Term
(001) In the operational risk management process, the repsonsiblity for identifying and controlling hazards rests with:
-trainers
-everyone
-supervisors
-commanders |
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Definition
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Term
(001) What estimated percent of accidents are caused by nature?
2 percent
4 percent
6 percent
8 percent |
|
Definition
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Term
(001) Which safety-training phase is an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new airman?
Initial
General
Supervisor's
Sustained Job Safety |
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Definition
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Term
(001) Responsibility for initiaing a lost tool report rests with the:
expediter or production supervisor
flight chief or flight commander
person that was issued the tool
CTK support section
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Definition
PERSON THAT WAS ISSUED THE TOOL. |
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Term
(001) The lowest person authorized to clear a Red X when a lost tool cannot be located is:
the crew chief
the aircraft engineer
the wing commander
an individual assigned to maintenance supervision
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Definition
an individual assigned to the maintenance supervison. |
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Term
(001) The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the:
red markings
black markings
green markings
orange markings |
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Definition
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Term
(001) Minimum requirements for position of fire extinguishers is listed in:
TO 005-01
TO 00-25-172
AFOSHSTD 91 SERIES
AFOSHSTD 127 SERIES |
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Definition
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Term
(002) Wearing dog tags, wristwatches, or other jewelery is expressly forbidden:
during fuel servicing operations
during inspection of engine inlets
when you're servicing high-pressure air
when you're working on electrical equipment |
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Definition
WHEN WORKING ON ELECTRICAL EQUIPMENT |
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Term
(002) Fall protection is required when it becomes necessary to perform required tasks where a worker can fall:
5 feet or more
10 feet or more
20 feet or more
25 feet or more |
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Definition
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Term
(003)Radiation hazards are affected by:
strength of emission, time of exposure and weather
strength of emission, time of day and the input power
input power, weather and number of personnel in the area
time of exposure, amount of training, and number of operating units |
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Definition
strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather |
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Term
(003) The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to part the aircraft in an isolated location, then
spray with cold water
cool with forced air from a blower
cool with high-pressure compressed air
allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air |
|
Definition
allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air |
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Term
(003) Normally, the SAFE distance behind an operating jet engine exhaust is
125 feet
150 feet
175 feet
200 feet |
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Definition
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Term
(003) How is a maintenance stand secured when placed near an operating propeller?
remove stand towbar
place sand bags on top of stand
wrap chains around each wheel individually
use chains to secure handrails to stand
|
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Definition
Wrap chains around each wheel individually. |
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Term
(003) Which symptom is NOT a sign of noise fatigue?
dizziness
emotional irritability
a feeling of emptiness
impairment of mental concentration |
|
Definition
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Term
(004) Any fuel spill NOT over 50 square feet and NOT continuous is classified as a
Class I
Class II
Class III
Class IV |
|
Definition
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Term
(004) Individuals who ARE NOT involved in a nitrogen servicing operation SHOULD be outside a
15 foot radius
20 foot radius
25 foot radius
50 foot radius
|
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Definition
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Term
(005) To ensure equipment is ready and available at the time of need, the Air Force uses
preventive maintenance
corrective maintenance
protective maintenance
unscheduled maintenance
|
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Definition
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Term
(005) Responsibility for establishing a climate that promotes maintenance discipline rests with
first sergeants
subordinate personnel
immediate supervisors
squadron commanders
|
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Definition
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Term
(006) Prime contributors to dropped objects are
chaff/flare discharges
latches and fasteners
jettisoned fuel tanks
hung weapons
|
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Definition
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Term
(007) The objectives of the maintenance data documentation system include:
calling, saving, and reviewing base-level data
calling, storing, and retrieving base-level data
collecting, saving, and reviewing base-level data
collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data
|
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Definition
collecting...storing...retrieving base-level data |
|
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Term
(007) The basic rules for the maintenance data documentation system are contained in TO
00-5-1
00-20-1
00-20-2
00-20-5
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Definition
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Term
(008) The three phases of the oeprational events subsystem of the IMDS CDB are:
input, output and archive
on-line, off-line and update
data recording, tracking and retrieval
mission recording, mission accomplishment and analysis
|
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Definition
mission recording, mission accomplishment and analysis |
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Term
(008) You can use the IMDS CDB Training Management Subsystem to monitor
upgrade training
optional training
specialty training
qualitative training |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(009) After student graduation, how many days later is the technical school graduate assessment survey normally sent out to the organization?
45
60
90
120
|
|
Definition
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|
Term
(009) Unsatisfactory comments on the graduate assessment survey are answered by:
the instructor of the student using an AETC Form 156
a telephone call from teh instructor of the student
electronic email from the instructor of the student
a letter fromt he instructor of the student
|
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Definition
a telephone call from the instructor of the student |
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Term
(010) Tasks that person is expected to perform in a duty position or workcenter but ARE NOT included in the CFETP Part II or AFJQS are listed on what form? |
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Definition
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Term
(011) Who may standardize the arrangements of the forms binder?
Flight chief
Section chief
MAJCOMS
Wing commander |
|
Definition
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Term
(011) To obtain billing information for fuel and oil on an aircraft, which AFTO form would you check? |
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Definition
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Term
(011) When MUST the AFTO Form 781 be removed from the forms binder?
before each thruflight
before the first flight of the day
after each maintenance action with an assigned job control number
after the IMDS CDB event number is entered at maintenance debriefing
|
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Definition
After the IMDS CDB event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing |
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Term
(011) Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on the AFTO Form......
781G
781J
781M
781P
|
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Definition
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Term
(011) You would use the AFTO Form 781K to document (choose one)?
engine data
daily flying time
replacement items
support general work |
|
Definition
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Term
(012) The standards for the entries to be made in the AFTO 781 series forms are specified in the ______ series of techinical orders
00-20
00-25
00-35
00-110
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|
Definition
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|
Term
Which is the proper way to manually record a date in the 781 series forms?
December 12, 2009
12 Dec 09
20091212
12/12/09
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|
Definition
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Term
(012) What action is necessary to clear an erroneous red diagonal symbol?
Erase the incorrect symbol and replace with correct symbol
an authorized individual will sign the "INSPECTED BY" block and initial over the symbol
place the statement "symbol entered in error" in the discrepancy block and sign the "CORRECTED BY" block
place the statement "symbol entered in error" in the discrepancy block and signed the "INSPECTED BY" block
|
|
Definition
Place the statement "Sybol entered in error" in the discrepancy block and sign the "CORRECTED BY" block. |
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Term
(012) During an aircraft inspection, you find a deterioraed insignia decal. What symbol would you use in the aircraft forms?
Red X
Red Dash
Red Diagonal
None, enter an INFO NOTE only. |
|
Definition
NONE, enter an INFO NOTE only. |
|
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Term
(013) How many Air Force TO catalogs are there? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(014) Inspection Workcards are known as
abbreviated TOs
technical manuals
methods and procedure TOs
scheduled inspection and maintenance requirements manual |
|
Definition
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Term
(014) Which TCTO is identified by a series of red diagonals alternately spaced with red X's (/X/X/X) around the border of the first page?
