You are transmitting a lengthy message containing encoded groups. To do this properly, you should make a short break after each

A: 10 groups.

B: 20 groups.

C: 15 groups.

D: 5 groups.

In radio communication, the purpose of a proword is to

A: encode sensitive traffic.

B: limit unauthorized radio communications.

C: shorten voice communications.

D: confuse enemy interceptors.

Working eastward from Greenwich, local times get

A: earlier by 1 hour.

B: later by 1 hour.

C: later by 2 hours.

D: earlier by 2 hours.

The time zones are lettered in alphabetical order; that is,A through M. However, which letter is omitted?

A: J.

B: L.

C: I.

D: K.

Under certain emergency conditions, radio silence is declared by radio transmission, this is known as

A: emergency silence.

B: net termination.

C: net silence.

D: emergency termination.

Emergency radio silence can only be canceled by the

A: signals officer.

B: commander.

C: authority that imposed it.

D: communications officer.

You do not have to authenticate when

A: making initial contact after a scheduled call sign and frequency change.

B: transmitting a plain language cancellation.

C: you suspect imitative deception of any circuit.

D: directing radio silence.

When you are using encryption process for encoding, you substitute code

A: values for plain text.

B: data for plain text.

C: items for plain text.

D: text for plain text.

Radio deception can be divided into

A: six major types.

B: four major types.

C: three major types.

D: two major types.

Which type of radio deception is the intrusion into the communications channels by the enemy for the purpose of deceiving or confusing?

A: Imitative.

B: Manipulative.

C: Simulative.

D: Intrusive.

Which type of radio deception is the insertion of incorrect and misleading information into one's own communications channel to deceive a listening enemy?

A: Intrusive.

B: Imitative.

C: Simulative.

D: Manipulative

Which type of radio deception simulates units, installations, and activities?

A: Simulative.

B: Imitative.

C: Manipulative.

D: Intrusive.

Which basic jamming technique consists of a narrow signal intended to disrupt one specific frequency or channel?

A: Spot jamming.

B: Constant jamming.

C: Sweepthrough jamming.

D: Barrage jamming.

Which basic jamming technique consists of a signal concentrated on a single frequency for only a short time?

A: Spot jamming.

B: Barrage jamming.

C: Sweepthrough jamming.

D: Constant jamming.

Which modulating jamming signal sounds like the rumbling of high-speed rotating machinery?

A: Pulse.

B: Rotary.

C: Gull.

D: Tone.

A complete message report of a radio interference incident must be submitted to the Air Force

Electronic Warfare Center within

A: twelve hours of the initial report.

B: eight hours of the initial report.

C: twenty-four hours of the initial report.            

D: six hours of the initial report

Short distance and all ultra-high frequency and upper very-high frequency radio transmissions are by

the use of

A: sky waves.

B: direct waves.

C: surface waves.

D: ground waves.

The component of the entire wave front that travels directly from the transmitting antenna to the

receiving antenna of a radio is called the

A: skip wave.

B: ground-reflected wave.

C: direct wave.   

D: surface wave.

The portion of the radiated radio wave that reaches the receiving antenna after being reflected from the

surface of the Earth is called a

A: skip wave.

B: surface wave.

C: ground-reflected wave.

D: direct wave.

What is the area called where no usable radio signal can be received from a given transmitter operating

at a given frequency?

A: Hop zone.

B: Dead zone.

C: Blank zone.

D: Skip zone.

The most common method of overcoming objectionable radio fading is to

A: swap out radios being used.

B: decrease the power of the transmitter.

C: change location.

D: increase the power of the transmitter.

Which radio frequency range uses the direct wave for all radio communications?

A: Low.

B: High.

C: Ultrahigh.

D: Medium.

The efficiency of an antenna depends primarily on

A: its design.

B: its set-up.

C: the operator.

D: its location.

Theoretically, a vertical antenna radiates energy

A: equally in all directions.

B: to its side.

C: to its front.

D: to its rear.

If the lines of electric force are at right angles to the surface of the Earth, the radio wave is said to be

A: elliptically polarized.

B: directionally polarized.

C: horizontally polarized.

D: vertically polarized.

If the lines of electric force are parallel to the surface of the Earth, the radio wave is said to be

A: directionally polarized.

B: horizontally polarized.

C: elliptically polarized.

D: vertically polarized.

The purpose of electrically connecting a vertically polarized quarter-wave antenna to the ground is to

A: decrease spurious radiation.

B: improve efficiency.

C: eliminate noise.

D: eliminate a safety hazard.

You are repairing a solid core whip antenna. To do this properly, you should not overlap the broken

ends by more than a few inches. The reason for this is that you could alter the

A: polarization of the antenna.

B: magnetic field of the antenna.

C: insulation of the antenna.

D: electrical length of the antenna.

A center-fed dipole antenna is normally lightly constructed in order to facilitate

A: communications.

B: transportation and erection under field conditions.   

C: training while in field conditions.

D: ease of repairs while in field conditions.

You are rejoining a broken antenna wire. To do this properly, you should not tie the wire with knots to

form two interconnecting loops or eyes. If you do, the loops

A: will eventually rub through each other causing you to repair the antenna again.

