1. who provides air, land, and sea transportation for the DOD, in both in time of peace and in time of war

a. transportation component commands

b. military sealift command

c. air mobility command

d. ustranscom

2. what publication is the guidance used to standardize the  the movement and documentation of cargo and mail in the DTS?

a. DODR 4500.32 MILSTAMP

b. DODR 4515.13 Air Transportation Eligibility

c. AMCI 24-101 Military Airlift

d. AFJMAN 24-204 Preparing Hazardous Material for Miltary Air Shipments

3. What is another name for the shipper?

a. Consignor

b. Consignee

c. ACA

d.CSB

4. who must obtain airlift clearance from point of orign, to destination for cargo moving from one theatre to another or when traversing the conus?

a. shipping activity

b. requesting activity

c. traffic management flight

d. air terminal operations flights

5. what number is assigned to each shipment for control from origin to ultimate consignee?

a. transportation control number

b.national stock number

c. manifest number

d. item number

6. what priority is assigned to indicate expedite handling?

a. TP 1-999

b. TP 1 and TP 2

c. TP 3

d. TP 4

7. What form documents each shipment in the DTS?

a. DD Form 1384

b. DD Form 1387

c. AF Form 1297

d. AMC Form 33

8. how many characters (alpha/numeric) are assigned to each shipment for controlling and its movement in the DTS?

a. fourteen

b. fifteen

c. sixteen

d. seventeen

9. mail destined for overseas is sent from what to a POE?

a. consignee

b. post office (PO)

c. port of debarkation (POD)

d. postal concentration center (PCC)

10. what is place in the project code block on the TCMD to represent registered mail?

a. 999

b. OD

c. REG

d. MOM

11. which option is a type of special cargo listed in AMCI-24-101, Vol II, Cargo and Mail?

a. rush

b. general

c. expensive

d. emergency

12. which publication, provides instructions on the procedures for preparing hazardous materials for shipment aboard military aircraft?

a. AFR 71-6, Packaging of Military

b. AFP 71-19, Logistics Packaging Management

c. DODR 4500.32, Military Standard Transportation Movement Procedures

d. AFJMAN 24-204, Preparing Hazardous Materials for Military Air Shipments

13. the military shipment label is affixed to what piece of cargo in the shipment?

a. the number one

b. the number two

c. not needed

d. each

14. the purpose of the Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) program is to provide a safe and healthful workplace for all

a. military and civilian personnel

b. military personnel only

c. civilian personnel only

d. supervisors only

15. the following agencies are responsing for ensuring that AFOSH policies are followed at your workplace except:

a. Red Cross

b. Safety Office

c. Fire Department

d. Hospital's Environmental Health Section

16. which AFOSH standard contains the requirements for practices and procedures for managing the Air Force Hazard Communication Program (AFHCP)?

a. AFOSH 127-22 Walking Surface Guarding Floor and Wall Openings and Holes, Fixed Industrial Stairs, and Portable and Fixed Ladders

b. AFOSH 127-31 Occupational Safety, PPE

c. AFOSH 127-32 Emergency Shower and Eyewash Units

d. AFOSH 161-21 Hazard Communication

17. which option is not one of the most common safety concerns of the Air Transportation Career Field?

a. lifting

b. working

c. wearing jewelry

d. protective clothing

18. what should you do to prevent hearing loss while on the flight line?

a. stay in your vehicle

b. cover your ears with your hands

c. stand back 10 feet from the noise

d. wear hearing protection at all times

19. while lifting a heavy box, you pull a muscle. what action could you have done to prevent this?

a. wear leather gloves

b. be alert, do not day dream

c. wear steel toed boots, seek help when the box is too heavy

d. practice the proper lifting techniques recommended in AFOSH std 91-66

20. while working on the loading dock, you slip and fall. what action could you have done to prevent this?

a. wear leather gloves

b. stay alert

c. observe speed limits

d. wear steel toed boots, seek help when the box is too heavy

21. cargo that needs no special consideration when you accept it into the port is called what?

a. general cargo

b. originating cargo/mail

c. special and hazardous

d. protected/pilfered cargo

22. cargo that has characteristics that require they be accounted for, secured , or handled in a manner to ensure their safeguard is called what?

a. intransit cargo

b. special and hazardous

c. misdirected shipments

d. protected/pilfered cargo

23. to accept a shipment of general cargo, what blocks must you complete on the transportation control movement document (TCMD)

a. 25 a, b, c, and d

b. 25 a, b, c, and k

c. 26 a, b, c, and d

d. 26 a, b, c, and k

24. once cargo is processed and the paperwork is completed, where do you stow the cargo?

