeronautical publications. |
|
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Term
|
Definition
| UNICOM is a nongovernment air/ground radio communication station that may provide airport information at public use airports where there is no tower or FSS. |
|
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Term
| What is the default radio frequency at Non-towered airports which do not have a frequency listed on an AIM? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the required Non-tower Airport incoming entry procedures? |
|
Definition
| Nontowered airport traffic patterns are always entered at pattern altitude. How you enter the pattern depends upon the direction of arrival. The preferred method for entering from the downwind side of the pattern is to approach the pattern on a course 45 degrees to the downwind leg and join the pattern at midfield. |
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Term
| What are the four common information sources that provide a sUAS pilot with data for, e.g., communication frequencies, services available, closed runways, or airport construction? |
|
Definition
1. Aeronautical charts
2. Chart Supplement U.S. (formerly
Airport/Facility Directory)
3. Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs)
4. Automated Terminal Information Service (ATIS) |
|
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Term
| By what distance should all skeletal structures be avoided? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
the portion of the airspace that has not been designated as Class A, B, C, D, or E. It is therefore uncontrolled airspace. Class G airspace extends from the surface to the base of the overlying Class E airspace. A remote pilot will not need ATC authorization to operate in Class G airspace.
At 1,200 feet or less by day:
Visibility: 1 statute mile
Distance from clouds: Clear of clouds
At 1,200 feet or less by night:
Visibility: 3 statute miles
Distance from clouds: 1,000 ft above, 500 feet below. 2,000 ft horizontal
At more than 1,200 feet by day:
Visibility: 1 statute mile
Distance from clouds: 1,000 ft above, 500 feet below. 2,000 ft horizontal
At more than 1,200 feet by night:
Visibility: 3 statute miles
Distance from clouds: 1,000 ft above, 500 feet below. 2,000 ft horizontal
At more than 1,200 feet above the surface and at or above 10,000 feet:
Visibility: 5 statute miles
Distance from clouds: 1,000 ft above, 1,000 feet below. 1 SM horizontal |
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Term
| Define Special Use Airspace. |
|
Definition
Special use airspace or special area of operation (SAO) is the designation for airspace in which certain activities must be confined, or where limitations may be imposed on aircraft operations that are not part of those activities. Special use airspace usually consists of:
1. Prohibited areas
2. Restricted areas
3. Warning areas
4. Military operation areas (MOAs)
5. Alert areas
6. Controlled firing areas (CFAs)
Certain special use airspace areas can create limitations on the mixed use of airspace. The special use airspace depicted on instrument charts includes: 1. the area name or number
2. effective altitude
3. time and weather conditions of
operation
4. the controlling agency
5. the chart panel location |
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Term
| What are Prohibited Areas? |
|
Definition
| Prohibited areas contain airspace of defined dimensions within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited. Such areas are established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare. These areas are published in the Federal Register and are depicted on aeronautical charts. The area is charted as a “P” followed by a number (e.g., P40). |
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Term
| What are Restricted Areas? |
|
Definition
Restricted areas are areas where operations are hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft and contain airspace within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions. Activities within these areas must be confined because of their nature, or limitations may be imposed upon aircraft operations that are not a part of those activities, or both. Restricted areas denote the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft (e.g., artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles). Penetration of restricted areas without authorization from the using or controlling agency may be extremely hazardous to the aircraft.
1. If the restricted area is not active and has been released to the FAA, the ATC facility allows the aircraft to operate in the restricted airspace without issuing specific clearance for it to do so.
2. If the restricted area is active and has not been released to the FAA, the ATC facility issues a clearance that ensures the aircraft avoids the restricted airspace.
Restricted areas are charted with an “R” followed by a number (e.g., R4401) and are depicted on the en route chart appropriate for use at the altitude or flight level (FL) being flown. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Warning areas are similar in nature to restricted areas; however, the United States government does not have sole jurisdiction over the airspace. A warning area is airspace of defined dimensions, extending from 3 NM outward from the coast of the United States, containing activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The purpose of such areas is to warn nonparticipating pilots of the potential danger. A warning area may be located over domestic or international waters or both. The airspace is designated with a “W” followed by a number (e.g., W237). |
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Term
| What are Military Operation Areas (MOAs)? |
|
Definition
| MOAs consist of airspace with defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic. Whenever an MOA is being used, nonparticipating IFR traffic may be cleared through an MOA if IFR separation can be provided by ATC. Otherwise, ATC reroutes or restricts nonparticipating IFR traffic. MOAs are depicted on sectional, VFR terminal area, and en route low altitude charts and are not numbered. However, the MOA is also further defined on the back of the sectional charts with times of operation, altitudes affected, and the controlling agency. |
|
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Term
|
Definition
| Alert areas are depicted on aeronautical charts with an “A” followed by a number (e.g., A211) to inform nonparticipating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. Pilots should exercise caution in alert areas. All activity within an alert area shall be conducted in accordance with regulations, without waiver, and pilots of participating aircraft, as well as pilots transiting the area, shall be equally responsible for collision avoidance. |
|
|
Term
| What are Controlled Firing Areas (CFAs)? |
|
Definition
| CFAs contain activities that, if not conducted in a controlled environment, could be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The difference between CFAs and other special use airspace is that activities must be suspended when a spotter aircraft, radar, or ground lookout position indicates an aircraft might be approaching the area. There is no need to chart CFAs since they do not cause a nonparticipating aircraft to change its flight path. |
|
|
Term
| What are Other Airspace Areas? |
|
Definition
“Other airspace areas” is a general term referring to the majority of the remaining airspace. It includes:
-Local airport advisory (LAA)
-Military training route (MTR)
-Temporary flight restriction (TFR)-Parachute jump aircraft operations
-Published VFR routes
-Terminal radar service area (TRSA)-National security area (NSA)
-Air Defense Identification Zones (ADIZ) land and water based and need for Defense VFR (DVFR) flight plan to operate VFR in this airspace
-Flight Restricted Zones (FRZ) in the vicinity of Capitol and White House
-Wildlife Areas/Wilderness Areas/National Parks and request to operate above 2,000
AGL
-National Oceanic and Atmospheric
Administration (NOAA) Marine Areas off the coast with requirement to operate above 2,000 AGL
-Tethered Balloons for observation and weather recordings that extend on cables up to 60,000 feet |
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|
Term
| What does FAA 14 CFR Part 107 NOT apply to? |
|
Definition
- Model aircraft that satisfy all of the criteria specified in section 336 of Public Law 112-95.
- Public aircraft
- Section 333 exempted aircraft operating under regulations.
- Air carrier operations. |
|
|
Term
| How far may the sUAS roam from the remote PIC? |
|
Definition
| At all times the small unmanned aircraft must remain close enough to the remote pilot in command and the person manipulating the flight controls of the small UAS for those people to be capable of seeing the aircraft with vision unaided by any device other than corrective lenses. |
|
|
Term
| Where may sUAS NOT operate? |
|
Definition
-Over any persons not directly participating in the operation
-under a covered structure
-inside a covered stationary vehicle. |
|
|
Term
| What time of day may a sUAS operate? |
|
Definition
-Daylight-only operations or;
-civil twilight (30 minutes before official sunrise to 30 minutes after official sunset, local time) with appropriate anti-collision lighting. |
|
|
Term
| What are sUAS operating limits? |
|
Definition
-Maximum groundspeed of 100 mph (87 knots).
-Maximum altitude of 400 feet above ground level (AGL) or, if higher than 400 feet AGL, remain within 400 feet of a structure.
-Minimum weather visibility of 3 miles from control station. |
|
|
Term
| To what must a sUAS yield? |
|
Definition
| The right of way to other aircraft (see-and avoid) under VFR rules. |
|
|
Term
| Is a Visual Observer required for sUAS operations? |
|
Definition
| No, but the use of a VO is permitted. |
|
|
Term
| What is a First-person view camera and how may it be used during sUAS operations? |
|
Definition
| First-person view (FPV) is the ability of the user of some technology to see from a particular visual perspective other than one's actual location. FPV equipment cannot satisfy the “see-and-avoid” requirement but can be used as long as requirement is satisfied in other ways (e.g., using a VO). |
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|
Term
| Where airspace may a sUAS operate in? |
|
Definition
Operations in Class B, C, D and E airspace are allowed with the required ATC permission.