Record
Urgent Action
Routine Action
Immediate Action
|
|
Definition
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|
Term
(014) As a general rule, ITCTO are replaced by formal TOs within how long?
48 hours
72 hours
10 days
15 days
|
|
Definition
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|
Term
(015) The procedures for the entries on an AFTO Form 22 are outlined in .....
TO 00-5-1
TO 00-1-01
the 00-20 series TOs
the 00-25 series TOs
|
|
Definition
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|
Term
(015) What type of TO improvement is issued for TCTO deficiencies?
Emergency
Urgent
Routine
Record |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which type of directive publication is an extension of an instruction?
Directory
Pamphlet
Manual
Policy |
|
Definition
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Term
(016) An example of something that should not be published in an OI would be....
selection procedures for NCO of the Quarter
CTK control procedures
cold weather procedures
installation traffic rules
|
|
Definition
installation traffic rules |
|
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Term
(016) Publications are listed in AFIND2 in a ________ sequence
logical
numerical
alphabetical
alphanumeric
|
|
Definition
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|
Term
(017) A sequence chart used in acft maintenance best serves as a .....
ready reference for determining the progress of the inspection
an outline of the minimum requirements for controlling work assignments
a control of work assignments for determining the type of equipment needed
an outline of the minimum requirements for determining the type of personnel needed
|
|
Definition
ready reference for determining the progress of the inspection |
|
|
Term
(018) Which inspection is basically a flight preparedness check?
preflight
postflight
thruflight
end of runway
|
|
Definition
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|
Term
(018) What inspection is usually performed just prior to take off and may include operational checks of some systems? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(018) If a basic postflight inspection is NOT required, the thru-flight inspection is normally performed when?
prior to an aircarft going on alert and again before a flight after completion of the alert period
after flights when a turn-around sortie or a continuation flight is scheduled
immediately prior to a basic post flight inspection
after the last flight of a specified flying period
|
|
Definition
after flights when a turnaround sortie or a continuation flight is scheduled |
|
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Term
(018) The basic postflight inspection is performed to
prepare the aircraft for another flight
determine the flight status of the aircraft
prepare the aircraft for the first flight of the day
determine if the aircraft is suitable for another flight |
|
Definition
determine if the aircraft is suitable for another flight. |
|
|
Term
(018) Which is the most extensive inspection?
periodic
thruflight
basic postflight
hourly postflight
|
|
Definition
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|
Term
(018) The home station check is acocmplished in conjunction with
minor and major inspections
phased and periodic inspections
preflight and thruflight inspections
hourly postflight and basic postflight inspections |
|
Definition
Minor and Major Inspections |
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Term
(018) What aircraft inspection requires skills, equipment, or facilities NOT normally possessed by operating locations?
major maintenance
consolidated maintenance
organizational maintenance
programmed depot maintenance
|
|
Definition
Programmed Depot Maintenance |
|
|
Term
(018) What symbol is entered on the forms if an aircraft exceeds the programmed depot maintenance cycle by 90 days and an extension is not granted? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(018) What type of inspection is used to ensure the completness of historical documents?
phase
special
calendar
acceptance |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(201) The maintenance Stand with an adjustable height of 13-20 feet is the
B-1
B-2
B-4
B-5 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(201) Of the following, the maintenance stand that is a scissor-type?
B-1
B-2
B-4
C-1
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(201) The type of jack normally used to change a tire on the aircraft is the
axle
tail
nose
fixed-height
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(201) The boiling point of liquid oxygen (LOX) is _____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(201) The low-and high pressure capabilities, as measured in pounds per square inch gage (psig), of the NSU-L75 nitrogen-servicing unit are:
0-300; 300-3500
0-300; 300-3600
0-350; 350-3500
0-350; 350-3600 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(201) The high-pressure pump provides a hydraulic filler pressurization unit with a maximum pressure of
2,000 psi
2500 psi
3000 psi
3500 psi |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(201) The model 4000 engine trailer can support a maximum load of
7,000 lbs
8,000 lbs
9,000 lbs
10,000 lbs
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(202) The usable pressure range, as measured in pounds per square inch (psi), of the MC-1A air compressor is
0-200 psi
0-350 psi
0-3,200 psi
05-3,500 psi
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(202) The MC-2A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure, measured in pounds per square inch (psi) of ____.
200
300
3,500
3,600 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(202) The H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that ranges from
100 degrees F to 230 degrees F
115 degrees F to 250 degrees F
125 degrees F to 270 degrees F
150 degrees F to 280 degrees F |
|
Definition
150 degrees F to 280 degrees F |
|
|
Term
(202) The stationary, skid-mounted power unit that produces aircraft electrical power for use in shops and hangars is the _________.
A/M32A-95
MK-3A
MD-4
MB-2
|
|
Definition
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|
Term
(202) The unit capable of providing bother alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC) electrical power in additional pneumatic power for ground maintenance is _____________.
A/M32A-95
A/M32A-86
A/M32A-60
AF/M-32R-3
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(202) The hydraulic systems on the MK_3A-1 hydraulic test stand are designated
primary and secondary
primary and alternate
no 1 and no 2
left and right
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(202) The amount of fluid the MJ-2A reservoir holds is _____.
19 gallons
27 gallons
30 gallons
60 gallons
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(202) A Class 1 MB-2 Tractor weighs _____.
2,700 lbs
40,000 lbs
53,000 lbs
500,000 lbs
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(203) The structural members, whose CHIEF use is to give shape to the acft and provide a means for attaching the skin to the structure, are called ________.
longerons
bulkheads
stringers
frames |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(203) The MOST COMMON type of material used for fuselage construction is _________.
steel
titanium
magnesium
aluminum alloy
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(203) The wing components that provide strength and contour shape to the wing are the ________.
ribs
spars
stringers
stiffeners
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(203) The main difference between inspection plates and panels is ______.
size
material
location
installation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(203) A cracked radome could cause _______
antenna oscillation
dielectric increase
microwave distortion
electron deteroriation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(203) The reference locations, which are in the vertical direction measured from a reference datum that is usually well below the aircraft, are called
buttllines
waterlines
buttock stations
fuselage stations
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(204) The category of -21 equipment used for life support and crew comfort is
I
II
III
IV |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(204) The EFFECTIVE range of a FULLY charged handheld fire extinguisher is
5 feet
10 feet
15 feet
20 feet
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(205) The FIRST practical laminated composite formed was
safety glass
fiberglass
plywood
adobe
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(206) a barometer is designed to measure pressure in____________
pounds per square inch (psi)
inches of mercury
relative humidity
ounces of air
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(206) Atmospheric pressure at sea level is how many psi?
