Term
Which functional area is responsible for the overall operation and maintenance of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?
a. Squadron Aviation Resource Management (SARM)
b. Host Aviation Reesource Management (HARM)
c. Standardization and Evaluation (StanEval)
d. Current Operations |
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Definition
| b. Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) |
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Term
Which functional area is responsible for planning and scheduling all training sorties as well as real-world contingency missions and mobility operations?
a. Squadron Aviation Resource Management (SARM)
b. Current operations
c. Aircrew training
d. Aircrew scheduling |
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Definition
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Term
Evaluating work methods and procedures to achieve the most economical use of resources is one of the tasks of
a. a craftsman
b. an apprentice
c. a journeyman
d. a superintendent |
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Definition
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Term
Who is responsible for evaluating manning requirements, vacancies, and ensuring personnel are trained and given equal opportunity to work across functional ares to prevent job stagnation?
a. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
b. Major command functional manager (MFM)
c. Wing functional manager (WFM)
d. Chief, Host Aviation Resource Manager (CHARM) |
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Definition
| c. Wing functional manager (WFM) |
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Term
Which part of the career field education and training plan (CFETP) would you find the specialty training standard that lists the most common 1C0X2 tasks, knowledge, and technical references?
a. Part I Section A
b. Part I Section B
c. Part II Section A
d. Part II Section B |
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Definition
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Term
Supervisors MUST make sure that an AF Form 623, On-the-Job Training Record is maintained for all airmen in the grades of
a. Airman basic (AB) through senior Airman (SrA) ONLY
b. AB through technical sergeant (TSgt) ONLY
c. AB through chief master sergeant (CMSgt)
d. AB through TSgt, and senior noncommissioned oficers (SNCO) in retraining status |
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Definition
| d. AB through TSgt, and senior noncommissioned oficers (SNCO) in retraining status |
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Term
The purpose of the specialty training requirement team is to
a. conduct an occupational survey and make changes to the career field education and training plan (CFETP)
b. establish the most effective mix of formal and on-the-job training for each skill level
c. establish training requirements for all personnel involved in course development
d. enhance the communication link between functional managers and course developers |
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Definition
| b. establish the most effective mix of formal and on-the-job training for each skill level |
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Term
Which forum is used to create or revise the specialty training standard(STS) and to set responsibilities for providing the necessary training?
a. Aviation Resource Management System advisory group (AAG)
b. Aviation Resource Management (ARM) office
c. Aviation Resource Management System working group (AWG)
d. Specialty training requirement team |
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Definition
| d. Specialty training requirement team |
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Term
The specialty training standard (STS) is divided into how many columns?
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
D. Five |
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Definition
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Term
All entries to the specialty training standard (STS) Column 3 must be done in pencil to
a. easily identify open and closed items
b. make it a binding contract
c. make it a living document
d. easily erase mistakes |
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Definition
| c. make it a living document |
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Term
Before a trainee is recommended for the next skill level, the trainee must be fully trained on all
a. tasks to include mobility and additional duty
b. duty positions and core tasks
c. duty position tasks ONLY
d. core tasks ONLY |
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Definition
| b. duty positions and core tasks |
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Term
The AF IMT 623a, On-the-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet is used to document each of the following EXCEPT
a. course and task progression
b. training start and completion dates
c. task certification and recertification
d. trainee's strengths, weaknesses, and attitude |
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Definition
| b. training start and completion dates |
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Term
Within how many days of assignment must a supervisor conduct an initial evaluation of the trainee's qualifications?
a. 30 (active duty)/90 (Air Reserve Component [ARC] members
b. 60 (active duty)/120 (ARC members)
c. 45 (active duty)/90 (ARC members)
d. 90 (active duty)/120 (ARC members) |
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Definition
| b. 60 (active duty)/120 (ARC members) |
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Term
The purpose of the graduate assessment survey is to
a. gather feedback on Air Force resident training graduates
b. determine the quality of recent basic military training graduates
c. ensure proper training techniques are being utelized at the unit level
d. provide information to supervisors on the quality of training provided by the career development course |
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Definition
| a. gather feedback on Air Force resident training graduates |
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Term
One way to validate and assess a trainee's knowledge of the task is by conducting a
a. task evaluation
b.task review exercise
c. staff assistance visit
d. graduate assessment survey |
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Definition
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Term
When a trainee is unable to complete the required upgrade training requirements within the maximum allowable time, the supervisor may
a. establish a new maximum training date and annotate it on the AF IMT 623a
b. decertify the trainee on all tasks an dbegin remedial training
c. request cross training into another career field
d. submit a waiver request |
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Definition
| d. submit a waiver request |
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Term
A request for training waiver is approved by the
a. squadron commander
b. base training manager
c. Air Force career field manager
d. major command functional manager |
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Definition
| c. Air Force career field manager |
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Term
Air Force policies regarding the Privacy Act of 1974 include all of he following EXCEPT TO
a. amend or correct individual records on request
b. ensure individual records are timely, accurate, complete, and relevant
c. protect individuals from unwarranted invasion of their personal privacy
d. ensure access to personal information in citizens and resident aliens is always granted |
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Definition
| d. ensure access to personal information in citizens and resident aliens is always granted |
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Term
Within the Department of Defense (DoD) social security numbers (SSN) must be protected as
a. privileged information
b. For Official Use Only (FOUO)
c. for your eyes only
d. secret information |
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Definition
| b. For Official Use Only (FOUO) |
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Term
Records that are protected by the Privacy Act may be destroyed by all of the following methods EXCEPT
a. tearing
b. burning
c. crumpling
d. shredding |
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Definition
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Term
Any member who violates the Privacy Act is guilty of a
a. misdemeanor and fined up to $10,000.00
b. misdameanor and fined up to $5,000.00
c. felony and confined for five years
d. felony and confined for two years |
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Definition
| b. misdameanor and fined up to $5,000.00 |
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Term
The three broad categories of exploitable operations security vulnerabilities are
a. telephones, computer networks, and the physical environment
b. telephones, radio communications, and the physical environment
c. radio communications, computer networks, and human intelligence
d. the physical environment, computer networks, and human intelligence |
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Definition
| b. telephones, radio communications, and the physical environment |
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Term
Before leaving the area, make sure all classified materials
a. are in custody of another individual
b. are stored in proper storage container
c. have the proper cover sheet
d. are hidden from plain view |
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Definition
| b. are stored in proper storage container |
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Term
What Air Force Instruction (AFI) series number pertains to flying operations?