B: may short out the antenna connection causing damage to your radio.

C: may rub together creating excessive noise in the receiver or may not provide electrical contact

D: will negate the insulators you are using causing loss of communications.

C: may rub together creating excessive noise in the receiver or may not provide electrical contact

The near-vertical incidence skywave antenna is used within frequencies of

A: 2.0 to 29.9 MHz.

B: 2.0 to 14.0 MHz.

C: 14.0 to 29.9 MHz.

D: 14.0 to 24.9 MHz.

Which antenna produces almost omnidirectional coverage when it is constructed one-quarter of a

wavelength above the ground?

A: Inverted vee.

B: Half wave dipole.

C: Sloping vee.

D: Inverted L.

Which field expedient antenna produces a vertical radiation pattern off the end of the antenna and a

horizontal pattern broadside to the antenna?

A: Half wave dipole.

B: Inverted L.

C: Sloping vee.

D: Inverted vee.

What occurs when the action spring expands and sends the bolt carrier group forward?

A: The hammer strikes the firing pin.

B: The magazine is released from the weapon.

C: A cartridge is withdrawn from the chamber.

D: A round is stripped from the magazine.

What is the logic behind the three-round burst on the M-4?

A: Limit incidences of friendly fire.

B: Safety.

C: Accuracy.

D: Limit wasted ammunition.                      D: Limit wasted ammunition

When cleaning the bolt carrier group, it should be disassembled into how many individual components?

A: 7.

B: 4.

C: 5.

D: 6.

What is an appropriate substitute for cleaner, lubricant and preservative (CLP) in the desert?

A: WD-40.

B: Graphite-based lube.

C: LAW.

D: Clean 10W-30 motor oil.

What is the recommended wait time to let your weapon cool if you suspect an unfired round is

"cooking off"?

A: 15 minutes.

B: 20 minutes.

C: 10 minutes.

D: 18 minutes.

Which situation would not cause a chambered round to fail to fire?

A: Defective magazine.

B: Too much oil in firing pin recess.

C: Defective ammo.

D: Selector lever on safe.

What is a likely cause of a failure to feed malfunction?

A: Excessive carbon buildup on the firing pin.

B: Magazine not fully seated.

C: Defective ammunition.

D: Corroded rifle chamber.

Besides the M-4, what weapon also uses the M885 round?

A: M-870.

B: M-9.

C: M-203.

D: M-249.

The closest you should engage a target with an M-203 HE round is:

A: 88 feet.

B: 31 meters.

C: 14 meters.

D: 46 feet.

Natural point of aim can be compared to the

A: alignment of the eye and the rear sight.

B: shooter's weapon sights being on target.

C: alignment of the weapon and the shooter's body.

D: shooter's most relaxed state.

What is the alternate method for acquiring a good sight picture?

A: Point and shoot technique.

B: Rapid alignment technique.

C: Bottom-aiming technique.

D: Side-aiming technique.

At 25 meters, each graduation, or notch, on the M-4 four-detent front sight moves the strike of the

bullet

A: 1/4 inch.

B: 3/8 inch.

C: 5/8 inch.

D: 1/2 inch.

At 25 meters the windage knob adjustments move the bullet strike

A: 1/2 inch.

B: 1/4 inch.

C: 1/8 inch.

D: 3/8 inch.

Which M-9 component contains the sights?

A: Extractor.

B: Receiver.

C: Slide assembly.

D: Slide stop.

When is the red warning "dot" visible on the M-9 safety?

A: When the chamber is empty.

B: When the safety is off.

C: When the safety is on.

D: When the trigger is pulled.

Why is the M-9 bore and chamber chrome-lined?

A: To extend the service life and protect against rust.    

B: To make cleaning and inspections easier.

C: To control manufacturing costs.

D: To increase muzzle velocity.

What is the most probable cause of an M-9 pistol not chambering a round?

A: Dirty or obstructed chamber.

B: Magazine not seated.

C: Broken extractor.

D: Shooting thumb resting on the slide stop.

What marksmanship error causes more misses than all of the other types of errors?

A: Improper thumb placement.

B: Improper hand grip.

C: Improper sight placement.

D: Improper trigger squeeze.

When engaging multiple targets, what target should be shot first?

 A: Easy target.

B: Biggest target.

C: Closest target.

D: Far target.

What MOPP level may present a problem when firing a weapon because gloves are worn?

A: MOPP 4.

B: MOPP 2.

C: MOPP 1.

D: MOPP 3.

after moving from a lighted area into darkness, about how many minutes does visibility take to reach

its maximum level?

A: 60 minutes.

B: 15 minutes.

C: 10 minutes.

D: 30 minutes.

What is the best technique for viewing objects at night?

A: shift your gaze slightly to one side of the object.

B: look directly at the object.

C: shift your gaze slightly above the object.

D: shift your gaze slightly below the object.

Short, abrupt, irregular movement of the eyes around an object or area is called

A: skimming.

B: observing.

C: scanning.

D: aiming.

Using off-center vision instead of pinpoint focus applies to which marksmanship fundamental when firing at night?

A: breathing.

B: steady position.

C: trigger squeeze.

D: aiming.