Operations in Class G airspace are allowed without ATC permission. |
|
|
Term
| How may sUAS' may one remote PIC operate? |
|
Definition
| No person may act as a remote pilot in command or VO for more than one unmanned aircraft operation at one time. |
|
|
Term
| What sUAS operations may a remote PIC not perform? |
|
Definition
No operations from a moving aircraft.
-No operations from a moving vehicle unless the operation is over a sparsely populated area.
-No careless or reckless operations.
-No carriage of hazardous materials. |
|
|
Term
| When may a remote PIC not operate a sUAS? |
|
Definition
| If he or she knows or has reason to know of any physical or mental condition that would interfere with the safe operation of a small UAS. |
|
|
Term
| May a sUAS carry an external load? |
|
Definition
| External load operations are allowed if the object being carried by the unmanned aircraft is securely attached and does not adversely affect the flight characteristics or controllability of the aircraft. |
|
|
Term
| Is transportation by sUAS of property for which the remote PIC is compensated or hired allowed? |
|
Definition
Transportation of property for compensation or hire allowed provided that:
- The aircraft, including its attached systems, payload and cargo weigh less than 55 pounds total;
- The flight is conducted within visual line of sight and not from a moving vehicle or aircraft; and
-The flight occurs wholly within the bounds of a State and does not involve transport between
(1) Hawaii and another place in Hawaii through airspace outside Hawaii;
(2) the District of Columbia and another place in the District of Columbia; or
(3) a territory or possession of the United States and another place in the same territory or possession. |
|
|
Term
| Can certain flight restrictions be waived? |
|
Definition
| Yes, if the applicant demonstrates that his or her operation can safely be conducted under the terms of a certificate of waiver. |
|
|
Term
| What must each sUAS flight operation do? |
|
Definition
| Establishe a remote pilot in command position. |
|
|
Term
| In order to operate a sUAS what must a remote PIC hold or be? |
|
Definition
| Either a remote pilot airman either a certificate with a small UAS rating or be under the direct supervision of a person who does hold a remote pilot certificate (remote pilot in command). |
|
|
Term
| What must a person do to qualify for a remote pilot certificate? |
|
Definition
Demonstrate aeronautical knowledge by either:
– Passing an initial aeronautical knowledge test at an FAA-approved knowledge testing center; or
– Hold a part 61 pilot certificate other than student pilot, complete a flight review within the previous 24 months, and complete a small UAS online training course provided by the FAA.
o Be vetted by the Transportation Security Administration.
o Be at least 16 years old. |
|
|
Term
| What are the pre-flight requirements regarding the condition of the sUAS? |
|
Definition
A remote pilot in command must:
- Make available to the FAA, upon request, the small UAS for inspection or testing, and any associated documents/records required to be kept under the rule.
- Conduct a preflight inspection, to include specific aircraft and control station systems checks, to ensure the small UAS is in a condition for safe operation.
- Ensure that the small unmanned aircraft complies with the existing registration requirements specified in § 91.203(a)(2). |
|
|
Term
| What should a sUAS remote PIC do if s/he has an accident during flight operations? |
|
Definition
| Report to the FAA within 10 days of any operation that results in at least serious injury, loss of consciousness, or property damage of at least $500. |
|
|
Term
| May a sUAS remote PIC disregard any of the rules and regulations under (14 CFR) Part 107 sUAS? |
|
Definition
| A remote pilot in command may deviate from the requirements of this rule in response to an in-flight emergency. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A Visual Observer (VO) is a person who is designated by the remote pilot in command to assist the remote pilot in command and the person manipulating the flight controls of the small UAS to see and avoid other air traffic or objects aloft or on the ground. A VO does NOT have the responsibility for any results or consequences of a sUAS flight operation; the designated remote PIC has full responsibility. |
|
|
Term
| What is a Control Station? |
|
Definition
| An interface used by the remote pilot or the person manipulating the controls to control the flight path of the small UA. |
|
|
Term
| What is a Person Manipulating the Controls? |
|
Definition
| A person other than the remote pilot in command (PIC) who is controlling the flight of an sUAS under the supervision of the remote PIC. The Person Manipulating the Controls does NOT have the responsibility for any results or consequences of a sUAS flight operation; the designated remote PIC has full responsibility. |
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Term
| Define "Remote Pilot in Command (Remote PIC or Remote Pilot)." |
|
Definition
| A person who holds a remote pilot certificate with an sUAS rating and has the final authority and responsibility for the operation and safety of an sUAS operation conducted under part 107. |
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|
Term
| Define "Small Unmanned Aircraft (UA)." |
|
Definition
| A UA under (14 CFR) Part 107 is flyable craft weighing less than 55 pounds, including everything that is onboard or otherwise attached to the aircraft that can be flown without the possibility of direct human intervention from within or on the aircraft. |
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Term
Define the following abbreviations:
1. AC
2. ACR
3. AGL
4. ATC
5. CFI
6. CFR
7. DPE
8. FAA
9. FSDO
10. GPS
11. IACRA
12. KTC
13. MSL
14. NOTAM
15. NAS
16. PIC
17. UA
18. UAS
19. U.S.C.
20. VO |
|
Definition
1. AC: Advisory Circular.
2. ACR: Airman Certification Representative.
3. AGL: Above Ground Level.
4. ATC: Air Traffic Control.
5. CFI: Certificated Flight Instructor.
6. CFR: Code of Federal Regulations.
7. DPE: Designated Pilot Examiner.
8. FAA: Federal Aviation Administration.
9. FSDO: Flight Standards District Office.
10. GPS: Global Positioning System.
11. IACRA: Integrated Airmen Certification and/or Rating Application.
12. KTC: Knowledge Testing Center.
13. MSL: Mean Sea Level.
14. NOTAM: Notice to Airmen.
15. NAS: National Airspace System.
16. PIC: Pilot in Command.
17. UA: Unmanned Aircraft.
18. UAS: Unmanned Aircraft System.
19. U.S.C.: United States Code.
20. VO: Visual Observer. |
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Term
What do these QUALIFIER descriptions of weather phenomena mean:
- , , +, VC, OCNL, PROB50 |
|
Definition
The intensity or proximity:
- = Light
No qualifier = Moderate
+ = Heavy
VC = Vicinity
OCNL = Occasional
PROB50 = Probability 50% |
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|
Term
What do these DESCRIPTOR abbreviations of weather phenomena mean:
MI
BC
DR
BL
SH
TS
FZ
LTN
PR
VR
OCN
G |
|
Definition
MI = Shallow
BC = Patches
DR = Low Drifting
BL = Blowing
SH = Showers
TS = Thunderstorms
FZ = Freezing
PR = Partial
LTN = Lightning
VR = Variable
OCN = Occasional
G = Gusting (e.g., G26KT) |
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|
Term
What do these PRECIPITATION abbreviations of weather phenomena mean:
DZ
RA
SN
SG
IC
PL
GR
GS
UP |
|
Definition
DZ = Drizzle
RA = Rain
SN = Snow
SG = Snow Grains
IC = Ice Crystals (diamond dust)
PL = Ice Pellets
GR = Hail greater than 0.25 inches
GS = Small Hail or Snow Pellets
UP = Unknown Precipitation |
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|
Term
What do these OBSCURATION abbreviations of weather phenomena mean:
BR
FG
FU
DU
SA
HZ
PY
PO
VA
LTN
PY
VA
OCN |
|
Definition
BR = Mist
FG = Fog
FU = Smoke
DU = Dust
SA = Sand
HZ = Haze
LTN = Lightning
PY = Spray
PO = Well Developed
VA = Volcanic Ash |
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|
Term
What do these OTHER abbreviations of weather phenomena mean:
PO
SQ
FC
+FC
SS
DS |
|
Definition
PO = Dust/Sand Whirls
SQ = Squalls
FC = Funnel Cloud
+FC = Tornado or Water Spout
SS = Sandstorm
DS = Dust Storm |
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|
Term
What do the following weather abbreviations mean:
METAR
PIREP
AUTO
RMKS
AO1
AO2
TAFAMD
SPECI
ICAO
KXXX
PA
PH
ADDS
COR
G
KT
V
SM
RVR |
|
Definition
METAR = Aviation Routine Weather Report
PIREP = Special Aviation Routine Weather
Report
AUTO = Report from automated source
RMKS = Remarks
AO1 = No precipitation discriminator
AO2 = With precipitation discriminator
TAFAMD = Temporary Area Forecast Amended
SPECI = Special (Weather Condition)
ICAO =
KXXX = K = US Airport, 3 Letters are US
airport code name
PA =
PH =
ADDS =
COR = Correction to weather report
G =
KT = Knots
V = Variable
SM = Statute Miles
RVR = |
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|
Term
What do these Sky Cover acronyms mean?
