1.         Which TACS element is the senior deployable element?

A: TACP.

B: AOC.

C: WOC.

D: ASOC.

          1.         Who establishes the time frame that the ATO/ITO cycle will flow?

A: JFC.

B: LCC.

C: AADC.

D: JFACC.

D: JFACC

          1.         Within the AOC, which division is responsible for the execution of the current ATO/ITO?

A: CPD.

B: COD.

C: ALCC.

D: CID.

          1.         Which TACS element is the wing commander's command and control element?

A: TACP.

B: ASOC.

C: AOC.

D: WOC.              

The WOC is subordinate to the

A: TACP.

B: COD.

C: ASOC.

D: AOC.               

  Which radio net is used by the ASOC to interface with other TACS units?

A: In-flight report net.

B: Air Force air request net.

C: Command and control net.                    

D: Tactical air control net.

TACP operations fall into what two general categories?

A: Control and communications.

B: Liaison and communications.

C: Liaison and control.

D: Control and direction.

   Battalion TACPs have the added responsibility of

A: pulling rotations at either the National Training Center or the Joint Readiness Training Center.

B: the terminal attack control role.                          

C: being responsible for getting trained on APC operations.

D: being the Army's fire support coordinator.

          1.         In a TACP, who coordinates with the ground commander on employment of tactical air support? 

A: Tactical air command and control specialist.

B: Fighter liaison officer.

C: Terminal attack controller.                     

D: Air liaison office

          1.         Which element within the TACS provides the AOC with a current air picture and status of air defense assets?

A: Control and reporting center.          

B: Theater airlift control element.

C: Control and reporting post.

D: Theater air control center.

          1.         Which element within the TACS is deployed into forward areas to extend radar coverage and provide control of air operations?

A: Control and reporting center.

B: Theater airlift control element.

C: Control and reporting post.   

D: Theater air control center.

          1.         Which element within the TACS coordinates air strikes between the FACs, ground and airborne, and fighters?

A: TAC(A).          

B: FAC(A).

C: AWACS.

D: JSTARS.

          1.         Which element within the TACS is under operational control of the supporting ASOC and is an airborne extension of a TACP?

A: AWACS.

B: JSTARS.

C: TAC(A).

D: FAC(A).

          1.         The battlefield coordination detachment is provided by the LCC and is collocated with the           

 A: AOC.

B: ASOC.

C: ALCC.

D: WOC.

          1.         Which section within the battlefield coordination detachment provides the AOC's CID with the enemy ground order of battle and ensures proper interpretation of that information?

A: Intelligence Section.

B: ADA and A2C2 Section.

C: Plans Section.

D: Fusion Section.

Which Army liaison officer may be provided to the airborne command and control systems to further assist in the ground-to-air battle?

A: Battlefield coordination element officer.

B: Air reconnaissance liaison officer.   

C: Air defense liaison officer.

D: Ground liaison officer.

C: Air defense liaison officer.

                         Which Army liaison officer maintains capabilities, locations, and status of ADA systems?

A: Battlefield coordination element officer.

B: Ground liaison officer.

C: Air defense liaison officer.

D: Air reconnaissance liaison officer.

       Within the AAGS, who normally has approval authority for air support requests?

A: G-2/S-2.

B: G-4/S-4.

C: G-3/S-3 Air.

D: G-3/S-3.

Within the AAGS, who plans, coordinates, and supervises the operation of the logistics facilities?

A: G-2/S-2.

B: G-4/S-4. 

C: G-3/S-3.

D: G-3/S-3 Air.

 Within the AAGS, who is responsible for all fires on surface targets to include air support?

A: Fire support coordinator.

B: G-3/S-3 Air.

C: G-3/S-3.

D: G-2/S-2.

 Which Army unit may serve as the framework for a combined or joint force?

A: Corps.

B: Battalion.

C: Brigade.

D: Division.

Which type of Army division is capable of sustained ground combat under all weather and terrain conditions?