a. flight line

b. hi line dock

c. nearest aircraft

d. bay warehouse

25. originating cargo and ordinary mail is channeled according to what?

a. priority 

b. destination

c. closest empty bay

d. destination and then priority

how do you handle hazardous materials that are improperly prepared or damaged?

a. refuse or frustrated until the discrepancies are corrected

b. wait for headquarters approval to continue shipment

c. accept the item and the receiver will file a claim later

27. who will ensure that are documentation matches correctly on hazardous materials?

a. Air Terminal Operations Flight

b. Aircraft Commander

c. Cargo in-checker

d. Special Handling

28. who is responsibile for repairing damaged mail containers?

a. nearest postal activity

b. port of embarkation (POE)

c. Airlift Clearance Actiivity (ACA)

d. Customer Service Branch (CSB)

29. The AMC Form 33, Report of Frustrated Cargo, is prepared in how many copies?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

30. When channeling registered mail, what is the first thing that you must consider?

a. System Entry time

b. registration

c. destination

d. security

31. Foreign nationals may handle what type of mail if designated and authorized in writing by the squadron commander?

a. registered mail

b. ordinary mail

c. all types of mail

d. not authorized

32. The AMC Form 214, Security Cage Log and Inventory are initiated at what time each day?

a. every shift change

b. every eight hours

c. 0001 hours local

d. 0001 hours GMT

33. What is the actual size of the 463 pallet?

a. 108X84X2 1/2 inch

b. 108X88X2 1/2 inch

c. 104X84X 2 1/2 inch

d. 104X88X 2 1/2 inch

34. What are the usable dimensions of the 463L pallet?

a. 108X84

b. 108X88

c. 104X84

d. 104X88

35. What is the pallet limit, pounds per square inch, that can be placed on most 463L pallets?

a. 200

b. 250

c. 300

d. 350

36. When properly installed, what is the maximum rated capacity of 463L net set?

a. 10,000 pounds at 10Gs

b. 10,000 pounds at 8Gs

c. 8,000 pounds at 10Gs

d. 8,000 pounds at 8Gs

37. Which action should you not follow when storing 463L pallets?

a. place 3 point dunnage between groups of 10

b. inspect pallets for missing rings

c. inspected pallets for cleanliness

d. stack pallets upside down

38. How often must each station inventory their pallets and nets?

a. at the end of each month

b. at the beggining of each month

c. every 2 weeks

d. every 8 weeks

39. What pallets are required to have DD Form 1577, series condition tag?

a. all pallets

b. only serviceable

c. only WRM and unserviceable pallets

d. only pallets on loan to another squadron

c. only WRM and unserviceable pallets

40. The most identifying characteristics of this aircraft is its capabilty to be loaded through its front and rear cargo ramps

a. C-5B

b. C-130

c. C-141B

d. KC-135

41. This aircraft is easily identified by an engine joining the vertical stabilizer and the body of the aircraft?

a. B-747

b. DC-10

c. C-141B

d. KC-135

42. What is the maximum pallets height allowed on the main cargo deck of the C-141B aircraft?

a. 70 inches

b. 76 inches

c. 96 inches

d. 99 inches

43. What is the maximum number of 463L pallets that can be loaded aboard a C-17 aircraft?

a. 6

b. 9

c. 13

d. 18

44. What is the maximum single pallet's weight for the forward front ramp of a C-5B?

a. 7,500 lbs

b. 10,000 lbs

c. 15,000 lbs

d. 20,000 lbs

45. What is used to measure the height and shape of a pallet?

a. educated guess

b. measuring stick

c. pallet template

d. pallet stick

47. Which option is not one of the most common types of scales used to weigh pallets?

a. stationary scales

b. pallet pit scales

c. portable scales

d. legal scales

48. Where is the original copy of the AMC Form 39, Pallet Invoice, placed?

a. on the pallet

b. in the reports section

c. in the records section

d. in the cargo processing section

49. How many copies of the AMC Form 39, Pallet Invoice is placed on a pallet?

a. one

b. two

 c. four

d. none

50. The pallet identifier is prepared with two copies and placed where?

a. one on the short side, one on the long side, and one on top

b. one on each short sde and one on the long side

c. one on each long side and one on the short side

d. one on each side of the pallet 

51. The maximum weight allowed on a two pallet train is determined by what?

a. aircraft roller's limitations

b. pallet's limitations

c. both a and b

d.neither a or b

52. How many pallet couplers are used for a two pallet train?

a. 2

b. 4

c. 6

d. 8

53. Which shipment would require a center of balance marking?

a. lumber 46 inches long

b. lumber 74 inches long

c. extremely heavy cargo

d. single pallet

54. Which formula is used to find the center of balance for a multi pallet train?

a.total inch pounds divided by partial weight

b. total inch pounds divided by total weight

c. total pounds divided by total weight

d. total inches divided by total pounds 

55. What is the distance in inches from the center of the front axle, to the center of the rear axle or center of tandem axles called?

