1. If you are performing duties in AFSC 2T251, which title describes you best?

a. Air Trans Apprentice

b. Air Trans Journeyman

c. Traffic Management Apprentice

d. Traffic Management Journeyman

b. Air Trans Journeyman

2. If you are performing anti-hijacking inspections, which function are you performing?

a.Air Freight

b. Fleet Service

c. Ramp Operations

d. Passenger Service

d. Passenger Service

3. If you are coordinating with other work centers to ensure the loading process runs smoothly and on time, which function are you performing?

a. Fleet Service

b. Ramp Operations

c. Passenger Service

d. Air Terminal Operations Center

d. Air Terminal Operations Center

4. If you are part of the traffic management specialty in the transportation career field, which duties would you perform?

a. Ensuring maximum utilization and providing oversight to all other work center.

b. Packaging, classifying, and arranging personal property for shipment or storage

c. Managing the inspection and repair of the vehicle and equipment fleet

d. Organizing vehicle transportation to support operational missions

b. Packaging, classifying, and arranging personal property for shipment or storage

5. Which specialty does not fall under the transportation and vehicle management career field?

a. Air Transportation

b. Air Traffic Control

c. Vehicle Operations

d. Traffic Management

b. Air Traffic Control

6. Which term refers to the movement of personnel, units, supplies, and equipment from deployed positions within or between areas of responsibility?

a. Deployment

b. Sustainment

c. Employment

d. Redeployment

d. Redeployment

7. Which command provides common-user and commercial air, land, and sea transportation?

a. Air Mobility Command (AMC)

b. Military Sealift Command (MSC)

c. US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)

d. Surface Deployment and Distrbution Command (SDDC)

c. US Transportation Command(USTRANSCOM)

8. Which command is the link between Department of Defense (DOD) shippers and the commercial transportation carrier industry?

a. Air Mobility Command

b. Military Sealift Command

c. US Transportation Command

d. Surface Deployment and Distribution Command

d. Surface Deployment and Distribution Command

9. Which command is the US Transportation Command's (USTRANSCOM) single component command for air mobility and provides airlift, air refueling, special air mission, and aeromedical evacuation services?

a. Air Mobility Command

b. Mobility Airlift Command

c. Air Transportation Mobility Command

d. Air Deployment and Mobility Command

a. Air Mobility Command

10. Which agency serves as Air Mobility Commands (AMC) strategic air operations hub and plans, directs, schedules, and tracks aircraft operations worldwide?

a. Wing Operations Center (WOC)

b. Wing Airlift Control Center (WACC)

c. Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC)

d. Aerial Port Operations Center (APOC)

c. Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC)

11. Through which system does the Air Force provide rapid global mobility to the defense transportation system (DTS)?

a. Sustainment Mobility System

b. National Air Mobility System

c. Mobility Traffic Management System

d. Global Deployment and Mobility System

b. National Air Mobilty System

12. Which is a station that serves as an authorized port to process and clear aircraft and traffic for entrance into the country in which it is located?

a. Aerial Port of Inspection

b. Aerial Port of Mobility

c. Aerial Port of Debarkation

d. Aerial Port of Embarkation

c. Aerial Port of Debarkation

13. The coordinated use, synchronization, and sharing of two or more military departments logistics forces is called

a. joint forces

b. joint mission

c. joint logistics

d. joint command

c. joint logistics

14. Which type of organization is created to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and is dissolved when no longer needed?

a. Unified Force

b. Joint Task force

c. Specified force

d. Lead nation force

b. Joint Task Force

15. How many pallets can the C-17 hold in its aerial delivery system and its logistics rail system, respectively?

a. 9 and 18

b. 11 and 18

c. 18 and 9

d. 18 and 11

b. 11 and 18

16. Which aircraft can hold up to six pallets and is capable of landing on dirt strips?

a. C-5

b. C-17

c. C-130

d. KC-135

c. C-130

17. Which pallet positions on a C-130H require safety aisles?

a. 3,4 and 6 only

b. 4,5 and 8 only

c. 3 and 4 only

d. 4 and 5 only

a. 3,4 and 6 only

18. Which pallet positions on a C130J (stretch) require safety aisles?

a. 3,4 and 6 only

b. 4,5 and 8 only

c. 3 and 4 only

d. 4 and 5 only

b. 4,5 and 8 only

19. A single pallet loaded in pallet position 5 on a C-130H can be a maximum of how many pounds?

a. 4,664

b. 5,000

c. 7,500

d. 8,500

d. 8,500

20. What is the Civil Reserve Air Fleet designed to do?

a. Enable DOD to bypass Federal Aviation Adminstration rules during a President-declared emergency

b. Augment DOD's airlift capability in times of war or during a President-declared emergency

c. Reduce the costs of air transportation for personnel in temporary duty status

d. Support commercial air carries during times of economic crisis

b. Augment DOD's airlift capability in times of war or during a President-declared emergency