14.7 psi
17.4 psi
29.92 psi
29.29 psi
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(206) What force acts PARALLEL to the relative wind?
lift
drag
gravity
weight
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(207) What axis extends lengthwise through the fuselage from the nose to the tail?
lateral
vertical
horizontal
longitudinal
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(207) What axis extends crosswise from wing tip to wing tip?
lateral
vertical
horizontal
longitudinal
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(207) Movement about the vertical axis is called what?
roll
pitch
crab
yaw
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(207) Which flight control is located on the longitudinal control surface?
rudder
aileron
elevator
wing flaps
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(207) Which flight control system allows the pilot to control the aircraft if hydraulic pressure is lost?
boost
manual
powered
differential pressure
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(207) When making a RIGHT turn, the relative position of the ailerons is the right aileron _____ and the left aileron ______
right up, left aileron up
right down,left aileron down
right up, left aileron down
right down, left aileron up
|
|
Definition
right is up, left is down. |
|
|
Term
(207) Which flight control surfaces are used to make an aircraft climb or dive?
flaps
spoilers
ailerons
elevators
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(207) What type of flap is NORMALLY incorporated on bomber and cargo type aircraft?
split
plain
fowler
slotted
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(207) Why do aircraft have trim systems?
to reduce the amount of lift
to prevent the aircraft from stalling
to correct minor deviations in flight attitude
improve augmented lateral control surface movement
|
|
Definition
to correct minor deviations in flight attitude. |
|
|
Term
(208) The law that states "the distortion of any elastic body is proportional to the distorting force is known as "_____'s Law".
Hook's Law
Boyle's Law
Pascal's Law
Charles' Law
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(208) When any force causes a solid to change permanently, the solid is said to have __________.
passed the elastic limit
lost the ability to expand
failed to meet elastic limit
passed the compression limit
|
|
Definition
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|
Term
(208) The MOST outstanding characteristic of a liquid is its _____________.
rigidity
usability
ability to compress within its container
ability to conform to the shape of its container
|
|
Definition
ability to conform to the shape of its container. |
|
|
Term
(208) Pascal's Law applies to what?
a fluid in motion
confined fluids at rest
fluids flowing through a restriction
fluids subjected to high temperatures
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(208) Among the first to study the compressibility of gases was whom?
Hook
Boyle
Pascal
Charles
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(208) The person who found that all gases expand and contract in direct proportion to the change in temperature, provided the pressure remains constant, was ________.
Hook
Pascal
Charles
Bernoulli
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(209) If 50 lbs per square inch (psi) of cylinder pressure acts on a 5-square-inch piston head, the resulting force will be ______.
150 lbs
200 lbs
250 lbs
300 lbs
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(209) When an 8-square inch piston moves 5 inches within a cylinder, the volume of liquid displaced will be
4 cubic inches
40 cubic inches
400 cubic inches
4,000 cubic inches
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(209) The principle, which states that as the velocity of a gas or liquid increases, pressure decreases, is
Hook's
Boyle's
Pascal's
Bernoulli's
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(209) As fluid enters the narrow portion of a venturi, ___________.
it decelerates
it accelerates
nothing happens
pressure increases
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(210) When referring to hydraulic hand pumps, double-action means:
fluid flow is created with each stroke of the pump handle
fluid flow is created with every other stroke of the pump handle
double volume is displaced with each stroke of the pump handle
double volume is dispalced with every other stroke of the pump handle
|
|
Definition
fluid-flow is created with each stroke of the pump handle. |
|
|
Term
(210) Variable-volume pumps do not require a separate pressure-regulating device in the system because:
they deliver low pressure
they have an integral compensator
the case drain will relieve high system pressure
there is no angle between the drive shaft and cylinder back
|
|
Definition
they have an integral compensator |
|
|
Term
(210) Cooler operation in a variable-volume hydraulic pump is provided by:
foot valves
oil radiator
creep plates
fluid radiator
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(210) In the Stratopower variable-volume pump, the pistons are held in contact with the cam plate by the:
fixed pivot
nutating plate
stationary bearing
compensator piston
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(211) An accumulator's piston is installed with the:
piston in either direction
hollow end toward the air side of the accumulator
hollend end toward the fluid side of the accumulator
drilled passage toward the air side of the accumulator
|
|
Definition
hollow end toward the air side of the accumulator. |
|
|
Term
(211) The size of one micron is four _____ of an inch.
tenths
thousandths
millionths
billionths
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(211) If a filter is rated at 10 microns NOMINAL, what happens?
may allow some particles 10 microns or larger to get through
will not allow any particles greater than 9 microns to pass through
will not allow any particles larger than 10 microns to pass through
will not allow any particles smaller than 10 microns to pass through
|
|
Definition
it may allow some particles 10 microns or larger to get through. |
|
|
Term
(211) Hydraulic manifolds are used in a hydraulic system to provide a location where the _________.
return lines can join together
pressure lines can join together
common fluid lines can come together
hyrdraulic test stand can be connected
|
|
Definition
common fluid lines can come together. |
|
|
Term
(212) What is the pneudraulic system component that uses a single-acting actuating cyclinder?
rudder
cargo door
brake assembly
nosewheel steering
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(212) What pneudraulic system component uses a double-acting balanced actuating cylinder?
speed brake
brake assembly
cargo door system
nosewheel steering
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(212) Some aircraft manufactures use the term "power control cylinders" when referring to what?
power snubber
internal snubber
locking actuator
tandem actuators
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(212) The pressure at which the relief valve ball is SLIGHTLY UNSEATED is called the ______________ pressure.
normal system pressure
cracking pressure
full flow pressure
reseating pressure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(212) The MAJOR advantage of the manual slide-type hydraulic selector valve is its __________.
damping ability
metering ability
capability to allow system pressure to build
capability to relieve excess system pressure
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(212) The difference between a selector valve and a servo vavle is _____________________.
the selector valve has four ports
the selector valve is more complex
the servo valve will control fluid-flow
the servo valve is electrically operated
|
|
Definition
The Servo Valve will control fluid-flow. |
|
|
Term
(212) The purpose of a hydraulic system check valve is to __________.
allow flow in only one direction
prevent loss of fluid if a line breaks
supply on demand pressure to components
relieve excess pressure due to thermal expansion
|
|
Definition
allow flow in only one direction |
|
|
Term
(212)What is another name for a flapper check valve?
ball check valve
gate check valve
cone check valve
restrictor check valve
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(212) Allowing normal operating speed of a hydraulic actuator in one direction while LIMITING speed in the other direction is done by the ________________.
automatic check valve
restrictor check valve
bypass valve
relief valve
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(213) The four major sections of a basic hydraulic system are:
return, auxilliary, gravity and supply
supply, pressure, demand and gravity
supply, pressure, return and auxilliary
return, auxiliary, demand and pressure
|
|
Definition
Supply, Pressure, Return and Auxiliary |
|
|
Term
(213) The reservoir supplies hydraulic fluid to a hand pump by ___________.