P6SM
SKC, CLR
FEW
SCT
BKN
OVC
AGL
TCU
CB
IC
CG |
|
Definition
P6SM = Forecast visibility greater than 6
miles
SKC, CLR = Less than 1/8 (Clear)
FEW = 1/8 - 2/8 (Few)
SCT = 3/8 - 4/8 (Scattered)
BKN = 5/8 - 7/8 (Broken)
IC = In the clouds (lightning)
CG = Cloud to ground (lightning)
OVC = 8/8 (Overcast)
AGL = Above Ground Level
TCU = Towering Cumulus clouds
CB = Cumulonimbus clouds |
|
|
Term
| What do 19/15 and M01/00 mean? |
|
Definition
Temperature 18C/Dewpoint 17C
Temperature -1C/Dewpoint 0C |
|
|
Term
| How is the altimeter setting reported? |
|
Definition
| reported as inches of mercury ("Hg) in a fourdigit number group (A2970). It is always preceded by the letter “A.” |
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|
Term
| What do PRESRR and PRESFR mean? |
|
Definition
Rising or falling pressure may also be denoted in the “Remarks” sections as
“PRESRR” Pressure Rising Rapidly
or “PRESFR,” Pressure Falling Rapidly |
|
|
Term
What do these acronyms mean?
TAF
AF
SIGMET
AIRMET
FM
TEMPO |
|
Definition
TAF = Terminal Aerodrome Forecast
FA = Inflight Weather Advisory
SIGMET = Significant Meteorological information
AIRMET = Airman's Meteorological Information
FM = Rapid and significant change expected, usually within an hour
TEMPO = Temporary fluctuations of weather expected to last less than an hour |
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|
Term
| What are the parameters of a TAF? |
|
Definition
| a report established for the five statute mile radius around an airport. TAF reports are usually given for larger airports. Each TAF is valid for a 24 or 30hour time period and is updated four times a day at 0000Z, 0600Z, 1200Z, and 1800Z |
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|
Term
| What does SIGMET (WST) mean? |
|
Definition
| Convective SIGMETs are issued for severe thunderstorms with surface winds greater than 50 knots, hail at the surface greater than or equal to ¾ inch in diameter, or tornadoes. They are also issued to advise pilots of embedded thunderstorms, lines of thunderstorms, or thunderstorms with heavy or greater precipitation that affect 40 percent or more of a 3,000 square mile or greater region. |
|
|
Term
| What do Z and UTC, the latter preceded by two digits, mean in weather reports? |
|
Definition
Z = ZULU Standardized Time
UTC = the date and starting hour (UTC) of Valid period dates and times. 0812/0912 is the day of the month for the beginning and end of the TAF, and the last two digits (12) are the beginning and ending hour (UTC) of the valid period. A forecast period that begins at midnight UTC is annotated as 00. If the end time of a valid period is at midnight UTC, it is annotated as 24. For example, a 00Z TAF issued on the 9th of the month and valid for 24 hours would have a valid period of 0900/0924. |
|
|
Term
| How is visibility reported in METARS? |
|
Definition
| the prevailing visibility (¾ SM) is reported in statute miles as denoted by the letters “SM.” It is reported in both miles and fractions of miles. At times, runway visual range (RVR) is reported following the prevailing visibility. RVR is the distance a pilot can see down the runway in a moving aircraft. When RVR is reported, it is shown with an R, then the runway number followed by a slant, then the visual range in feet. For example, when the RVR is reported as R17L/1400FT, it translates to a visual range of 1,400 feet on runway 17 left. |
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|
Term
| How is wind reported in METARS? |
|
Definition
| with five digits (14021KT) unless the speed is greater than 99 knots, in which case the wind is reported with six digits. The first three digits indicate the direction the true wind is blowing from in tens of degrees. If the wind is variable, it is reported as “VRB.” The last two digits indicate the speed of the wind in knots unless the wind is greater than 99 knots, in which case it is indicated by three digits. If the winds are gusting, the letter “G” follows the wind speed (G26KT). After the letter “G,” the peak gust recorded is provided. If the wind direction varies more than 60° and the wind speed is greater than six knots, a separate group of numbers, separated by a “V,” will indicate the extremes of the wind directions. |
|
|
Term
| What do AWOS and ASOS mean? |
|
Definition
AWOS = Automated Weather Observing Systems
ASOS = Automated Surface Observing Systems |
|
|
Term
| What do NWS, NOAA, FAA and DOD mean? |
|
Definition
NWS = National Weather Service
NOAA = National Oceanic and Atmospheric
Administration
FAA = Federal Aviation Administration
DOD = Department of Defense |
|
|
Term
| What speed is a knot (KT)? |
|
Definition
| One nautical mile per hour, exactly 1.852 km/h (approximately 1.15078 mph). |
|
|
Term
| How long is a Nautical Mile (NM)? |
|
Definition
| The average is about 1.15 statute miles, 1,852 metres, 6,076 feet. |
|
|
Term
| What is the altitude floor when operating in designated Marine Areas and Wildlife/Wilderness or National Parks airspace? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A LAA is a Local Airport Advisory service provided by Flight Service facilities, which are located on the landing airport, using a discrete groundtoair frequency or the tower frequency when the tower is closed. LAA services include local airport advisories, automated weather reporting with voice broadcasting, and a continuous Automated Surface Observing System (ASOS)/Automated Weather Observing Station (AWOS) data display, other continuous direct reading instruments, or manual observations available to the specialist. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A MTR is a Military Training Route used by military aircraft to maintain proficiency in tactical flying. These routes are usually established below 10,000 feet MSL for operations at speeds in excess of 250 knots. Some route segments may be defined at higher altitudes for purposes of route continuity. |
|
|
Term
| How are MTRs identified on a chart? |
|
Definition
| Military Training Routes are identified as IFR (IR), and VFR (VR), followed by a number. MTRs with no segment above 1,500 feet AGL are identified by four number characters (e.g., IR1206, VR1207). MTRs that include one or more segments above 1,500 feet AGL are identified by three number characters (e.g., IR206, VR207). IFR low altitude en route charts depict all IR routes and all VR routes that accommodate operations above 1,500 feet AGL. IR routes are conducted in accordance with IFR regardless of weather conditions. VFR sectional charts depict military training activities, such as IR, VR, MOA, restricted area, warning area, and alert area information. |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| It is a Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR) flight data center (FDC) Notice to Airmen (NOTAM). A flight data center (FDC) Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) is issued to designate a TFR. The NOTAM begins with the phrase “FLIGHT RESTRICTIONS” followed by the location of the temporary restriction, effective time period, area defined in statute miles, and altitudes affected. The NOTAM also contains the FAA coordination facility and telephone number, the reason for the restriction, and any other information deemed appropriate. |
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|
Term
| What should a sUAS pilot check as part of flight planning? |
|
Definition
| The pilot should check the NOTAMs as part of flight planning. It is a pilot’s responsibility to be aware of TFRs in their proposed area of flight. One way to check is to visit the FAA website, www.tfr.faa.gov, and verify that there is not a TFR in the area. |
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|
Term
| What are some of the purposes for establishing TFRs? |
|
Definition
- Protect persons and property in the air or on the surface from an existing or imminent hazard.
- Provide a safe environment for the operation of disaster relief aircraft.
- Prevent an unsafe congestion of sightseeing aircraft above an incident or event, that may generate a high degree of public interest.
- Protect declared national disasters for humanitarian reasons in the State of Hawaii.
- Protect the President, Vice President, or other public figures.