21. Which stage of Civil Reserve Air Fleet activation supports major regional conflicts or a major theater war?

a. Stage 1, Commited Expansion

b. Stage II, Defense Airlift Emergency

c. Stage III, National Emergency

d. Stage IV Global Expansion

b. Stage II, Defense Airlift Emergency

22. If you are wearing eyeglasses and bulky uniform items with cords and strings, what must you do before working around moving parts?

a. Secure them to minimize the hazard

b. Take them off to eliminate the hazard

c. Report them to make your supervisor aware of the hazard

d. Wear your personal protective equipment to reduce the hazard

a. Secure them to minimize the hazard

23. If you accidently damaged the Halvorsen loader by running into the concrete barriers on your way to load an aircraft, to whom should report the damage and when?

a. Your supervisor immediately

b. Your supervisor at the end of your shift

c. Your supervisor after you finish loading the aircraft

d. The aircraft loadmaster immediately upon your arrival at the aircraft

a. Your supervisor immediately

24. If you are driving a special purpose vehicle within 25 feet of an aircraft, what is the maximum miles per hour you can drive?

a. 5

b. 10

c. 15

d. 20

a. 5

25. If you are driving on the flight-line, when is it authorized to come between a taxiing aircraft and its follow-me guide?

a. never

b. Anytime, as long as there is enough room

c. Only with proper permission from the control tower

d. Only with permission from the Air Terminal Operations Center

a. Never

26. If you need to leave your vehicle unattended on the flight line, other than leaving the keys in the ignition with the vehicle unlocked, which actions are required?

a. Turn off the ignition; place it in reverse or park, set the parking brake, and chock the front and back of one rear wheel

b. Turn off the ignition; place it in nuetral with the parking brake set, and chock the front and back of both rear wheels

c. Leave the vehicle running; place it in nuetral with the parking brake set, and chock one front and one rear wheel

d. Leave the vehicle running; place it in reverse or park and chock the front and back of one front wheel.

a. Turn off the ignition; place it in reverse or park, set the parking brake, and chock the front and back of one rear wheel

27. If you are stopped on the flight line at night and your headlights are on, what should do if an ACFT is taxiing towards your area?

a. Get out of the way

b. Turn your vehicle around to face the opposite direction

c. Turn your headlights off and your emergency flashers on instead

d. Maintain a minimum distance of at least 25 feet in all directions

c. Turn your headlights off and your emergency flashers on instead

28. If you are crossing the active runway and see a flashing white light signal, what action should you take?

a. Clear the active runway

b. Return to the starting point

c. Stop! Your vehicle will not be moved

d. General warning. Excercise extreme caution

b. Return to the starting point

29. If you are crossing the active runway and see a flashing red light signal, what action should you take?

a. Clear the active runway

b. Return to the starting point

c. Stop! Your vehicle will not be moved

d. General warning. Excercise extreme caution 

a. Clear the active runway

30. If you are crossing the active runway and see a steady red lght signal, what action should you take?

a. Clear the active runway

b. Return to the starting point

c. Stop! Your vehicle will not be moved

d. General warning. Excercise extreme caution

c. Stop! Your vehicle will not be moved

31. If you are crossing the active runway and see a red and green light signal, what action should you take?

a. Clear the active runway

b. Return to the starting point

c. Stop! Your vehicle will not be moved

d. General warning. Excercise extreme caution

d. General warning. Excercise extreme caution

32. When planning and scheduling work assignments and priorities, what must you do when you discover a piece of equipment is out of commission and it will affect your ability to perform the mission?

a. Find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify your chain of command

b. Annotate the discrepancy on the shift log and verify when the equipment will be fixed

c. Check your e-mail and phone messages to see if it was fixed ahead of schedule

d. Annotate the discrepancy in the shift log and verify the date it was turned in

a. Find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify your chain of command