A: Airborne division.

B: Armored division.

C: Mechanized infantry division.

D: Infantry division.

Which Army unit has the mission to close with the enemy using available firepower and controlled maneuvers?

A: Battalion.

B: Division.

C: Brigade.

D: Corps.

Which Army unit is a basic tactical maneuver unit?

A: Battalion.

B: Brigade.

C: Division.

D: Corps

          1.         Which reference consists of operations to divert, disrupt, delay, or destroy the enemy's surface potential before it can be used effectively against friendly forces?

 A: Battlefield air interdiction.

B: Close air support.

C: Combat air patrol.

D: Air interdiction.

Which specific function associated with air and space counterland operations provides direct support to help friendly surface forces carry out their assigned tasks?

A: Suppression of enemy air defenses.

B: Battlefield air interdiction.

C: Close air support.

D: Air interdiction.

          1.         Certain conditions must be met before CAS can be effective. Which condition permits CAS to function more effectively and denies that same advantage to the enemy?

A: Command and control.

B: Suppression of enemy air defenses.

C: Air superiority.

D: Favorable weather.

EAeEach participant must make every effort possible to ensure friendly units and enemy forces are correctly identified prior to

 A: sending in an air request message.

B: transmitting the nine-line brief.

C: passing the BDA report.

D: the release of ordnance.

Scheduled requests require the requesting maneuver unit to identify the target and the desired

 A: time on target.

B: ordnance.

C: aircraft.

D: results.

The mission data for preplanned requests is passed down through

 A: maneuver channels.

B: the ASOC's channels.

C: the G-2/S-2 channels.

D: the TACP's channels.

Mission data for preplanned requests should, as a minimum, include all of the following except

 A: tail number

B: mission number.

C: call sign.

D: ordnance.

The TACP at each intermediate headquarters monitors the immediate request and informs the

A: G-2/S-2, ALO, and FSCOORD.

B: G-3/S-3 Air, ALO, and FSCOORD.

C: G-3/S-3, ALO, and FSCOORD.

D: G-2/S-2 Air, ALO, and FSCOORD.

For approved immediate requests, mission data will include all of the following except

A: mission number.

B: contact point.

C: ordnance.

D: abort code.

The use of the CAS request form is mandatory unless otherwise authorized by

A: national authority.

B: the ALO.

C: the LCC.

D: higher authority.

In which battlefield operation will CAS missions be limited in scope and duration?

A: Deep operations.

B: Offensive operations.

C: Rear operations.

D: Close operations.

Which battlefield operation requires special care to identify friendly forces and ensure that they are not subject to direct attack or weapons effects from CAS ordnance?

A: Close operations.

B: Offensive operations.

C: Deep operations.

D: Rear operations.

          1.         Which battlefield operation with CAS gives the maneuver force commander freedom of movement?

A: Rear operations.

B: Defensive operations.

C: Offensive operations.

D: Deep operations.

          1.         Which battlefield operation with CAS can cause the enemy to deploy prematurely?  

A: Offensive operations.

B: Deep operations.

C: Defensive operations.

D: Rear operations.

The standard for target location is MGRS/UTM grid coordinates in

A: 6 digits.

B: 10 digits.

C: 8 digits.

D: 4 digits.

          1.         Many GPS receivers can compute quick, accurate coordinate conversions, provided the

A: users are properly trained.

B: proper codes are installed.

C: satellites are on and working.

D: batteries are fully charged.

Which fire support coordination measure is established and adjusted by the land forces commander?

A: Restrictive fire line.

B: Fire support coordination line.

C: Permissive fire coordination line.

D: Coordinated fire line.

Which fire support coordination measure is a specific area in which any weapon system can fire without additional coordination?

A: No-fire area.

B: Airspace coordination area.

C: Free-fire area.

D: Restrictive fire area.

          1.         Which fire support coordination measure is divided into two types -- formal and informal?

A: Free-fire area.