- Provide a safe environment for space agency (NASA) operations. |
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|
Term
| What is the primary purpose of the ATC and NAS system? |
|
Definition
| The primary purpose of the Air Traffic Control System is to prevent a collision between aircraft operating in the National Airspace System and to organize and expedite the flow of traffic. |
|
|
Term
| What are some of the limitations on the ATC's additional services? |
|
Definition
| The ability to provide additional services is limited by many factors, such as the volume of traffic, frequency congestion, quality of radar, controller workload, higher priority duties, and the pure physical inability to scan and detect those situations that fall in this category. It is recognized that these services cannot be provided in cases in which the provision of services is precluded by the above factors. |
|
|
Term
| What must all aircraft and their pilots comply with? |
|
Definition
| aircraft operating in today’s National Airspace System (NAS) have complied with the CFR governing its certification and maintenance; all pilots operating today have completed rigorous pilot certification training and testing. |
|
|
Term
| What is of equal importance with pilot training and certification? |
|
Definition
| Of equal importance is the proper execution of preflight planning, aeronautical decisionmaking (ADM) and risk management. ADM involves a systematic approach to risk assessment and stress management in aviation, illustrates how personal attitudes can influence decisionmaking, and how those attitudes can be modified to enhance safety. Pilots also comply with very strict FAA general operating and flight rules as outlined in the CFR, including the FAA’s important “see and avoid” mandate. |
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|
Term
| What does VFR mean and entail? |
|
Definition
Visual Flight Rules (VFR) guide sUAS operations. Remote pilots need to be familiar with the following information from the FAA Aeronautical Chart User’s Guide website:
- All information on the VFR Terms tab
The following sections under “VFR Aeronautical Chart Symbols” on the VFR Symbols tab:
- Airports
- Airspace Information
- Navigational and Procedural Information
- Chart Limits
- Culture
- Hydrography
- Relief |
|
|
Term
| What are NOTAMs and what do they provide to the remote pilot or PIC? |
|
Definition
| Notices to Airmen, or NOTAMs, are timecritical aeronautical information either temporary in nature or not sufficiently known in advance to permit publication on aeronautical charts or in other operational publications. The information receives immediate dissemination via the National Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) System. NOTAMs contain current notices to airmen that are considered essential to the safety of flight, as well as supplemental data affecting other operational publications. |
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|
Term
| What are some examples of NOTAMs? |
|
Definition
There are many different reasons that NOTAMs are issued. some are:
- Hazards, such as air shows, parachute jumps, kite flying, and rocket launches
- Flights by important people such as heads of state
- Inoperable lights on tall obstructions - Temporary erection of obstacles near airfields
- Passage of flocks of birds through airspace (a NOTAM in this category is known as a BIRDTAM) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A Temporary Flight Restriction issued in a NOTAM due to accidents, VIP flights and locations, military training, etc. |
|
|
Term
| What operations may be conducted in Class G airspace below 1,200 feet above the surface? |
|
Definition
1. Helicopter. A helicopter may be operated clear of clouds in an airport traffic pattern within 1/2 mile of the runway or helipad of intended landing if the flight visibility is not less than 1/2 statute mile.
2. Airplane, powered parachute, or weight-shift-control aircraft. If the visibility is less than 3 statute miles but not less than 1 statute mile during night hours and you are operating in an airport traffic pattern within 1/2 mile of the runway, you may operate an airplane, powered parachute, or weight-shift-control aircraft clear of clouds. |
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|
Term
| Where may a person not operate an aircraft beneath the ceiling in Class G Airspace under VFR? |
|
Definition
No person may operate an aircraft beneath the ceiling under VFR within the lateral boundaries of controlled airspace designated to the surface for an airport when the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.
No person may take off or land an aircraft, or enter the traffic pattern of an airport, under VFR, within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport unless:
1. Ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 statute miles; or
2. If ground visibility is not reported at that airport, unless flight visibility during landing or takeoff, or while operating in the traffic pattern is at least 3 statute miles. |
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|
Term
| How is a weather forecast period beginning at midnight UTC annotated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the consequences of reproducing and falsifying fraudulent records, certificates, ratings, authorizations, records or reports that are to be made, kept or used according to the law? |
|
Definition
1. Denial of an application for a remote pilot certificate or a certificate of waiver,
2. Suspension or revocation of any certificate or waiver issued by the Administrator under this part and held by that person; or
3. A civil penalty |
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|
Term
| What is a "Control Station"? |
|
Definition
| An interface used by the remote pilot to control the flight path of the small unmanned aircraft. |
|
|
Term
What do the following acronyms mean?
AC
ACR
CFI
CFR
DPE
FDSO
GPS
IACRA
KTC
NAS
U.S.C. |
|
Definition
1. AC: Advisory Circular.
2. ACR: Airman Certification
Representative.
3. AGL: Above Ground Level.
4. CFI: Certificated Flight Instructor.
5. CFR: Code of Federal Regulations.
6. DPE: Designated Pilot Examiner.
7. FSDO: Flight Standards District Office.
8. GPS: Global Positioning System.
9. IACRA: Integrated Airmen Certification
and/or Rating Application.
10. KTC: Knowledge Testing Center.
11. NAS: National Airspace System.
12. U.S.C.: United States Code |
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|
Term
| What is a Small Unmanned Aircraft (SUA)? |
|
Definition
| an unmanned aircraft weighing less than 55 pounds on takeoff, including everything that is on board or otherwise attached to the aircraft. |
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|
Term
| What is a Small Unmanned Aircraft System (SUAS)? |
|
Definition
It is a small unmanned aircraft and its associated elements (including communication links and the components that control the small unmanned aircraft) that are required for the safe and efficient operation of the small unmanned aircraft in the national airspace system.
Unmanned aircraft means an aircraft operated without the possibility of direct human intervention from within or on the aircraft. |
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|
Term
| What must a remote PIC, owner or person manipulating the flight controls of a small unmanned aircraft system must, upon request, make available to the Administrator? |
|
Definition
1. The remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating; and
2. Any other document, record, or report required to be kept under the regulations of Chapter 107. |
|
|
Term
| What must a remote PIC, VO, owner, operator or person manipulating the flight controls of a small unmanned aircraft system must, upon request, allow the Administrator to do? |
|
Definition
| Make any test or inspection of the small unmanned aircraft system, the remote pilot in command, the person manipulating the flight controls of a small unmanned aircraft system, and, if applicable, the visual observer to determine compliance with this part. |
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|
Term
| What must a remote PIC do after an accident in which The cost of repair (including materials and labor) exceeds $500; the fair market value of the property exceeds $500 in the event of total loss; or there is serious injury to any person or any loss of consciousness? |
|
Definition
| No later than 10 calendar days after an operation that meets the criteria of $$$ values of CFR 14 107, a remote pilot in command must report to the FAA, in a manner acceptable to the Administrator, any operation of the small unmanned aircraft involved in the accident |
|
|
Term
| What is the reporting requirement for a report submitted within 10 days of an operation that created the serious injury or damage? |
|
Definition
A report that may be submitted to the appropriate FAA Regional Operations Center (ROC) electronically or by telephone. Reports may also be made to the nearest jurisdictional FSDO The report should include the following information:
1. sUAS remote PIC’s name and contact information;
2. sUAS remote PIC’s FAA airman certificate number;
3. sUAS registration number issued to the aircraft, if required (FAA registration number);
4. Location of the accident;
5. Date of the accident;
6. Time of the accident;
7. Person(s) injured and extent of injury, if any or known;
8. Property damaged and extent of damage, if any or known; and
9. Description of what happened.
A serious injury is an injury that qualifies as Level 3 or higher on the Abbreviated Injury Scale (AIS) of the Association for the Advancement of Automotive Medicine (AAAM). |
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|
Term
| May someone without a sUAS remote pilot license? |
|
Definition
Yes, if:
1. A person who does not hold a remote pilot certificate or a remote pilot that that has not met the recurrent testing/training requirements of part 107 may operate the sUAS under part 107, as long as he or she is directly supervised by a remote PIC and the remote PIC has the ability to immediately take direct control of the sUAS.
2. If the Administrator, consistent with international standards, authorizes an airman to operate a civil foreign-registered small unmanned aircraft without an FAA-issued remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating. |
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|
Term
| What are "Autonomous Operations"? |
|
Definition
An autonomous operation is generally considered an operation in which the remote pilot inputs a flight plan into the CS, which sends it to the autopilot onboard the small UA. During automated flight, flight control inputs are made by components onboard the aircraft, not from a CS.