33. When assigning personnel to work crews, which of the following is not a consideration?

a. Knowing your people and the work center's current and future needs

b. Communicating your expectations to the work crews

c. Assigning them to the same duties every day

c. Assigning them to the same duties every day

34. Once you have assigned people to various work crews, you must ensure that they

a. do not take too much time on any one task

b. report to you every 30 min on their progress

c. know exactly who is filling which role and what you expect from each member

d. keep a running log of their activities so they can report back to you every detail

c. know exactly who is filling which role and what you expect from each member

35. Your supervisor referred you to the DTR to look up information about joint inspection procedures. After locating the DTR through the AF Portal, in which part of the DTR do you look?

a. Part I

b. Part II

c. Part III

d. Part IV

c. Part III

36. You are working in the passenger terminal helping a customer determing if he and his family are allowed to fly space-available on a DOD acft. In which publication would you look?

a. DOD 4515.13-R, Air Transportation Eligibility

b. DOD 4500.54-M, Foreign Clearance Guide

c. DTR, 4500.9-R, Defense Transportation Regulation

a. DOD 4515.13-R, Air Transportation Eligibility

37. You are searching for the publication titled Preparing Hazardous materials fo

r Military Air Shipment and are at the menu of Air Force publications where they are functionally grouped. Now you select the

a. 11-series publications link and locate the AF manual

b. 24-series publications link and locate the AF manual

c. 11-series publications link and locate the AF instruction

d. 24-series publications link and locate the AF instruction

b. 24-series publications link and locate the AF manual

38. A co-worker wants help determining if two pieces of hazardous cargo are compatible with each other. In which publication would you look?

a.Air Force Instruction (AFI) 24-101

b. Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-204(I)

c. Air Mobility Command Instruction (AMCI) 24-101

d. Air Mobility Command Pamphlet (AMCPAM) 24-204

b. Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-204(I)

39. You want to find out if the 36M2-3-45 technical order is still current. In which TO would you look?

a. General TO

b. Air Force TO catalog

c. Methods and procedures TO

d. Operations and Maintenance TO

b. Air Force TO catalog

40. You are loading tanks on a C-17 aircraft and want to find specific loading procedures for these items. Which section of the 1C-17A-9 technical order would you refer to first?

a. Section II

b. Section IV

c. Section V

d. Section VI

d. Section VI

41. In the aircraft -9 series technical orders, the loading procedures in which section have precedence over instructions in section IV?

a. Section II

b. Section III

c. Section V

d. Section VI

d. Section VI

42. Which volume of the USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) provides the basis for planning and pre-positioning of war reserve material (WRM)?

a. WMP-1

b. WMP-3

c. WMP-4

d. WMP-5

c. WMP-4

43. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) is both a process and a collection of automated computer systems used to develop?

a. joint planning and execution community (JPEC) regulations and deployment work centers

b. joint inspection standards and global Air Mobility Support Systems (GAMMS) taskings.

c. operational plans (OPLANS) and time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDDs).

d. installation deployment officers (IDOs) and air expeditionary force tempo bands.

c. operational plans (OPLANS) and time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDDs).

44. Which important part of the time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) is identified by a five-digit alphanumeric code and is simply a capability?

a. Unit type code (UTC)

b. Document identifier (DOC ID)

c. Transportation account code (TAC)

d. Transportation Control Number (TCN)

a. Unit type code (UTC)

45. War reserve materia (WRM) is equipment and other resources, authorized for wartime to maximize war-fighting capability, that are positioned as

a. daily operating stock and starter stock or a combination of both.

b.daily operating stock and swingstock or a combination of both

c.swing stock and starter stock or a combination of both

d. daily operating stock only

c. swing stock and starter stock or a combination of both

46. The benefit of pre-positioning war reserve material (WRM) is to

a. reduce the amount of time, resources, and effort it takes to transport equipment to the necessary locations during combat operations

b. provide staging bases an opportunity to freely use their WRM stocks for authorized indirect support

c. allow the installation deployment officer (IDO) to use it for installation deployment

d. facilitate installation-to-installation rotation to integrate into their daily operating stocks

a. reduce the amount of time, resources, and effort it takes to transport equipment to the necessary locations during combat operations

47. Which 463L pallets and nets are designated as war reserve material (WRM)?

a. Only 463L pallets and nets that belong to Air Mobility Command (AMC) units.

b. Only 463L pallets and nets required for the movement of other WRM assets.

c. All serviceable 463L pallets and nets in the Air Force's inventory.

d. No 463L pallets and nets are designated as WRM

b. Only 463L pallets and nets required for the movement of other WRM assets.