delivery priority
the suction effect of the pump
gravity and the suction effect of the pump
in response to pressure demand and the suction effort of the pump
|
|
Definition
gravity and the suction effect of the pump. |
|
|
Term
(213) A relief valve is installed in a variable-volume hydraulic pump to ______________.
bypass a blocked valve
compensate for pump pressure failure
relieve pressure if the pump compensator fails
relieve pressure when the foot valve is blocked
|
|
Definition
relieve pressure if the pump compensator fails. |
|
|
Term
(213) How are the actuating units connected in MOST hydraulic subsystems?
intersectionally
in sequence
in parallel
linearly
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(214) What shock strut component controls the rate of fluid-flow through the oriface?
check valve
bypass valve
metering pin
flow transmitter
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(214) What is the purpose of the torsion links on a main landing gear?
to reduce oscillation during extension
to reduce oscillation during retraction
allow the inner cylinder to rotate within the outer cylinder
prevent the inner cylinder from rotating within the outer cylinder
|
|
Definition
to prevent the inner cylinder from rotating within the outer cylinder |
|
|
Term
(214) How is the motion of of the landing gear control lever transmitted to the selector valve?
electrically
by push-pull rods
by a cable system
through hydraulic pressure
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(214) How are Landing Gear Safety Switches Actuated?
by control cams
by shock struts
by torsion links
by control linkage
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(214) What are the two most common types of shimmy dampers used in nose wheel steering?
vane and servo
vane and spline
piston and vane
piston and servo
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(215) The purpose of aircraft brakes is to:
reduce takeoff roll
reduce wheel skidding
retard motion using rotation
retard motion using friction
|
|
Definition
retard motion using FRICTION |
|
|
Term
(215) What is the purpose of deboosters?
to decreace fluid volume
reduce braking pressure
enlarge running clearance
increase braking pressure
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(215) What are the two types of emergency brake systems?
electric and manual
hydraulic and electric
manual and pnuematic
hydraulic and pneumatic
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(215) What is the purpose of the anti-skid system?
TO REDUCE FRICTION BETWEEN THE WHEEL AND THE TIRE
TO INCREASE FRICTION BETWEEN THE WHEEL AND TIRE
TO PREVENT WHEEL SKID BY APPLYING PRESSURE TO THE SKIDDING WHEEL
TO PREVENT WHEEL SKID BY RELEASING PRESSURE FROM THE SKIDDING WHEEL
|
|
Definition
to prevent wheel skid by releasing pressure from the skidding wheel |
|
|
Term
(216) How are split wheels balanced?
during build up
as an assembly
individually by halves
by a self-balancing system
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(216) An airtight seal is maintained between split wheel halves by use of what?
a rubber liner
an O-ring seal
a phenolic ring
machined-mated surfaces
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(216) What type of bearings are used on aircraft wheels?
flat roller
straight ball
recessed cone
tapered roller
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(216) What is the bearing cone of an aircraft wheel bearing also called?
outer race
inner race
bearing cup
roller mount
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(216) What kinds of pitting affect bearings?
segmented and peel
corrosive and segmented
corrosive and mechanical
mechanical and segmented
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(216) The two types of brinelling are:
true and false
passive and active
neutral and natural
negative and positive
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(217) An aircraft's tire maximum recommended static load is called what?
ply rating
serial number
service rating
manufatured wear limit
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(217) The term "ply rating" refers to what?
maximum allowable tire speed
number of reinforcement cords
number of cord piles in a tire
index of tire casing strength
|
|
Definition
The index of tire casing strength |
|
|
Term
(217) For tires 24 inches or greater outside diameter, the tire shall be removed when wear reaches the bottom of any tread groove for a continuous length of _________.
four inches
six inches
12 inches
16 inches
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(218) Matter is any substance that has mass and.......
can be seen
occupies space
has constance volume
cannot be compressed
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(218) Atoms are made up of....
molecules, protons, neutrons
protons, molecules, electrons
molecules, neutrons, electrons
protons, neutrons, electrons
|
|
Definition
Protons Neutrons Electrons |
|
|
Term
(218) Electrons can be released from their outer orbit by all of the following forces except:
heat
cold
chemical action
changing magnetic field |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(219) Thr greather the current flow through an electromagnet, the ...
less the strength
greater the strength
greater the retentivity
higher the reluctance of the core
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(219) To determine the direction a current-carrying conductor will move in a magnetic field, you should use the ______ rule for ______.
left had rule for coils
right hand rule for coils
left hand rule for conductors
right hand rule for conductors
|
|
Definition
left-hand rule for conductors. |
|
|
Term
(220) Current that periodically reverses is called _______________.
potential
reversing
alternating
directional |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(220) The term used to express a condition in which two moving objects are changing in or out of step is:
phase
shunt
current
sine wave |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(220) The methods used to cool brushless alternating current (AC) generators are:
blast air and ram air
engine oil and blast air
blast air and generator oil
generator oil and engine oil |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(220) The underspeed switch (USS) on the 60/80 kilovolt ampere (KVA) generator constant speed drive (CSD) actuates at:
325 HZ
345 HZ
365 HZ
395 HZ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(221) The internal component of a battery that is a grid or framework , which supports the active chemical materials, is the
plate
separator
electrolyte
chemcial solution |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(221) A 24-volt nickel-cadmium battery has:
12 cells
19 cells
20 cells
24 cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(221) The nickel-cadmium battery
-cells are not replaceable
-is not subject to thermal runaway
-service life is short and it is subject to thermal runaway
-electrolyte will appear to be low when the cells are partially discharged. |
|
Definition
electrolyte will appear to be low when the cells are partially discharged. |
|
|
Term
The component designed to convert 115/220-volt alternating current (AC) power into 28-volts (or less) direct current (DC) to operate the aircraft DC system is the
integrated drive generator (IDG)
frequency and load controller
generator control unit (GCU)
transformer-rectifier (T-R)
|
|
Definition
transformer-rectifier (T-R)
|
|
|
Term
(222) When measuring resistance on a multimeter, the letters OL indicate:
error
infinity
off load
ohms low |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(401) It is important to raise the air temperature in a jet engine to
increase its energy
decrease its energy
decrease its volume
increase its efficiency
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(401) In a jet engine, the velocity of the air is decreased by the
diffuser
afterburner
compressor
turbine blades
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(401) An aircraft taxiing at a constant speed is an example of
Bernoulli's Law
Newton's First Law of Motion
Newton's Second Law of Motion
Newton's Third Law of Motion
|
|
Definition
Newton's First Law of Motion
|
|
|
Term
(401) Foot-pounds and inch-pounds are units of measure for
work
power
inertia
friction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(401) The resistance of an object to change its motion is a property of matter called
energy
inertia
friction
potential
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(402) The ability to do work is the definition of
energy
intertia
friction
velocity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(402) In a jet engine, fuel is metered for combustion by the
pressurizing and dump (P&D) valve
fuel nozzles
fuel control
fuel pump
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(402) The average percentage of a jet engine's energy required to maintain engine oepration is
50
60
70
80
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(402) What affect does the divergent design of a jet engine diffuser have on pressure?