a. front axle weight

b. rear axle weight

c. gross weight

d. wheel base

56. Which formula is used to find the center of gravity front end?

a. CGFA+ROH =CGFE

b. CGFA+FOH = CGFE

c. RAW +FOH=CGFE

d. WB+ROH=CGFE

57.  The MB-1 device has a rated tiedown capacity of how many pounds?

a. 5,000

b. 7,000

c. 10,000

d. 15,000

58. The MB-2 device has a rated tiedown capacity of how many pounds?

a. 5,000

b. 10,000

c. 15,000

d. 25,000

59. Which restraint criteria is used to calculate the required forward restraint?

a. 1.0 g

b. 1.5 gs

c. 2.0 gs

d. 3.0 gs

60. Which restraint criteria is used to calculate the required AFT restraint?

a. 1.0 gs

b. 1.5 gs

c. 2.0 gs

d. 3.0 gs

61. The dual rail system consist of what?

a. side rails

b. detents

c. rollers

d. all of the above

62. How many types of temporary rings are there?

a. 2

b. 4

c. 6

d. 8

63. Which entry line is not required when preparing a pre-manifest?

a. signature block

b. manifest header

c. pallet header

d. prime data

64. Prime data entries immediately follow what?

a. information block

b. signature block

c. manifest header

d. pallet header

65. When you have multiple pages of a pre-manifest, where are the totals listed?

a. on each page

b. on the front page

c. on the last page

d. no totals required of a pre-manifest

66. What is meant when we load loose cargo?

a. cargo that is live stock

b. cargo that is loose inside the aircraft

c. cargo that is placed on the aircraft to be palletized later

d. cargo that is secured to the aircraft floor, not palletized

67. When is the final manifest completed?

a. when the load is firm

b. when the load is tentative

c. when the aircraft arrives

d. when the aircraft reaches it's destination

68. How often will the manifest register be initiated and maintained?

a. every fiscal year/daily

b. every fiscal year/weekly

c. every calendar year/daily

d. every calendar year/weekly

69. Which entry is required in the manifest header when completing a final manifest?

a. remarks

b. manifest ID

c. Com code

d. type pack

70. How close can you park a vehicle at the rear of an aircraft that has its engines running?

a. 10 feet

b. 25 feet

c. 100 feet

d. 200 feet

71. Which statement is accurate concerning flight line safety?

a. yield the right away to emergency vehicles

b. turn all vehicle lights off when an aircraft is taxing

c. approach parked aircraft and follow me truck at all times for maximum visibility