During automated flight, the remote PIC must retain full control of the sUAS and also have the ability to change routing/altitude or command the aircraft to land immediately. The ability to direct the small UA may be through manual manipulation of the flight controls or through commands using automation. |
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|
Term
| What are the registration requirements for a SUA? |
|
Definition
91.203 Civil aircraft: no person may operate a civil aircraft unless it has within it* the following:
An effective U.S. registration certificate issued to its owner or, for operation within the United States, the second copy of the Aircraft registration Application as provided for in §47.31(c), a Certificate of Aircraft registration as provided in part 48, or a registration certification issued under the laws of a foreign country.
§ 47.31 Application.
The applicant for registration of an aircraft last previously registered in the United States must carry the second copy of the Aircraft Registration Application in the aircraft* as temporary authority to operate without registration.
*The intent of these regulations is met if the pilot of the unmanned aircraft has access to these documents at the control station from which he or she is operating the aircraft. (FAA Memorandum) |
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|
Term
| What must a remote pilot check prior to each flight? |
|
Definition
That the small unmanned aircraft system is in a condition for safe operation (check the system, not just the drone). No person may operate a civil small unmanned aircraft system unless it is in a condition for safe operation.
No person may continue flight of the small unmanned aircraft when he or she knows or has reason to know that the small unmanned aircraft system is no longer in a condition for safe operation. |
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|
Term
| When may a person NOT manipulate the flight controls of a small unmanned aircraft system or act as a remote pilot in command, visual observer, or direct participant in the operation of the small unmanned aircraft? |
|
Definition
If he or she knows or has reason to know that he or she has a physical or mental condition that would interfere with the safe operation of the small unmanned aircraft system.
Obvious examples include, but are not limited to, such things as:
1. The temporary or permanent loss of the dexterity necessary to operate the CS to safely control the small UA.
2. The inability to maintain the required “see and avoid” vigilance due to blurred vision.
3. The inability to maintain proper situational awareness of the small UA operations due to illness and/or medication(s), such as after taking medications with cautions not to drive or operate heavy machinery.
4. A debilitating physical condition, such as a migraine headache or moderate or severe body ache(s) or pain(s) that would render the remote PIC, person manipulating the controls, or VO unable to perform sUAS operational duties.
5. A hearing or speaking impairment that would inhibit the remote PIC, person manipulating the controls, and VO from effectively communicating with each other. In a situation such as this, the remote PIC must ensure that an alternative means of effective communication is implemented. For example, a person who is hearing impaired may be able to effectively use sign language to communicate |
|
|
Term
| What is a remote PIC directly responsible for and what must s/he ensure before or during the flight of the small unmanned aircraft? |
|
Definition
1. That the small unmanned aircraft will pose no undue hazard to other people, other aircraft, or other property in the event of a loss of control of the aircraft for any reason.
2. The remote pilot in command must ensure that the small UAS operation complies with all applicable regulations of CFR 14 107.
3. The remote pilot in command must have the ability to direct the small unmanned aircraft to ensure compliance with the applicable provisions of CFR 14 107. |
|
|
Term
| Is the transfer of control of an sUAS between certificated remote pilots legally possible? |
|
Definition
| Two or more certificated remote pilots transferring operational control (i.e., the remote PIC designation) to each other may do so only if they are both capable of maintaining Visual Line of Sight (VLOS) of the UA and without loss of control (LOC). For example, one remote pilot may be designated the remote PIC at the beginning of the operation, and then at some point in the operation another remote pilot may take over as remote PIC by positively communicating that he or she is doing so. As the person responsible for the safe operation of the UAS, any remote pilot who will assume remote PIC duties should meet all of the requirements of part 107, including awareness of factors that could affect the flight. |
|
|
Term
| What can and must a remote PIC do in an emergency? |
|
Definition
1. In an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, the remote pilot in command may deviate from any rule of this part to the extent necessary to meet that emergency.
2. Each remote pilot in command who deviates from a rule under paragraph (a) of this section must, upon request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator. |
|
|
Term
| What may no person do with a sUAS? |
|
Definition
1. Operate a small unmanned aircraft system in a careless or reckless manner so as to endanger the life or property of another; or
2. Allow an object to be dropped from a small unmanned aircraft in a manner that creates an undue hazard to persons or property. |
|
|
Term
| From where may no person may operate a sUAS? |
|
Definition
1. From a moving aircraft; or
2. From a moving land or water-borne vehicle unless the small unmanned aircraft is flown over a sparsely populated area and is not transporting another person’s property for compensation or hire. |
|
|
Term
| Which alcohol and drug regulations apply to an acting PIC, VO or person manipulating the flight controls of a sUAS? |
|
Definition
No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft:
(1) Within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage;
(2) While under the influence of alcohol;
(3) While using any drug that affects the person’s faculties in any way contrary to safety; or
(4) While having an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or greater in a blood or breath specimen.
Alcohol concentration means grams of alcohol per deciliter of blood or grams of alcohol per 210 liters of breath. |
|
|
Term
| What alcohol and drug testing regulations must a crewmember follow? |
|
Definition
On request of a law enforcement officer, submit to a test to indicate the alcohol concentration in the blood or breath, when:
1. The law enforcement officer is authorized under State or local law to conduct the test or to have the test conducted; and
2. The law enforcement officer is requesting submission to the test to investigate a suspected violation of State or local law governing the same or substantially similar conduct prohibited by CFR 14 107. |
|
|
Term
| What actions can the FAA take towards a person believed to have violated drug & alcohol regulations? |
|
Definition
| the FAA may request that that person must furnish to the FAA the results, or authorize any clinic, hospital, or doctor, or other person to release to the FAA, the results of each test taken within 4 hours after acting or attempting to act as a crewmember that indicates an alcohol concentration in the blood or breath specimen. |
|
|
Term
| What actions can the Administrator take towards a person believed to have violated drug & alcohol regulations? |
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Definition
Upon request by the Administrator, that person must furnish the Administrator, or authorize any clinic, hospital, doctor, or other person to release to the Administrator, the results of each test taken within 4 hours after acting or attempting to act as a crewmember that indicates the presence of any drugs in the body.
Any test information obtained by the Administrator may be evaluated in determining a person’s qualifications for any airman certificate or possible violations of this chapter and may be used as evidence in any legal proceeding. |
|
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Term
| Is carriage of narcotic drugs, marihuana and depressant or stimulant drugs or substances aboard a UAS allowed? |
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Definition
1. Except as provided in no. 2 of this section, no person may operate a civil aircraft within the United States with knowledge that narcotic drugs, marihuana, and depressant or stimulant drugs or substances as defined in Federal or State statutes are carried in the aircraft.
2. no. 1 of this section does not apply to any carriage of narcotic drugs, marihuana, and depressant or stimulant drugs or substances authorized by or under any Federal or State statute or by any Federal or State agency. |
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Term
| May a sUAS operate at night? |
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Definition
| No, unless a waiver is granted, required light beacons are present on the sUAS and the weather conditions provide 3 SM visibility and 1000ft above, 500ft below and 2000ft horizontal visibility. |
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Term
| What are the requirements for sUAS operations during civil twilight? |
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Definition
| The small unmanned aircraft must have lighted anti-collision lighting visible for at least 3 statute miles. The remote pilot in command may reduce the intensity of the anti-collision lighting if he or she determines that, because of operating conditions, it would be in the interest of safety to do so. |
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Term
| How is "civil twilight" defined? |
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Definition
1. Except for Alaska, a period of time that begins 30 minutes before official sunrise and ends at official sunrise;
2. Except for Alaska, a period of time that begins at official sunset and ends 30 minutes after official sunset; and
3. In Alaska, the period of civil twilight as defined in the Air Almanac. |
|
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Term
| What must the remote PIC, the VO (if one is used), and the person manipulating the flight control of the sUAS be able to do during aircraft operations? |
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Definition
With vision that is unaided by any device other than corrective lenses, they must be able to see the unmanned aircraft throughout the entire flight in order to:
1. Know the unmanned aircraft’s location;
2. Determine the unmanned aircraft’s attitude, altitude, and direction of flight;
3. Observe the airspace for other air traffic or hazards; and
4. Determine that the unmanned aircraft does not endanger the life or property of another. |
|
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Term
| What requirements must be met when using a VO? |
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Definition
1. The remote PIC, the person manipulating the flight controls of the small unmanned aircraft system, and the visual observer must maintain effective communication with each other at all times.