Increases pressure
Decreases pressure
Results in pressure fluctuations
Has minimum effect on pressure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(402) The required velocity for air and gases flowing through a jet engine is
low velocity at all times
less velocity exiting then entering
equal velocity entering and exiting
greater velocity exiting than entering
|
|
Definition
greater velocity exiting than entering |
|
|
Term
(402) The velocity of the stream of air that flows through a jet engine reaches its highest point at the
turbine stator (nozzle diaphragm)
turbine exhaust cone
combustion section
ejector nozzle
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(403) A jet engine derives its name from the fact that
it is in effect a turbo-supercharger
the nozzles within the engine are called jets
it uses a turbine-type compressor to maintain power
it uses an exhaust-gas-driven turbine wheel to drive its compressor
|
|
Definition
it uses an exhaust-gas-driven turbine wheel to drive its compressor
|
|
|
Term
(403) The three major sections of all jet engines are compressor, combustion and.....
turbo
turbine
exhaust
diffuser
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(403) The condition that rapidly reduces the efficiency of a centrifrugal jet engine compressor would be
resultant velocity
tangential velocity
pressure pulsations
air mass leaving the impeller at great velocities |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(403) The type of engine that is CHEAPER to manufacture is the
axial flow because of size
centrifrugal because of size
axial flow because of fewer parts
centrifrugal because of fewer parts
|
|
Definition
centrifrugal because of fewer parts |
|
|
Term
(404) The percentage of combustion efficiency of a gas turbine is usually between
60 and 70
65 and 75
75 and 95
95 and 100
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(404) The term "combustion range" is defined as a jet engine's
steady-state zone
pressure-ratio zone
compressor stall zone
operating temperature zone |
|
Definition
operating temperature zone |
|
|
Term
(404) The most chemically correct ratio for burning fuel in a combustion chamber is
10:1
10:4
15:1
15:4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(404) The inner and outer surfaces of an annular-type compustion chamber are formed by
interlocking stainless steel bands
the inner and outer diffuser case
a forged steel casing
solid sheet metal |
|
Definition
interlocking stainless steel bands |
|
|
Term
(404) The most common type of fuel nozzle system is the
pressure-atomizing
fuel-blasting
fuel ejector
fuel tube
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(404) Swirl-type fuel nozzles are USUALLY used to provide what type of flame speed?
Low
High
Medium
Medium-High |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(405) The three design types of turbines used in jet engines are:
shrouded, unshrouded and fir tree
shrouded, unshrouded and corrugated
impulse, reaction, and reaction-impulse
impeller, impulse and reaction-impluse
|
|
Definition
impulse, reaction and reaction-impulse |
|
|
Term
(405) On some jet engines, the turbine bucket is secured in place by
screws
cables
lockwire
lock strips |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(406) The purpose of the exhaust duct is to
swirl exhast gas-flow
equalize exhaust gas-flow
modulate exhaust gas-flow
straighten exhaust gas-flow
|
|
Definition
straighten exhaust gas-flow |
|
|
Term
(406) When trimming the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) of some jet engines, the nozzle area is changed by
mice
flaps
seals
segments
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(406) One common type of variable-area orifice used on augmenters is the
flap
segmented
segmented flap
segmented nozzle
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(406) The augmenter component that creates local turbulence and reduces gas velocity is the
spraybar
flameholder
screech liner
fuel manifold |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(407) The Hamilton Standard 54H60-91 propeller is a
3-bladed, reversible pitch propeller, 13.5 ft in diameter
3-bladed, reversible pitch propeller, 15.5 ft in diameter
4-bladed, reversible pitch propeller, 13.5 ft in diameter
4-bladed, reversible pitch propeller, 15.5 ft in diameter |
|
Definition
4-bladed, reversible pitch propeller, 13.5 ft in diameter |
|
|
Term
(407) A method of de-icing a propeller is to use
bleed air
de-icing solution
electrically heated elements
exhaust air from the H-1 heater
|
|
Definition
electrically heated elements
|
|
|
Term
(408) The type of fuel control that uses items such as thermocouples, relays, amplifiers and solenoids, to help control the engine is
pneumatic
fuel injection
hydromechanical
electrohydromechanical
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(408) Pressurization of the engine fuel system is controlled by the
N2 sensor
T2.5 Sensor
Fuel Nozzles
Pressurizing and Dump (P&D) Valve |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(408) During a visual inspection, how can you tell when a fuel filter is clogged?
a green flag pops out
fuel pressure from the fuel pump is low
a differential pressure indicator is actuated
there is no way to tell without disassembling the filter
|
|
Definition
a differential pressure indicator is actuated
|
|
|
Term
(409) Classified as to structure, which of the following is NOT a type of an oil pump?
Gear
Gerotor
Rotogear
Sliding Vane |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(409) Structurally, the most common type of oil pump in use is the
deaerator
scavenge
gerotor
gear
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(409) The valve that permits jet engine oil flow in only one direction is the
Relief
Check
Bypass
Pressurizing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(409) The oil cooler that operates on the same principle as an automotive radiator is the
air/oil
fuel/oil
water/oil
hydraulic/oil |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(409) The purpose of an oil-temperature control valve used with air/oil coolers is to
control oil poppet valve
direct oil around fuel filter
control oil exiting from cooler
direct oil around or through cooler
|
|
Definition
direct oil around or through cooler |
|
|
Term
(409) To create a static seal between two stationary parts in the oil system, use
wadding
packing
a gasket
a filler
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(410) The air turbine (impingement) starter used on jet engines
is usually mounted on the engine accessory drive
uses a starter-clutch assembly to disengage the starter from the engine
has the advantages of less weight and fewer moving parts than other starters
requires high-pressure, low-volume air flow to produce torque necessary for engine start |
|
Definition
has the advantages of less weight and fewer moving parts than other starters |
|
|
Term
(410) The unit of a jet engine alternating current (AC) ignition system that develops 20,000 volts, delivered to the igniter plugs, is the
inverter
capacitor
generator
transformer
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(410) A simple direct current (DC) ignition system consists of
vibrator, alternating current (AC) to DC converter and transformer
transformer, igniter plugs and AC-to-DC converter
vibrator, igniter plugs, and AC-to-DC converter
vibrator, igniter plugs and transformer |
|
Definition
vibrator, igniter plugs and transformer |
|
|
Term
(410) An advantage of the high-energy capcitor type jet engine ignition system is it
produces fewer sparks
has fewer components in the system
is not dependent on the aircraft electrical system
makes starting possible when the igniter plugs are fouled |
|
Definition
makes starting possible when the igniter plugs are fouled |
|
|
Term
(411) Aircraft engine indicating instruments must
be light in weight and easy to calibrate
operate on direct current (DC) and be small
be light in weight, small in size, and easy to read
operate on alternating current (AC) and be light in weight |
|
Definition
be light in weight, small in size, and easy to read |
|
|
Term
(411) Exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicators indicate the engine EGT in
British thermal utnis (BTUs) per hour
PSI
Degrees Fahrenheit
Degrees Celcius |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(411) The three benefits of the Joint Oil Analysis Program (JOAP) are improved safety, reduced maintenance cost, and.....