72. What does a flashing red tower signal mean?

a. stop

b. red alert

c. clear to cross

d. clear runway immediately

73. How fast may you drive the warehouse tug while towing?

a. 3 mph

b. 5 mph

c. 10 mph

d. 15 mph

74. What is used at night to assist spotters with hand signals?

a. tail lights

b. flash lights

c. head lights

d. do not use spotters at night

75. Which vehicle is designed to place 463L master pallets on the hi line docks?

a. electric forklift

b. 10K forklift

c. 25K loader

d. 4K forklift

76. Which vehicle is capable of carrying a maximum of three 463L master pallets?

a. 25K loader

b. 40K loader

c. 60K loader

d. warehouse tug

77. The 60K loader has a maximum lifting height of how many inches?

a. 144

b. 150

c. 156

d. 222

78. What document s used when operators perform daily and weekly inspections on vehicles?

a. pre-manifest

b. AMC Form 68, Aerial Port Movement Log

c. AMC Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record

d. AF Form 1810, Operators Inspection Guide and Trouble Report

79. When does the vehicle control officer initiate the AF Form 1810?

a. on the first of each month

b. on the 15th of each month

c. beginning of each fiscal year

d. beginning of each calendar year

80. What form is given to individuals if you are involved in an accident in a government vehicle?

a. DD Form 518, Accident Identification Card

b. AF Form 1252, USAF Vehicle Serv-O Plate

c. SF 91, Operator's Report of Motor Vehicle Accident

d. AF Form 1810, Operator's Inspection Guide and Trouble Report

81. Of the three vehicle inspections, which one will you check the fluid levels of a forklift?

a. before

b. during

c. after

d. this is maintenance's job

82. Which inspection do you check the manual equipment on the K-loaders?

a. before

b. during

c. after

d. this is maintenance's job

83. How does ramp services determine what type of material handling equipment(MHE) is required to perform an operation?

a. AF Form 1252

b. The load pull sheet

c. the first available vehicle

d. what ever the supervisor says

84. What is the requirement for sleeper shoring?

a. vehicles with pneumatic (aif filled) tires and that have a weight of 10,000 pounds or more

b. vehicles with pneumatic tires and that have a weight of 20,000 pounds or more

c. vehicles with metal tracks and that have a weight of 10,000 pounds or more

d. vehicles with metal tracks and that have a weight of 20,000 pounds or more

85. Which section of the AMC form 109, Tiedown Equipment Checklist is used to issue/inventory each type of tiedown equipment placed aboard an aircraft?

a. section I

b. section II

c. section III

d. section IV

86. What is the  first step to selecting an aircraft load?

a. inspect the aircraft load

b. assemble aircraft load

c. obtain documentation

d. identify aircraft load

87. Which document may be used  to pull an aircraft load?

a. final manifest

b. pallet tally sheet

c. AMC Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record

d. AMC Form 272, Load Sequence Breakdown Worksheet

88. What must be checked on a K-loader before pushing pallets onto the K-loader?

a. ensure the front pallet stop is in the up position

b. ensure the rear pallet stop is in the up position

c. ensure all the pallet locks are disengaged

d. both b and c

89. Once the cargo is on the K-loader, and each pallet is locked in position, what must be done next?

a. place two 10,000 lbs chains for forward restraint on the front pallet and two 10,000 lb chains for aft restraint on the last pallet

b. place one 10,000 lb chain for forward restraiint on the fron pallet and one 10,000 lb chain for aft restrain on the last pallet