2. The remote pilot in command must ensure that the visual observer is able to see the unmanned aircraft with vision that is unaided by any device other than corrective lenses throughout the entire flight.
3. The remote pilot in command, the person manipulating the flight controls of the small unmanned aircraft system, and the visual observer must coordinate to do the following:
a. Scan the airspace where the small unmanned aircraft is operating for any potential collision hazard; and
b. Maintain awareness of the position of the small unmanned aircraft through direct visual observation. |
|
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Term
| How should communication of VLOS information between the remote PIC, the person manipulating the controls and the VO be handled? |
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Definition
The remote PIC, person manipulating the controls, and VO must work out a method of effective communication, which does not create a distraction and allows them to understand each other. The communication method must be determined prior to operation. This effective communication requirement would permit the use of
communication-assisting devices, such as a hand-held radio, to facilitate communication from a distance. |
|
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Term
| What must the remote PIC ensure when working with a VO? |
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Definition
That the VO can carry out his or her duties by ensuring that the VO is positioned in a location where he or she is able to see the small UA sufficiently to maintain VLOS.
The remote PIC can do this by specifying the location of the VO.
The FAA also requires that the remote PIC and VO coordinate to
1. scan the airspace where the small UA is operating for any potential collision hazard, and
2. maintain awareness of the position of the small UA through direct visual observation. This would be accomplished by the VO maintaining visual contact with the small UA and the surrounding airspace, and then communicating to the remote PIC and person manipulating the controls the flight status of the small UA and any hazards which may enter the area of operation, so that the remote PIC or person manipulating the controls can take appropriate action. |
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Term
| How many drones can one person pilot/supervise at a time? |
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Definition
| A person may not operate or act as a remote pilot in command or visual observer in the operation of more than one unmanned aircraft at the same time (unless a waiver is obtained). |
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Term
| Are lithium batteries considered "Carriage of hazardous material"? |
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Definition
| A small unmanned aircraft may not carry hazardous material. When installed in the aircraft for use as a power source (as opposed to carriage of spares or cargo), lithium batteries are not considered hazardous material. |
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Term
| How should a sUAS handle other airborne traffic in its vicinity? |
|
Definition
1. Each small unmanned aircraft must yield the right of way to all aircraft, airborne vehicles, and launch and reentry vehicles. Yielding the right of way means that the small unmanned aircraft must give way to the aircraft or vehicle and may not pass over, under, or ahead of it unless well clear.
2. No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard.
Circular notice text:
Unless the flight is conducted within controlled airspace, no notification or authorization is necessary to operate at or near an airport. When operating in the vicinity of an airport, the remote PIC must be aware of all traffic patterns and approach corridors to runways and landing areas. The remote PIC must avoid operating anywhere that the presence of the sUAS may interfere with operations at the airport, such as approach corridors, taxiways, runways, or helipads. Furthermore, the remote PIC must yield right-of-way to all other aircraft, including aircraft operating on the surface of the airport.
Remote PICs are prohibited from operating their small UA in a manner that interferes with operations and traffic patterns at airports, heliports, and seaplane bases. While a small UA must always yield right-of-way to a manned aircraft, a manned aircraft may alter its flightpath, delay its landing, or take off in order to avoid an sUAS that may present a potential conflict or otherwise affect the safe outcome of the flight. For example, a UA hovering 200 feet above a runway may cause a manned aircraft holding short of the runway to delay takeoff, or a manned aircraft on the downwind leg of the pattern to delay landing. While the UA in this scenario would not pose an immediate traffic conflict to the aircraft on the downwind leg of the traffic pattern or to the aircraft intending to take off, nor would it violate the right-of-way provision of § 107.37(a), the small UA would have interfered with the operations of the traffic pattern at an airport.
In order to avoid interfering with operations in a traffic pattern, remote PICs should avoid operating in the traffic pattern or published approach corridors used by manned aircraft. When operational necessity requires the remote PIC to operate at an airport in uncontrolled airspace, the remote PIC should operate the small UA in such a way that the manned aircraft pilot does not need to alter his or her flightpath in the traffic pattern or on a published instrument approach in order to avoid a potential collision. Because remote PICs have an obligation to yield right-of-way to all other aircraft and avoid interfering in traffic pattern operations, the FAA expects that most remote PICs will avoid operating in the vicinity of airports because their aircraft generally do not require airport infrastructure, and the concentration of other aircraft increases in the vicinity of airports. |
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Term
| May a SUA fly over a human being? |
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Definition
No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft over a human being unless that human being is:
1. Directly participating in the operation of the small unmanned aircraft; or
2. Located under a covered structure or inside a stationary vehicle that can provide reasonable protection from a falling small unmanned aircraft.
Note:
The remote pilot needs to take into account the small unmanned aircraft’s course, speed, and trajectory, including the possibility of a catastrophic failure, to determine if the small unmanned aircraft would go over or strike a person not directly involved in the flight operation (non-participant).
the FAA currently allows small unmanned aircraft flight over people in only one type of situation: a closed-set movie set which is a controlled-access environment where the person in charge has extensive control over the positioning of people who are standing near the small unmanned aircraft. The FAA currently considers each movie-set exemption on a case-by-case basis through the section 333 exemption process. The FAA will continue considering flight over people on a movieset on a case-by-case basis through the waiver process in this rule. The FAA notes that this framework is consistent with the regulatory framework used for motion picture and television filming in manned-aircraft operations, where a waiver is usually required prior to using an aircraft for filming purposes.103 The FAA also notes that, as discussed in section II.C of this preamble, current section 333 exemption holders who are allowed to fly over people when filming a movie will be permitted to continue operating under their section 333 exemption until they are able to obtain a waiver under part 107. With regard to flight over people in other controlled-access environments, such as construction sites, the FAA will consider that issue on a case-by-case basis through the waiver process. |
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Term
| What airspace may a SUA not operate without a prior authorization from ATC? |
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Definition
No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft in Class B, Class C, or Class D airspace or within the lateral boundaries of the surface area of Class E airspace designated for an airport.*
*2018 Memorandum clarification:
In reviewing Class E Surface Area authorization requirements, we determined that the Class E authorization requirement only pertains to Class E surface areas for an airport, not the Class E extensions to Class D, C and E airspaces.
it does not require authorization for class E airspace everywhere but only Class E (1) at the surface and (2) in connection with an airport airspace. Also, you scan fly at night in some of these B, C,D, and E at the surface airspaces, because they change into G at night. You can fly under a night waiver near them. |
|
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Term
| What are the 8 Class E Airspace categories? |
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Definition
E1 – Class E Airspace at and above 14,500 feet MSL
E2 – Class E airspace areas designated as a surface area for an airport
E3 – Class E Airspace Areas Designated As An Extension To A Class C Surface Area
E4 – Class E Airspace Areas Designated as an Extension to a Class D or Class E Surface Area
E5 – Class E Airspace Areas Extending Upward From 700 Feet Or More Above The Surface of The Earth
E6 – En route Domestic Airspace Areas
E7 – Offshore Airspace Areas
E8 – Class E Airspace Areas Designated As Federal Airways |
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Term
| What are SUA regulations regarding operation in the vicinity of airports? |
|
Definition
No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft in a manner that interferes with operations and traffic patterns at any airport, heliport, or seaplane base.
Unless the flight is conducted within controlled airspace, no notification or authorization is necessary to operate at or near an airport. When operating in the vicinity of an airport, the remote PIC must be aware of all traffic patterns and approach corridors to runways and landing areas. The remote PIC must avoid operating anywhere that the presence of the sUAS may interfere with operations at the airport, such as approach corridors, taxiways, runways, or helipads. Furthermore, the remote PIC must yield right-of-way to all other aircraft, including aircraft operating on the surface of the airport. |
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Term
| May a SUA operate in prohibited or restricted areas? |
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Definition
No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft in prohibited or restricted areas unless that person has permission from the using or controlling agency, as appropriate.