recycling of used oil
production of wear metals
increased equipment availability
increased length of time between oil changes
|
|
Definition
increased equipment availability |
|
|
Term
(412) You should NOT use mouth-suction to take jet engine oil samples because
this could cause paralysis or death
this could cause saliva contamination of the sample
there is a chance of dropping the tube into the oil tank
this may result in a mixture of sludge from the tank bottom
|
|
Definition
this could cause paralysis or death |
|
|
Term
(412) The most common contamination found in lubricant systems is.....
dirt and sand
grease and dirt
sand and plastic
plastic and grease
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(413) A well-designed aircraft fuel system will ensure
positive and negative fuel-flow
negative fuel-flow under all conditions
positive fuel-flow under positive conditions
positive and reliable fuel-flow under all conditions |
|
Definition
positive and reliable fuel-flow under all conditions |
|
|
Term
(413) The three types of shutoff valves used in the crossfeed fuel system are the
rotary plug, disc, and check
disc, check and sliding gate
sliding gate, rotary plug, and disc
check, sliding gate, and rotary plug |
|
Definition
sliding gate, rotary plug, and disc |
|
|
Term
(413) The basic purpose of the fuel vent system is to....
move fuel from tank to tank
pressurize the fuel for transfer
remove residual fuel from manifolds
prevent the rupture or collapse of the fuel tanks
|
|
Definition
prevent the rupture or collapse of the fuel tanks |
|
|
Term
(413) The fuel subsystem designed to MINIMIZE fuel boiling is......
vent
scavenge
crossfeed
pressurization
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(414) The minimum distance an aircraft should be parked from a hangar prior to a defueling operation is.....
50 feet
75 feet
100 feet
150 feet |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(414) The air-refueling (A/R) receptacle is operated....
hydraulically, but controlled electrically
electrically, but controlled hydraulically
electically, but controlled pneudraulically
hydraulically, but controlled pneudraulically |
|
Definition
hydraulically, but controlled electrically |
|
|
Term
(415) The output pressure and the flow ratings of a centrifugal-type fuel pump are GREATER than the system needs in order to.....
prevent fuel boiling evaporation at high altitudes
provide an ample supply of fuel in case of a single pump failure
provide fuel to the engines during negative g's or inverted flight conditions
prevent the reverse flow of fuel from a pump with a greater pressure output |
|
Definition
provide an ample supply of fuel in case of a single pump failure
|
|
|
Term
(415) The kind of centrifugal pump is used when a fuel supply is required during periods of negative gravity conditions is....
a rotary-vane
a top-mounted
a dual-impeller
an in-line ejector |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(415) What characteristic distinguishes the ejector-type fuel pump from other types of fuel pumps?
is hydraullically driven
will operate without fuel
contains no moving parts
is activated by electrical motor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(416) The arrow stamped on the body of a fuel system check valve indicates the
direction of free flow
direction of restricted flow
location of the drilled hole in valve
location of the manufacturer's data block |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(416) One disadvantage of a sliding gate fuel system is that it....
is large and heavy
cannot control a large flow of fuel
cannot withstand extreme pressures
tends to restrict fuel flow when open |
|
Definition
cannot withstand extreme pressures |
|
|
Term
(416) The fuel system component used to prevent excessive pressure from building up in trapped lines is the .....
thermal-relief valve
pressure-relief valve
one-way check valve
spring-loaded relief valve |
|
Definition
spring-loaded relief valve |
|
|
Term
(416) Another name for the disc type valve in a fuel system is.....
butterfly
swivel vane
sliding gate
swinging disc |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(416) A primary fuction of the low-level shutoff valve is to control the flow of fuel
at altitudes below 10,000 feet
while taxiing on the flight line
being added to an unpressurized tank
being transferred out of a pressurized tank |
|
Definition
being transferred out of a pressurized tank |
|
|
Term
(416) The action used by the low-level shutoff valve to prevent the reverse flow of fuel through the valve is.....
spring
venturi
check valve
hydromechanical |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(416) Malfunctions of a fuel system vent float valve can be caused by
overfilling the fuel tank
operating the valve in a "dry" tank
loose electrical connections to the valve
rough handling of the valve during installation |
|
Definition
rough handling of the valve during installation |
|
|
Term
(417) In a direct current (DC), liquid-level fuel indicating system, the wiper contact is positioned on the resistance strip by....
signals from the amplifier
the movement of a float in the tanks
voltage changes in the indicator circuit
the amount of bleed air pressure applied to the tank
|
|
Definition
the movement of a float in the tanks |
|
|
Term
(418) The primary purpose of the air pressure regulator in a fuel system is to
indicate the manifold pressure
open the vent valves during a climb or a dive
actuate a micro switch and turn the air flow light on
control the amount of pressure entering the fuel tank
|
|
Definition
control the amount of pressure entering the fuel tank |
|
|
Term
(418) Fuel system disconnect couplings are used....
only in one-way systems
only in low-pressure systems
to interrupt the flow of fuel or air and prevent the loss of fluid
to promote the free flow of fuel or air and prevent loss of fluid |
|
Definition
to interrupt the flow of fuel or air and prevent the loss of fluid |
|
|
Term
(419) All of the following aircraft systems use engine bleed air (EBA) except
anti-icing
rain removal
air-conditioning
fire extinguishing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(419) Aircraft engine temperature and pressure as it applies to the bleed air system is determined by the....
ambient pressure and ambient temperature
engine throttle setting and ambient altitude
ambient pressure and engine throttle setting
engine throttle setting and ambient temperature |
|
Definition
engine throttle setting and ambient temperature |
|
|
Term
(419) Engine bleed air (EBA) check valves are installed to.....
prevent the loss of compressed bleed air
maintain a balance airflow from each engine
provide a primary source for compressed bleed air
reduce bleed air pressure when the pressure is too high |
|
Definition
prevent the loss of compressed bleed air |
|
|
Term
(420) When installing air-conditioning ducting, the tool used to ensure alignment and sealing is the....
screwdriver
center punch
rawhide mallet
ball peen hammer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(420) When a compressible flange duct end becomes distorted, the corrective action that should be taken is to.....
replace the duct flange ends
use a gasket with the duct ends
reposition the duct for better sealing
reshape the duct flange end to its original shape |
|
Definition
reshape the duct flange end to its original shape |
|
|
Term
(420) Fiberglass fabric duct installations are prevented from swelling when the aircraft climbs to high altitudes by.....