B: No-fire area.

C: Airspace coordination area.

D: Restrictive fire area

          1.         What are the two methods of synchronized timing?

A: Time off target and time from target.

B: Time on target and time to target.

C: Time to target and time off target.

D: Time on target and time off target.

          1.         The mission brief for a CAS mission should not change once an aircrew

A: leaves the initial point.

B: arrives at the initial point.

C: leaves the control point.

D: arrives at the control point.

          1.         ZULU time is broadcast on all the following HF channels except

A: 20.000 MHz.

B: 30.000 MHz.

C: 15.000 MHz.

D: 25.000 MHz

 A basic consideration of missions involving LGWs requires coordination of laser-compatible designators, ordnance, and

A: skill of the operators.

B: type of target.

C: attack parameters.

D: threats in the area.

           To be effective, a target mark must be

A: accurate and coordinated.

B: timely and coordinated.

C: timely and accurate.

D: accurate and visible.

 Laser marks will be initiated by a

A: 20-second warning call.

B: 5-second warning call.

C: 10-second warning call.

D: 15-second warning call.

 infrared pointers and indirect fire munitions marks should appear/impact  

A: 30 to 45 seconds prior to CAS ordnance impact.

B: 40 to 55 seconds prior to CAS ordnance impact.

C: 10 to 25 seconds prior to CAS ordnance impact.

D: 20 to 35 seconds prior to CAS ordnance impact.

          1.         Visual marks should impact within

A: 50 meters of the target.

B: 150 meters of the target.

C: 200 meters of the target.

D: 100 meters of the target

Infrared marks should be initiated

A: 15 to 25 seconds prior to the TOT/TTT.

B: 25 to 35 seconds prior to the TOT/TTT.

C: 10 to 20 seconds prior to the TOT/TTT.

D: 20 to 30 seconds prior to the TOT/TTT.

The two methods of exercising positive control are

A: direct and visual.

B: direct and indirect.

C: visual and nonvisual.

D: indirect and visual.

          1.         Who assesses the risk involved with "reasonable assurance" when used for CAS missions?

A: JFC.

B: JFACC.

C: ASOC.

D: LCC

What is BDA used for?

A: Update the enemy order of battle.

B: Tally of targets destroyed by the terminal attack controller.

C: Tally for targets destroyed by aircraft.

D: Update the maps with locations of destroyed vehicles.

  All LGWs require designation

A: through impact.

B: before launch.

C: through the entire time of flight.

D: upon launch.

Which option is not one of the five basic requirements needed while using an LST and LGWs?

A: Laser designator.

B: Line of sight.

C: Pulse repetition frequency codes.

D: Angle of attack.

Who provides aircrews with an attack heading when using laser equipment?

A: Fire support coordinator.

B: Terminal controllers.

C: Ground commander.

D: The aircrews themselves.

Due to the possibility of false target indications, when using laser procedures, attack headings should avoid the target-to-laser designator safety zone unless the

A: communications go out.

B: tactical situation dictates otherwise. 

C: pilot thinks the controller has erred.

D: controller thinks the pilot has erred.

the attack heading used with laser designators uses a safety zone that is a 20° fan whose apex is at the target and extends

A: 20° either side of the target-to-designator line.

B: 10° either side of the target-to-designator line.

C: 25° either side of the target-to-designator line.

D: 15° either side of the target-to-designator line.

  In some situations, LSTs have shifted from the designated to the laser source (LTD) while operating in the attack zone. For this reason, LSTs should not be used

A: as the sole source for target verification.

B: unless operators are in a bunker.

C: as the primary source for target verification.

D: unless operated by US Army personnel.

          1.         The single most important task in conducting CAS is correctly locating and identifying

A: the controller's position.

B: the target.

C: the boundary between forces.

D: friendlies.

 All of the following are challenges that become acute in night or adverse weather except  

A: maintaining situational awareness.

B: identity of the targets.