c. place one 10,000 lb chain for forward restraint on the front pallet only

d. place two 10,000 lb chains for aft restraint on the last pallet only

90. What loading aid is used on most commercial aircraft?

a. chock stand

b. stabilizer struts

c. tail support stand

d. ramp support stand

91. What loading aid is used on C-141 aircraft?

a. chock stand

b. stabilizer struts

c. tail support stand

d. ramp support stand

92. When no method of loading is feasible/practical, who should you notify?

a. the receiver

b. air terminal operations flight

c. unit safety officers/NCO of air freight

d. AMC headquarters

93. Who directs vehicle/equipment into the aircraft?

a. driver

b. passenger

c. loadmaster/spotter

d. crew member/passenger

94. What is the maximum number of transfer cases that may be transported on a single pallet?

a. 4

b. 8

c. 12

d. 24

95. Using a rubber stamp, ATOF uses what to annotate on the first page of all manifests?

a. GMT and Julian date of aircraft block time

b. GMT and Julian date of aircraft arrival time

c. GMT and Julian date of aircraft departure time

d. GMT and Julian date of when the aircraft started its mission

96. What form will AMC stations use to log in a terminating manifest?

a. AF Form 129, Tally In/Out

b. AMC form 33, Report of Frustrated Cargo

c. AMC Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record

d. AMC Form 156, Terminating Cargo/Mail Manifest Control Log

97. What is the standard weight of one side net?

a. 290 lbs

b. 90 lbs

c. 22 lbs

d. 21 lbs

98. When intransit cargo has been in checked, how is it placed in the bays?

a. SET

b. destination

c. priority and SET

d. destination, priority, and SET

99. What form is accomplished for each intransit pallet?

a. AF Form 2279, Pallet Identifier

b. DD Form 1385, Cargo Manifest

c. DD Form 1387, TCMD

d. AMC Form 33, Report of Frustrated Cargo

100. How do you annotate a short shipment on the manifest?

a. the line item is circled

b. the line item is hand written onto the manifest

c. the line item is circled and S/S is placed in the right hand margin

d. the line item is circled and short shipment is put in the right hand margin

101. Who determines if a damaged non technical shipment can be sent to its destination in its present condition?

a. CSB/ACA

b. Shift Supervisor

c. cargo in-checker

d. air freight officer/NCOIC

102. To provide faster service to the aircraft, what does Fleet Service prepackage ahead of time?

a. flight meals

b. comfort pallet kits

c. expendable items in trip kits

d. non expendable items in trip kits

103. Fleet service is responsibile for maintaining how many days of expendable supplies in stock?

a. 30

b. 60

c. 90

d. 120

104. The type and quantity of non expendable equipment to be placed on an aircraft, is determined by what?

a. type of passengers

b. number of destinations

c. type of aircraft and mission requirements

d. type of aircraft and number of passengers

105. What form does the fleet service dispatcher prepare for each aircraft serviced?

a. AMC Form 229, Inventory Sheet

b. AMC Form 249, Fleet Service Equipment Record

c. AMC Form 244, Fleet Service Arrival/Departure Worksheet

d. AMC Form 268, Passenger Service Kit Packing /Inventory List

106. What form is filled out when non-expendable equipment is placed on AMC military aircraft?

a. AMC Form 12, Fleet Service Checklist

b. AMC Form 12-1, Comfort Pallet Portable Lavatory Unit Checklist

c. AMC Form 249, Fleet Service Equipment Record

d. AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt

107. What form is filled out when a portable lavatory is loaded on an AMC military aircraft?

a. AMC Form 12 Fleet Service checklist

b. AMC Form 12-1, Comfort Pallet Portable lavatory unit checklist

c. AMC Form 249, Fleet Service Equipment Record

d. AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt

108. What is provided to fleet service from passenger service no later than 40 minutes prior to departure?

a. crew count

b. passenger count

c. tentative meal order

d. firm meal order

109. What form is used to issue non-expendable tems to non AMC aircraft?

a. AMC Form 129

b. AMC Form 12

c. AMC Form 12-1

d. AF Form 1297

110. Who prepares the AMC Form 244, Fleet Service Arrival/Departure Worksheet?

a. flight kitchen

b. ATOF dispatcher

c. fleet service shift chief

d. fleet service dispatcher

111. Which side of the AMC Form 244, will be filled out for terminating aircraft?

a. its not filled out for terminating

b. both sides

c. departure

d. arrival

112. Which vehicle is equipped with a manual hoist unit?

a. portable water truck

b. NF-2 Light Cart

c. passenger bus

d. 10K forklift

113. How many gallons of rinse water is required to flush the lavatories?

a. 10

b. 11

c. 12

d. 13

114. The waste tank of the latrine service truck may be emptied by positoning the what over the disposal drain?

a. rinse/fill hose

b. sight gauge

c. waste hose

d. pinch valve

115. Once the potable water tank is positioned to service the aircraft, place the gear shift in neutral or park, set the brake, and

a. turn the vehicle off

b. chock the front wheels

c. leave the vehicle running

d. check with the loadmaster

116. What is needed to drain the portable water tank on the Air Transportable Galley lavatory?

a. 1 gal bucket

b. 5 gal bucket

c. 10 gal bucket

d. 15 gal bucket

117. What hose on the portable water truck is used to fill the Air Transportable Galley Lavatory?

a. drain hose

b. water hose

c. waste hose

d. dispensing hose

118. The galley area of the Air Transportable Galley Lavatory is cleaned with what?

a. water

b. bug spray

c. soap and water

d. not our job to clean it

119. What is another name for the cathode ray tube?

a. tube

b. viewer

c. screen

d. monitor

120. Most computer systems have what type of memory?

a. temporary

b. internal, random access

c. internal, external

d. fixed, internal

121. What is United States Transportation Command's Global Transportation Network ultimate goal?

a. provide complete In transit Visibility

b. enable users to track their traffic by stock number

c. create a worldwide database all functional users can query

d. enable DOD agencies to make arrangements for rental cars

122. The primary function of the Global Transportation Network enables functional users to what?

a. find transportations jobs around the world

b. manage their material handling equipment(MHE)

c. Communication airlift requirements to USTRANSCOM

d. locate their traffic by TCN or SSAN, anywhere at anytime

123. Two subsystems that constitute CAPS II are what?

a. DOS, UNIX

b. GTN, CARGO

c. ADAM III, PAX

d. CARGO, SPRACS

124. The Passenger Reservation Center uses what computer system to accumulate passenger flight reservations.

a. Military Airlft Clearance Authority(MACA)

b. Transportation Working Capital Fund(TWCF)

c. Headquarters On line System for Transportation

d. Passenger Reservation and Manifesting System