thermal compensators
expansion bellows
puckered flaps
vent holes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(420) A depression in the duct wall, wherein the surface of the material isn't cut or removed but the depression has caused sharp bends or creases in the material, is the definition of a.....
scratch
minor dent
major dent
gouge |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(421) The air conditioning in a cargo aircraft uses a diverter valve to divert air to....
the cooling turbine
the water separator
the flight station gaspers
flight station and cargo departments |
|
Definition
flight station and cargo departments |
|
|
Term
(421) If the temperature of the bleed air from a cargo-type air conditioning system's primary heat exchanger exceeds 540 degrees F, the high limit section of the temperature anticipator will......
open the ram air valve
turn on a warning light
close the primary heat exchanger ejector valve
close the bleed air regulating and shutoff valve |
|
Definition
close the bleed air regulating and shutoff valve |
|
|
Term
(421) Bleed air system water separators remove 70 to 85 percent of the moisture that accumulates in the conditioned air. This is a result of.....
rapid expansion
regulated air flow
interal compression
regulated air pressure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(422) The action of the outflow valve in a fixed-isobaric, single-differential pressurization system is controlled by.....
a jet pump
flitering cabin air
the unrpessurized range
regulating control chamber pressure |
|
Definition
regulating control chamber pressure |
|
|
Term
(422) The purpose of the pneumatic relay in a cabin pressurization systemis to.....
control the venting of cabin pressure
control the reference chamber pressure
ensure both outflow valves operate at the same time
ensure the aneroid and diaphragm inlet ports remain open |
|
Definition
ensure both outflow valves operate at the same time |
|
|
Term
(422) The manual control valve in the variable isobaric pressurization system is used as an alternate when.....
safety valve fails
outlfow valve fails
pneumatic relay fails
cabin pressure controller fails
|
|
Definition
cabin pressure controller fails |
|
|
Term
(019) Why are aluminum allow washers used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in low-torque applications?
reduce shearing
prevent vibration
prevent corrosion
reduce shimming |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(019) What bolt is used where heavy tension or lengthwise stress MUST be sustained?
Stud
Clevis
Eyebolt
Hexhead |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(019) which bolt has a recessed head and is used in high-tension applications?
stud
eyebolt
hexhead
internal wrenching |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(019) At least how many threads MUST be showing through a self-locking nut for maximum locking effect?
One
Two
Three
Four |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(019) To use .032 gauge safety wire properly, there should be how many turns per inch?
7-12
8-10
8-12
10-13 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(019) If the manufacture's brochure is NOT available, prior to using a torque wrench, you should cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the....
lowest setting and at least four times
maximum setting and at least six times
lowest setting and at least six times
maximum setting and at least six times |
|
Definition
maximum setting and at least six times |
|
|
Term
(020) Aircraft cable size is determined by its
length
radius
diameter
circumfrence |
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Definition
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Term
(020) A 7 x 19 cable has
7 strands with 19 wires per strand
7 wires with 19 strands per wire
133 wires per strand
133 strands per wire |
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Definition
7 strands with 19 wires per strand |
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Term
(020) NORMALLY, pressure seals are constructed of
soft rubber
a phenolic mix
nonmagnetic materials
thermosetting plastic materials |
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Definition
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Term
(020) To check the engagement of a push-pull rod end, you would
use a depth gauge to check end play
ensure no lateral movement exists
use an inside caliper to check the rod end bearing
insert a piece of safety wire into the hole in the end of the terminal |
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Definition
insert a piece of safety wire into the hole in the end of the terminal |
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Term
(021) Aircraft tubing can be constructed of
aluminum-alloy and stainless-steel
aluminum-alloy and galvanized steel
stainless-steel and chromium-alloy
galvanized-steel and chromium-alloy
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Definition
aluminum-alloy and stainless-steel |
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Term
(021) Generally, low-pressure hoses are used for pressures of what pounds psi and below?
200
300
500
1000 |
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Definition
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Term
(022) What parts of a cannon plug complete the electrical circuit?
Metals shells
Connector halves
Dielectric contacts
Pin-and-socket contacts |
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Definition
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Term
(022) What can you use to tighten cannon plugs?
Fingers
Strap wrench
padded conduit pliers
all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
(023) Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is
painted
heat treated
chemically treated
exhausted or salvaged |
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Definition
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Term
(023) What is the most severe type of corrosion, because it is hard to detect without some type of nondestructive test?
Filiform
Exfoliation
Intergranular
Corrosion fatigue |
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Definition
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Term
(023) Which type of corrosion appears as corroded cracks in a metal?
Stress
Intergranular
Oxygen concentration cell
Metal ion concentration cell |
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Definition
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Term
(023) To reduce corrosion, what procedure do you follow when working on aerospace equipment?
do not mark on any metal structural component with a graphite pencil
do not degrade or scratch any surface unless it is an authorized procedure
do not use graphite as a lubricant any component located in a high- heat area
all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
(024) The OPTIMUM temperature used to cool sealants that were mixed in an automatic mixing machine is
70 degrees F
75 degrees F
80 degrees F
85 degrees F |
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Definition
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Term
(024) What ADVANTAGE is gained by using acclerators to speed up an adhesive curing process?
Application time is reduced
fewer chemicals are required
machine mixing
Air isn't required to affect a cure |
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Definition
air isn't required to affect cure |
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Term
(025) For the most part, the frequency of cleaning an aircraft exterior varies depending on the
structural design
mission of the aircraft
environmental conditions
corrosion treatments available |
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Definition
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Term
(025) What type of cleaners are NOT very effective on grease, but are EXCELLENT for lightly soiled areas, plastics, and instrument glass covers in the interior of an aircraft?
alkaline cleaners
solvent cleaners
detergent cleaners
solvent emulsion cleaners |
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Definition
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Term
(025) What solution is used to treat areas that have been affected with electrolyte from a lead-acid battery?
Boric acid
Aluminum hydroxide
sodium bicarbonate and water
potassium hydroxide and water |
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Definition
Sodium bicarbonate and water |
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Term
(025) Which statement is NOT a good lubrication tip?
heat lubricants to make them easier to apply
never apply lubricants to a corroded surface
force grease into fittings until new grease is evident
filter all oils procured in containers larger than 1-gallon size |
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Definition
heat lubricants to make them easier to apply |
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Term
(026) Under IDEAL conditions, an aircraft is operationally ready when
the aircraft forms are checked
it is released by production scheduling
all minor discrepancies are complete
the required inspection and servicng are complete |
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Definition
the required inspection and servicing are complete |
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Term
(026) Responsibility for accomplishing the -1 preflight check rests with
the aircrew
the ground crew
operations personnel
maintenance supervision |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(026) Which condition is most likely to cause aircraft damage?
tornadoes
hurricanes
sudden local storms
predicted heavy storms |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(026) What type of jack would you use to raise an aircraft strut prior to a tire change?
axle
tripod
fuselage
fixed-height |
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Definition
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|
Term
(027) The F-2 lifting bag is designed to lift
22,000 lbs to a max height of 6 feet
22,000 lbs to a max height of 8 feet
24,000 lbs to a max height of 6 feet
24,000 lbs to a max height of 8 feet |
|
Definition
24,000 lbs to a max height of 6 feet |
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|
Term
(027) during crash recovery, what method of aircraft hoisting is confined to emergencies who no other method is available?
cribbing
lifing bags
crane hoisting
aircraft jacking |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(028) Bench stock levels are established to provide a
15-day usage
30-day usage
60-day usage
90-day usage |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(028) The maintenance activities that have the option to develop and maintain quick reference lists are those with how many or more aircraft of the same mission, design and series?