Pay attention and check NOTAMs. tfr.faa.gov et al. before EVERY flight regarding TFRs because not all restricted areas are on the sectional charts. There are temporary restricted areas which pop up from time to time. Penalties for transgressions are severe. |
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Term
| What are the preflight familiarization, inspection and actions for UAS flights? |
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Definition
Prior to flight, the remote pilot in command must:
(a) Assess the operating environment, considering risks to persons and property in the immediate vicinity both on the surface and in the air. This assessment must include:
(1) Local weather conditions;
(2) Local airspace and any flight restrictions;
(3) The location of persons and property on the surface; and
(4) Other ground hazards.
(b) Ensure that all persons directly participating in the small unmanned aircraft operation are informed about the operating conditions, emergency procedures, contingency procedures, roles and responsibilities, and potential hazards;
(c) Ensure that all control links between ground control station and the small unmanned aircraft are working properly;
(d) If the small unmanned aircraft is powered, ensure that there is enough available power for the small unmanned aircraft system to operate for the intended operational time; and
(e) Ensure that any object attached or carried by the small unmanned aircraft is secure and does not adversely affect the flight characteristics or controllability of the aircraft. |
|
|
Term
| What are the operating limitations for SUAs? |
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Definition
(a) The groundspeed of the small unmanned aircraft may not exceed 87 knots (100 miles per hour).
(b) The altitude of the small unmanned aircraft cannot be higher than 400 feet above ground level, unless the small unmanned aircraft:
(1) Is flown within a 400-foot radius of a structure; and
(2) Does not fly higher than 400 feet above the structure’s immediate uppermost limit.
(c) The minimum flight visibility, as observed from the location of the control station must be no less than 3 statute miles. For purposes of this section, flight visibility means the average slant distance from the control station at which prominent unlighted objects may be seen and identified by day and prominent lighted objects may be seen and identified by night.
(d) The minimum distance of the small unmanned aircraft from clouds must be no less than:
(1) 500 feet below the cloud; and
(2) 2,000 feet horizontally from the cloud.
All can be waived after application to The Administrator |
|
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Term
| What are the punishments for violating Federal or State statutes regarding narcotics and depressant or stimulant drugs or substances? |
|
Definition
(1) Denial of an application for a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final conviction; or
(2) Suspension or revocation of a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating.
(b) Committing an act prohibited by §91.17(a) or §91.19(a) of this chapter is grounds for:
(1) Denial of an application for a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that act; or
(2) Suspension or revocation of a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating. |
|
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Term
| What happens if anyone involved in the operations of a SUA refuses to take an alcohol test or provide blood testing results? |
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Definition
there are grounds for:
(a) Denial of an application for a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that refusal; or
(b) Suspension or revocation of a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating. |
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Term
| What makes a person eligible for a remote pilot certificate? |
|
Definition
A remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating under this subpart must:
(a) Be at least 16 years of age;
(b) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical reasons, the FAA may place such operating limitations on that applicant’s certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of the small unmanned aircraft;
(c) Not know or have reason to know that he or she has a physical or mental condition that would interfere with the safe operation of a small unmanned aircraft system; and
(d) Demonstrate aeronautical knowledge by satisfying one of the following conditions:
(1) Pass an initial aeronautical knowledge test covering the areas of knowledge specified in §107.73(a); or
(2) If a person holds a pilot certificate (other than a student pilot certificate) issued under part 61 of this chapter and meets the flight review requirements specified in §61.56, complete an initial training course covering the areas of knowledge specified in §107.74(a) in a manner acceptable to the Administrator. |
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|
Term
| How do you apply for a remote pilot certificate? |
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Definition
An applicant for a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating under this subpart must make the application in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator.
(a) The application must include either:
(1) Evidence showing that the applicant passed an initial aeronautical knowledge test. If applying using a paper application, this evidence must be an airman knowledge test report showing passage of the knowledge test; or
(2) If a person holds a pilot certificate (other than a student pilot certificate) issued under part 61 of this chapter and meets the flight review requirements specified in §61.56, a certificate of completion of a part 107 initial training course.
(b) If the application is being made pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section:
(1) The application must be submitted to the responsible Flight Standards office, a designated pilot examiner, an airman certification representative for a pilot school, a certificated flight instructor, or other person authorized by the Administrator;
(2) The person accepting the application submission must verify the identity of the applicant in a manner acceptable to the Administrator; and
(3) The person making the application must, by logbook endorsement or other manner acceptable to the Administrator, show the applicant meets the flight review requirements specified in §61.56 of this chapter. |
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Term
| What is a temporary certificate? |
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Definition
(a) A temporary remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating is issued for up to 120 calendar days, at which time a permanent certificate will be issued to a person whom the Administrator finds qualified under this part.
(b) A temporary remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating expires:
(1) On the expiration date shown on the certificate;
(2) Upon receipt of the permanent certificate; or
(3) Upon receipt of a notice that the certificate sought is denied or revoked. |
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Term
| How often must a sUAS PIC get recertified? |
|
Definition
A person may not operate a small unmanned aircraft system unless that person has completed one of the following, within the previous 24 calendar months:
(a) Passed an initial aeronautical knowledge test covering the areas of knowledge specified in §107.73(a);
(b) Passed a recurrent aeronautical knowledge test covering the areas of knowledge specified in §107.73(b); or
(c) If a person holds a pilot certificate (other than a student pilot certificate) issued under part 61 of this chapter and meets the flight review requirements specified in §§61.56, passed either an initial or recurrent training course covering the areas of knowledge specified in §107.74(a) or (b) in a manner acceptable to the Administrator. |
|
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Term
| What are the knowledge test procedures? |
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Definition
(b) An applicant for a knowledge test must have proper identification at the time of application that contains the applicant’s:
(1) Photograph;
(2) Signature;
(3) Date of birth, which shows the applicant meets or will meet the age requirements of this part for the certificate and rating sought before the expiration date of the airman knowledge test report; and
(4) Permanent mailing address. If the applicant’s permanent mailing address is a post office box number, then the applicant must also provide a current residential address.
(c) The minimum passing grade for the knowledge test will be specified by the Administrator.
Pay attention that you have to be 16 to have a remote pilot certificate but a minimum of 14 to TAKE the remote pilot knowledge exam. |
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Term
| What is forbidden during knowledge tests and what are the penalties for breaking the rules? |
|
Definition
(a) An applicant for a knowledge test may not:
(1) Copy or intentionally remove any knowledge test;
(2) Give to another applicant or receive from another applicant any part or copy of a knowledge test;
(3) Give or receive assistance on a knowledge test during the period that test is being given;
(4) Take any part of a knowledge test on behalf of another person;
(5) Be represented by, or represent, another person for a knowledge test;
(6) Use any material or aid during the period that the test is being given, unless specifically authorized to do so by the Administrator; and
(7) Intentionally cause, assist, or participate in any act prohibited by this paragraph.
(b) An applicant who the Administrator finds has committed an act prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section is prohibited, for 1 year after the date of committing that act, from:
(1) Applying for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this chapter; and
(2) Applying for and taking any test under this chapter.
(c) Any certificate or rating held by an applicant may be suspended or revoked if the Administrator finds that person has committed an act prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section. |
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Term
| When may you be retested after a test failure? |
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Definition
| An applicant for a knowledge test who fails that test may not reapply for the test for 14 calendar days after failing the test (and you have to pay another $150). |
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Term
| What is the law regarding change of name or address? |
|
Definition
An application to change the name on a certificate issued under this subpart must be accompanied by the applicant’s:
(1) Remote pilot certificate with small UAS rating; and
(2) A copy of the marriage license, court order, or other document verifying the name change.
Change of address. The holder of a remote pilot certificate with small UAS rating issued under this subpart who has made a change in permanent mailing address may not, after 30 days from that date, exercise the privileges of the certificate unless the holder has notified the FAA of the change in address using one of the following methods:
(1) By letter to the FAA Airman Certification Branch, P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125 providing the new permanent mailing address, or if the permanent mailing address includes a post office box number, then the holder’s current residential address; or
(2) By using the FAA Web site portal at www.faa.gov providing the new permanent mailing address, or if the permanent mailing address includes a post office box number, then the holder’s current residential address. |
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Term
| How does the holder of a certificate voluntarily surrender it for cancellation? |
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Definition
The individual surrendering the certificate must include the following signed statement (or an equivalent) in his or her cancellation request:
I voluntarily surrender my remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating for cancellation. This request is made for my own reasons with full knowledge that my certificate will not be reissued to me unless I again complete the requirements specified in § 107.61 and § 107.63. |
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Term
| When may The Administrator issue waivers to the regulations in CFR Part 107? |
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Definition
If the Administrator finds that a proposed small UAS operation can safely be conducted under the terms of that certificate of waiver.