C: maintaining communications.               

D: identity of friendly locations.

In order to perform a CAS mission with radar delivery,

A: the enemy location must be radar significant.

B: the target or offset aimpoint must be radar significant.            

C: friendlies must be radar significant.

D: the terminal controller location must be radar significant.

The effectiveness of NVDs is dependent upon the

A: skill of the operator.

B: terrain.

C: amount of ambient light available.

D: model of NVDs used.

 All of the following are NVD planning considerations except

A: sun rise.

B: mean starlight.

C: weather conditions.

D: moon phase.

What is the most significant night illumination factor?

A: Man-made lighting.

B: Weather conditions.

C: Moon phase.

D: Mean starlight.

Which selection allows the F-16 to be very accurate in delivering air-to-surface munitions?

A: Bombing computer.

B: LANTIRN.

C: Pave Penny.

D: LASTE.

          1.         What system provides the A-10 the capability to see a laser spot through the symbology in its heads-up display? 

A: Pave Penn

B: LASTE.

C: Bombing computer.

D: LANTIRN.

          2.         What system provides the A-10 the capability to bomb as accurately as the F-16 and to engage targets with the GAU-8 30 mm Gatling gun out to 12,000 feet?

A: Pave Penny.

B: Bombing computer.

C: LANTIRN.

D: LASTE.

          1.         Due to the accuracy of the gunship fire control system, ordnance can be delivered very close to friendly positions. All of the following factors must be considered except

A: target type

B: burst pattern.

C: terrain features.

D: ricocheting rounds.

The greatest hazard to friendly forces when employing the AC-130 is the

 A: possibility of ricocheting rounds.

B: empty shells falling from the aircraft.

C: IR light.

D: HF radio waves being emitted

          1.         Which AAA system is used for self-defense against low-flying aircraft to provide direct-protection of troops?

 A: Light antiaircraft artillery.

B: Medium antiaircraft artillery.

C: Antiaircraft machine guns.

D: Heavy antiaircraft artillery.

          1.         Which system uses a fire direction and control method of continuous fire, aided by observing and correcting the flight path of the tracer rounds into the target?

A: Antiaircraft machine guns.

B: Heavy antiaircraft artillery.

C: Medium antiaircraft artillery.

D: Light antiaircraft artillery.

These missiles are usually characterized by having a fixed site.

 A: Long-range air defense missile system

B: Medium-range air defense missile system.

C: Short-range air defense missile system.

D: Man-portable air defense system.

          1.         The SA-8 and Roland are examples of which SAM system?

 A: Short-range air defense missile system.

B: Man-portable air defense system.

C: Long-range air defense missile system.

D: Medium-range air defense missile system.

          1.         Which homing system, when mounted to a bomb, allows both video and command signals to pass between aircraft and weapon?

 A: Laser guidance.

B: Antiradiation homing.

C: Infrared homing.

D: Television homing.

          1.         Which homing system is fitted with a radar receiver that searches for enemy radars?

 A: Antiradiation homing.

B: Infrared homing.

C: Television homing.

D: Laser guidance.

          1.         Which homing system is considered one of the most accurate?

 A: Antiradiation homing.

B: Laser guidance.

C: Infrared homing.

D: Television homing.

The inability of an observer to read an instrument without introducing some biases into the measurement is called

 A: target location error.

B: personal error.

C: source error.

D: instrument error.

The weight of a bomb varies from 250 to 3,000 pounds with the high-explosive content equal to

 A: about one-fourth its total weight.

B: about one-half its total weight.

C: about one-third its total weight.

D: about one-fifth its total weight.

          1.         The most commonly used bomb is the

 A: general-purpose bomb.

B: high-drag bomb.

C: fragmentation bomb.

D: demolition bomb

           Most MBTs have a main gun of between

 A: 105 mm and 125 mm.

B: 115 mm and 125 mm.

C: 110 mm and 125 mm.