3
6
9
12 |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(028) To issue an item of equipment for short specified periods, use the
AF Fm 2005
AF Fm 2413
AF Fm 1297
DD Form 1348-6 |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(028) Critical items are generally small numbers of items that cause the largest number of
mission delays
on-time take offs
NRTS conditions
NMCS conditions |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(028) Internal control of repairable itmes within maintenance is accomploished through the use of the DIFM notice and the
DD Fm 1131
AFTO Form 341
AFTO Form 350
DD form 1348-6 |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(028) What copy of the DD Form 1348-1 is retained by the individual who received an item from supply
1
2
3
4 |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(028) What form is used to report accomplishment of TCTO?
DD Form 1348-6
AFTO Form 349
AF Fm 2413
AF Form 2005 |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(028) Red margins and letters are used to allow you to easily identify the DD Form
1574 and DD Form 1574-1
15751 and DD Form 1575-1
1576 and DD form 1576-1
1577 and DD Form 1577-1 |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(028) Green margins and letters are used to allow you to easily identify the DD form
1577-2 and 1577-3
1576 and 1576-1
1574 and 1574-1
1575 and 1575-1 |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(029) To report quality deficiencies attributed to errors in the workmanship, use a Category
I DR
II DR
III DR
IV DR |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(029) Submission of a Category II deficiency report is required within how many calendar days?
10
11
12
13 |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(029) Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in workmanship for the first
100 hours of operation or 6 months from date of receipt
100 hours of operation or 1 year from date of receipt
200 hours of operation or 6 months from date of receipt
200 hours of operation or 1 year from date of receipt
|
|
Definition
100 hours of operation or 1 year from date of receipt |
|
|
Term
(030) What type of responsibility is assumed by an individual who has acquired physical possession of government property?
personal
custodial
command
supervisory |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(030) When pecuniary liability is not involved, an individual may be relieved of perperty responsibility
by report of survey
by turn-in or by transfer
only upon supervisors recommendation
only upon commanders' recommendation |
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Definition
by turn in or by transfer |
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Term
(423) Frequently used in fire warning system, the fire detector that has a high-nickel steel rod located along the centerline of a stainless steel tube assembly is called...
an Iron Fireman switch
a photoconductive cell
a FENWAL switch
a continuous cable |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(423) the maximum circuit resistance within a termocouple circuit is
5 ohms
50 ohms
500 ohms
infinity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(423) The DC voltage supplied to the lights in a photoelectric circuit is pulsed at a rate of
10Hz
100Hz
200Hz
400Hz |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(424) A liquid fire extinguishing agent douses a fire by
releasing a fine mist vapor
releasing nitrogen into the area
removing oxygen from the area
dispersing a heavy concentration of liquid |
|
Definition
removing oxygen from the area |
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Term
(424) A principal disadvantage of liquid fire extinguishing agents is they
are extremely cold
do not support combustion
are poisonous or highly toxic
require extremely heavy storage containers |
|
Definition
are poisonous or highly toxic |
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Term
(424) a steady red light on the fire emergency control handle in a liquid-agent fire exinguishing system indicates
an open fuel valve
closed air valves
an overheat
a fire |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(424) When the pressure in a T-handle liquid fire extinguisher container becomes too low,
the check valve will open
the check vlave will close
the pressure switch will open
a light on the cockpit panel will glow |
|
Definition
a light one the cockpit panel will glow |
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Term
(424) At no time shall fire extinguisher residue, such as that resulting from the use of CB type or foam type fire extinguishing materials, be allowed to remain on the equipment for a period exceeding....
2 hours
4 hours
6 hours
8 hours |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(425) Oxygen is described as being
tasteless, colorless and odorless
tasteless, volumeless and odorless
tasteless, colorless and weightless
volumeless, weigthless and colorless |
|
Definition
tasteless, colorless and odorless |
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|
Term
(425) At altitudes between 10,000 and 15,000 feet, the greatest danger from hypoxia is
a headache
a convulsion
excessive failure
an error in judgement |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(425) The disadvantage of a continous-flow oxygen regulator is it
wastes oxygen
is unusable below 10,000 feet
is usable only above 20,000 feet
delivers oxygen at varying pressures |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(425) You are operationally checking a pressure-demand oxygen regulator. When you blow into the mask with the diluter toggle set at 100% OXYGEN, you should get
no resistance
continuous flow
oxygen pressure
positive resistance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(425) an H-2 emergency assembly (bailout bottle) supplies oxygen to the user for a maximum of about
5 mintues
10 minutes
15 minutes
20 minutes |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(425) In a molecular sieve oxygen generating system (MSOGS), water droplets from the air are removed by a(n)
water separator
molecular sieve bed
MSOGS shutoff valve
MSOGS concentrator inlet filter |
|
Definition
MSOGS concentrator inlet filter |
|
|
Term
What does the molecular sieve oxygen generating system (MSOGS) concentrator supply to the OXYGEN regulator control panel:
Nitrogen
16 man-minutes of oxygen
93 percent oxygen-enriched gas
100 percent oxygen-enriched gas |
|
Definition
93 percent oxygen-enriched gas |
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Term
(426) Liquid Oxygen (LOX) converts to gaseous oxygen (GOX) at an expansion ratio of
600 to 1
680 to 1
800 to 1
860 to 1 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(426) The safety feature that protects liquid oxygen (LOX) containers from excessive pressure caused by leaks in the inner container is the
poppet valve
blowout disc
low-pressure relief valve
high-pressure relief valve |
|
Definition
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|
Term
(427) A liquid collant system (LCS) keeps electronic components cool by
cycling coolant through the electronic component
directing coolant across the electronic component
cycling conditioned air through the electronic component
directing conditioned air across the electronic component |
|
Definition
cycling coolant through the electronic component |
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Term
(427) The characteristic of the fluid used in a liquid coolant system (LCS) that makes it suitable is a coolant for electroinc components is its
viscosity
resistance
metallic content
nonconductance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(427) Air trapped in a liquid coolant system (LCS)
causes a low-pressure condition
activates the filter delta pressure switch
forces the thermal modulating valve closed
reduces the cooling cpability of the coolant |
|
Definition
reduces the cooling capability of the coolant |
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