a. 10
b. 11
c. 16
d. 36 |
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Definition
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Term
Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) sets policy on crew rest and flight duty limitations?
a. AFI 11-401, Aviation Management
b. AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules
c. AFI 48-123, Medical Examinations and Standards
d. AFI 65-503, US Air Force Cost and Planning Factors |
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Definition
| b. AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules |
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Term
Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) contains guidance on disqualification and requalification, flying evaluation board procedures, and manpower request and validation?
a. AFI 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges
b. AFI 11-202, Vol 2, Aircrew Standardization/Evaluation Program
c. AFI 65-503, US Air Force Cost and Planning Factors
d. AFI 11-401, Aviation Management |
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Definition
| a. AFI 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges |
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Term
What form is used as a cover sheet to provide a synopsis of a member's flight evaluation?
a. AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Evaluation
b. AF IMT 922, Individual Jump Record
c. AF Form 942, Record of Evaluation
d. DD Form 114, Military Pay Order |
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Definition
| c. AF Form 942, Record of Evaluation |
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Term
What form is used to track the number of hours flown for conditional flying incentive pay?
a. DD Form 114, Military Pay Order
b. AF IMT 1373, MPO Document Control Log Transmittal
c. AFTO Form 781, ARMS Aircrew Mission/Flight Data Document
d. AF IMT 1520, ARMS Individual Flight Pay Entitlement Worksheet |
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Definition
| d. AF IMT 1520, ARMS Individual Flight Pay Entitlement Worksheet |
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Term
The goal of establishing work center procedures is to
a. improve work processes
b. create shortcuts and save cost
c. ensure continuity in the work place
d. standardize processes across all bases |
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Definition
| c. ensure continuity in the work place |
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Term
When several applications are bundled together as a package, they are called
a. an application suite
b. a program bundle
c. a software family
d. a data bank |
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Definition
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Term
A computer system can be configured to interact with other computer systems, forming a
a. computer web
b. computer network
c. system architecture
d. client-server model |
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Definition
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Term
What do you call a network that can range from several blocks of buildings to an entire city?
a. Local Area Network (LAN)
b. Metropolitan area network (MAN)
c. Wide are network (WAN)
d. Defense mega network |
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Definition
| b. Metropolitan area network (MAN) |
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Term
Which menu is NOT included in the Resource module of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?
a. Jump Management
b. Deferred Management
c. Aircrew Management
d. Personnel Management |
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Definition
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Term
Which Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) module is used to establish system management parameters?
a. Flight
b. System
c. Training
d. Resource |
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Definition
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Term
Who is responsible for the management, security, and accuracy of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) database?
a. Database administrator
b. Unit security manager
c. Knowledge owner
d. System analyst |
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Definition
| a. Database administrator |
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Term
The Chief, Host Aviation Resource Manager (CHARM)approves access to the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) and assigns security levels based on
a. user's rank
b. user's duties
c. user's request
d. commander's request |
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Definition
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Term
Which Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) governing body's purpose is to concentrate and solve issues affecting ARMS implementation, technical operation, maintenance, and modification?
a. Aviation Resource Management System advisory group (AAG)
b. Aviation Resource Management System working group (AWG)
c. Aviation Resource Management System steering group (ASG)
d. Database adminstrative group |
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Definition
| b. Aviation Resource Management System working group (AWG) |
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Term
What Air Force Form is used to request system changes to the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?
a. 3215, IT/NSS Requirements Document
b. 847, Recommendation for Change of Publication
c. 4332, Accountable Communications Receipt Authorization
d. 3525, CCB Modification Requirements and Approval Document |
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Definition
| a. 3215, IT/NSS Requirements Document |
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Term
Which individuals may submit an AF Form 3215?
a. Aviation Resource Management System steering group (ASG) members ONLY
b. Aviation Resource Management System advisory group (AAG) members ONLY
c. Aviation Resource Management System working group (AWG) members ONLY
d. All primary system users |
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Definition
| d. All primary system users |
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Term
A community of practice is a group of people who are connected to each other
a. according to the same values and religious beliefs
b. by a need to solve common problems
c. by a need to belong to a social club
d. according to social status |
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Definition
| b. by a need to solve common problems |
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