D: 100 mm and 125 mm.

 The primary job of the IFV is

 A: to engage other IFVs and armored vehicles.

B: to provide protection to troops moving up to the front lines of the battlefield.

C: to engage enemy scout units.

D: to provide infantry troops a means of engaging the enemy up close.

          1.         Rockets are ideal surprise weapons and are very effective

A: antiarmor weapons.

B: counterbattery weapons.

C: for providing marking rounds.

D: antiaircraft systems.

          1.         Of all chemical weapons available, the lowest in the lethality scale are

 A: incapacitating agents.

B: nerve agents.

C: choking agents.

D: liquid agents.

 Which agent causes mild choking, tears, and discomfort?

 A: Nerve agents.

B: Choking agents.

C: Incapacitating agents.

D: Liquid agents.

          1.         Which two measures are your primary means to combat the biological threat? 

A: Vaccinations and protective mask.

B: Personal hygiene and protective mask.

C: Vaccinations and maintaining personal hygiene.

D: Personal hygiene and protective suit.

 MAJCOM and NAF functional managers use SORTS to

A: evaluate trends and recommend necessary management actions.

B: support crisis management contingency planning decisions.

C: manage personnel.

D: monitor current resources and training.

  C-levels are calculated for how many measured resource areas?

A: 5.

B: 3.

C: 6.

D: 4.

A C-level rating of C-4 means the

A: unit possesses the resources and has the training necessary to undertake the bulk of the wartime

mission for which it is organized or designed.

B: unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake the full wartime mission for which it is organized or designed.

C: unit requires additional resources or training to undertake its wartime mission, but if the situation dictates, it may be directed to undertake portions of its wartime mission with resources on hand.

D: unit possesses the resources and has accomplished the training necessary to undertake major portions of the wartime mission for which it is organized or designed.

C: unit requires additional resources or training to undertake its wartime mission, but if the situation dictates, it may be directed to undertake portions of its wartime mission with resources on hand.

D: unit possesses the resources and has accomp

UTCs are used to identify manpower and

A: equipment requirements.

B: mission requirements.

C: deployment requirements.

D: AFSC requirements.

          1.         The UTC is an alphanumeric code with how many characters?

 A: 6.

B: 5.

C: 7.

D: 4.

The UTC title is made up of how many characters that further define the UTC?

 A: 25.

B: 21.

C: 35.

D: 31.

The MISCAP statement defines all of the following except

A: the wartime mission the force is capable of accomplishing.

B: the peacetime mission the force is capable of accomplishing.                                

C: the type and amount of workload the force is capable of accomplishing.

D: the type of base(s) where the force may be employed.

A DOC  statement describes a mission for a measured unit that has been

 A: organized, equipped, designed, and tasked.

B: organized, funded, designed, and tasked.

C: organized, manned, funded, and tasked.

D: organized, equipped, funded, and tasked.

          1.         DOC statements identify the specific standards against which a unit will be

 A: manned.

B: organized.

C: measured.

D: funded.

 To execute the commander's strategic concept, an OPLAN is developed that identifies the forces and

 A: aircraft required.

B: staff needed.

C: supplies required.

D: commanders needed.

          1.         Which step of the nine-step planning sequence is used to predict what may occur?

 A: Examine requirements.

B: Study implications.

C: Analyze mission.

D: Forecast requirements.

Selecting courses of action is the

 A: seventh step in the planning sequence.

B: ninth step in the planning sequence.

C: sixth step in the planning sequence.

D: eighth step in the planning sequence.

Which item is a machine-run list that shows all authorizations, assets, and due-outs for each custodian by organization code and shop code? 

A: AS.

B: DOC statement.

C: CA/CRL.

D: SORTS report.

          1.         What product breaks down personnel by work center or functional account codes and reflects personnel actions such as gains and losses? 

A: Manpower detail.

B: Unit manpower document.

C: Unit personnel management roster.

D: Manpower standard.