A request for a certificate of waiver must contain a complete description of the proposed operation and justification that establishes that the operation can safely be conducted under the terms of a certificate of waiver. |
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Term
| When a waiver is issued by The Administrator, what can it contain and authorize? |
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Definition
The Administrator may prescribe additional limitations that the Administrator considers necessary.
A person who receives a certificate of waiver issued under this section:
1. May deviate from the regulations of this part to the extent specified in the certificate of waiver; and
2. Must comply with any conditions or limitations that are specified in the certificate of waiver. |
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Term
| List the waivable sections of part 107. |
|
Definition
• Section 107.25, Operation from a moving vehicle or aircraft. However, no waiver of this provision will be issued to allow the carriage of property of another by aircraft for compensation or hire.
• Section 107.29, Daylight operation.
• Section 107.31, Visual line of sight aircraft operation. However, no waiver of this provision will be issued to allow the carriage of property of another by aircraft forcompensation or hire.
• Section 107.33, Visual observer.
• Section 107.35, Operation of multiple small unmanned aircraft systems.
• Section 107.37(a), Yielding the right of way.
• Section 107.39, Operation over people.
• Section 107.41, Operation in certain airspace.
• Section 107.51, Operating limitations for small unmanned aircraft. |
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Term
| How does one apply for a waiver? |
|
Definition
To apply for a CoW under § 107.200, an applicant must go to www.faa.gov/uas/ and follow the instructions:
The application must contain a complete description of the proposed operation and a justification, including supporting data and documentation (as necessary), that establishes that the proposed operation can safely be conducted under the terms of a CoW. Although not required by part 107, the FAA encourages applicants to submit their application at least 90 days prior to the start of the proposed operation. The FAA will strive to complete review and adjudication of waivers within 90 days; however, the time required for the FAA to make a determination regarding waiver requests will vary based on the complexity of the request. The amount of data and analysis required as part of the application will be proportional to the specific relief that is requested. |
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Term
| What is the Lorain County, OH, Regional Traffic Rule for aircraft operating at the Lorain County Regional Airport, Lorain County, Ohio.? |
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Definition
| Each person piloting an airplane landing at the Lorain County Regional Airport shall enter the traffic pattern north of the airport and shall execute a right traffic pattern for a landing to the southwest or a left traffic pattern for a landing to the northeast. Each person taking off from the airport shall execute a departure turn to the north as soon as practicable after takeoff. |
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Term
| At what age may Persons register their drones online if they are flying their aircraft as non-recreational, such as commercial or government under Part 48? |
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Definition
| Persons 13 years of age and older are permitted to use the part 48 process to register a small unmanned aircraft. If the owner is less than 13 years of age, then the small unmanned aircraft must be registered by a person who is at least 13 years of age. |
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Term
| What is the max. weight limit for recreational drones? |
|
Definition
| 0.55 pounds (250 grams) on takeoff, including everything that is on board or otherwise attached to the aircraft and operated outdoors in the national airspace system. |
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Term
| What regulations do Model Aircraft Flyers Operate Under as specified in part 101 (moored balloons, kites, amateur rockets, unmanned free balloons, and certain model aircraft)? |
|
Definition
the flyer must:
Fly an aircraft that is:
(i) Capable of sustained flight in the atmosphere;
(ii) Flown within visual line of sight of the person operating the aircraft; and
(iii) Flown for hobby or recreational purposes.
AND meets ALL of the 5 requirements:
(a) The aircraft is flown strictly for hobby or recreational use;
(b) The aircraft is operated in accordance with a community-based set of safety guidelines and within the programming of a nationwide community-based organization;
(c) The aircraft is limited to not more than 55 pounds unless otherwise certified through a design, construction, inspection, flight test, and operational safety program administered by a community-based organization;
(d) The aircraft is operated in a manner that does not interfere with and gives way to any manned aircraft; and
(e) When flown within 5 miles of an airport, the operator of the aircraft provides the airport operator and the airport air traffic control tower (when an air traffic facility is located at the airport) with prior notice of the operation.
If your operations meet all 8 of those elements, then you may fly under Part 101. If you fail on just one of those points, you must fly under Part 107. |
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Term
| In rare cases, towered airports are designated Class E or G Airspace. What are the rules for flying in their airspace? |
|
Definition
1. You MUST establish radio contact.
2. Radio communications must be established prior to 4 NM from the towered airport if at an altitude less than 2,500 AGL. |
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Term
| What do AO1 and AO2 in a METAR mean? |
|
Definition
AO1 = Automated weather station; cannot distinguish between rain, snow, etc.
AO2 = Automated weather station; CAN distinguish between rain, snow, etc. |
|
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Term
| What does SLP095 in a METAR mean? |
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Definition
| Sea Level Pressure 1095 mb. |
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Term
| What does P0003 mean in a METAR? |
|
Definition
| Precipitation in the last hour, 3/100s of an inch. |
|
|
Term
| What does T0110194 in a METAR mean? |
|
Definition
| Temperature 21.1C d Dewpoint 19.4C |
|
|
Term
| What does VV003 in a METAR mean? |
|
Definition
| Vertical Visibility 300ft AGL, cloud cover higher may be variable, clear or whatever. |
|
|
Term
| What does R32L/1000FT in a METAR mean? |
|
Definition
| Runway Visual Range (RVR) Runway 32 Left 1000ft visual range. |
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|
Term
| What do the acronyms WSHFT45 and FROPA in a METAR mean? |
|
Definition
Windshift at 45 mins. past the hour.
Frontal Passage. |
|
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Term
| What does PK WND 3450@50 38' in a METAR mean? |
|
Definition
| Peak Wind 340 degrees, 50 KT at 38 minutes past the hour. |
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Term
| What does RAB05E30SNB20E55 in a METAR mean? |
|
Definition
| Rain Began 05 mins past the hour, ended 30 mins past the hour; Snow began at 20 mins past the hour and Ended at 55 mins past the hour. |
|
|
Term
| What does PWINO in a METAR mean? |
|
Definition
| Present Weather Identifier N/A (Weather sensor is inoperative). |
|
|
Term
| What does FZRANO in a METAR mean? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does TSB05E30 in a METAR mean? |
|
Definition
| Thunderstorm Began at 05 mins past the hour and ended 30 mins past the hour. |
|
|
Term
| What does TSNO in a METAR mean? |
|
Definition
| Thunderstorm Info N/A (lightning detection system inoperative). |
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|
Term
What do the following acronyms in a METAR mean in conjunction with a TS:
OCNL
FRQ
CONS
CG
IC
CC
CA
CB W MOV E
CBMAM DSNT S
TCU OHD
TCU W
ACC W
ACSL S-SW
CCSL OVR MT E
VIRGA
DSNT
TWR VIS 1
SFC VIS 2-1/2
VIS 1V2
VIS N2
RY |
|
Definition
OCNL = Occasional (less than 1 flash/min.)
FRQ = Frequent (~1-6 flashes/min.)
CONS = Continuous (more than 6
flashes/min.)
IC = In Cloud flashes
CC = Cloud to Cloud flashes
CA = Cloud to Air flashes
CB W MOV E = Cumulonimbus Clouds to the
West Moving East
CBMAM DSNT S = Cumulonimbus Mamatus
Distant South
TCU OHD = Towering Cumulus Overhead
TCU W = Towering Cumulus to the West
ACC W = Altocumulus Castellanus to the
West
ACSL S-SW = Altocumulus Standing Lenticular South through Southwest
CCSL OVR MT E = Cirrocumulus Clouds Standing Lenticular Over the Mountains tp the East
VIRGA = Rain that does not reach the surface at the station
DSNT = Distant
TWR VIS 1 = Tower Visibility 1 MI
SFC VIS 2-1/2 = Surface Visibility 2 1/2
MI
RY = Runway
VIS1V2 = Visibility Variable between 1 and 2 MI
VIS N 2 = Visibility to the north 2 MI |
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