48. If you are tasked to manifest, transport, and load passengers, to which deployment work center would you be assigned?

a. Deployment control center (DCC)

b. Cargo deployment function (CDF)

c. Personnel deployment function (PDF)

d. Arrival/departure airfield control group (A/DACG)

c. Personnel deployment function (PDF)

49. If many passengers are departing from their own home station orthe installation is designated as an "aggregationg Aerial Port of Embarkation (APOE)," the Personnel Deployment Function (PDF) can establish what to manifest, transport, and load passengers?

a. Air Passenger Terminal (APT)

b. Installation passenger   readiness cell (IPRC)

c. Passenger deployment control center (PDCC)

d. Arrival/departure passenger control group (A/DPCG)

a. Air Passenger Terminal (APT)

50. If you, as a Cargo Deployment Function (CDF) representative, have directed the deploying unit to move from the marshalling area, to which area will they move?

a. Call forward area

b. Alert holding area

c. Frustrated cargo area

d. Ready line/loading ramp area

b. Alert holding area

51. If you, as a Cargo Deployment Function (CDF) representative, have directed the deploying unit to move from the marshalling area, to which area will they move?

a. Marshalling area

b. Call forward area

c. Frustrated cargo area

d. Ready line/loading ramp area

b. Call foward area

52. If you are performing a joint inspection (JI) in the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF), in which area of activity are you working?

a. Marshalling area

b. Call forward area

c. Alert holding area

d. Ready line/loading ramp area

b. Call forward area

53. During a joint inspection (JI), if the deploying unit cannot correct discrepancies with their cargo right away, to what area will you send the cargo until it is corrected?

a. Marshalling area

b. Alert holding area

c. Frustrated cargo area

d. Ready line/loading ramp area

c. Frustrated cargo area

54. If you are directing aircraft loading and supervising load team members in the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF), in which area of activity are you working?

a. Marshalling area

b. Call forward area

c. Alert holding area

d. Ready line/loading ramp area

d. Ready line/loading ramp area

55. If the deploying unit can no longer make changes to the cargo, in which Cargo Deployment Function (CDF) area of activity is it located?

a. Marshalling area

b. Call forward area

c. Alert holding area

d. Ready line/loading ramp area

d. Ready line/loading ramp area

56. After a joint inspection (JI) is complete, copies of the DD Form 2133, Joint Airlift Inspection Record, are distributed to all of the following except the

a. deploying unit representative

b. mobility force inspector for inclusion in the station file

c. installation deployment officer for review and approval

d. aircraft loadmaster with the cargo manifest and other documentation

c. installation deployment officer for review and approval

57. Before a deploying unit can claim their cargo is exempt from inspection due to sight-sensitivity, they must first receive approval from

a. their group or higher level commander

b. US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)

c. the service or major command having operational control of the aircraft

d. the airfield management commander or the highest ranking member of the aircrew

c. the service or major command having operational control of the aircraft

58. When completing the heading information on the DD form 2133, Joint Airlift Inspection Record, what information will you enter in block 6, "Start time"?

a. The local time the joint inspection (JI) actually started

b. The local time the JI is scheduled to start

c. The Greenwich Meantime (GMT) the JI actually started

d. The GMT the JI is scheduled to start

a. The local time the joint inspection (JI) actually started

59. During a joint inspection, after the deploying unit corrects an item previously found to have discrepancies, you will identify that on the DD Form 2133, Joint Airlift Inspection Record, by

a. erasing the X

b. circling the X

c. erasing the check mark

d. circling the check mark

b. circling the X

60. Before a vehicle can be accepted for airlift on a C-17 with 3/4 tank of fuel, the deploying unit must have

a. Chapter 3 authorization

b. Attachment 3 authorization

c. Their unit commander's authorization

d. Installation deployment officer (IDO) authorization

a. Chapter 3 authorization

61. Before a vehicle can be accepted for airlift on a KC-10 with 3/4 tank of fuel, the deploying unit must have

a. Chapter 3 authorization

b. Attachment 3 authorization

c. Headquarters Air Mobility Command (AMC) authorization

d. Vehicles on KC-10s are never allowed to carry 3/4 tank of fuel

d. Vehicles on KC-10s are never allowed to carry 3/4 tank of fuel

62. Before any Department of Transportation (DOT) 5L jerricans can be accepted for airlift, they must be

a. completely drained of fuel

b. authorized under Chapter 3

c. palletized using belly bands

d. placed in performance-oriented fiberboard boxes and strapped securely inside a vehicle

a. completely drained of fuel

63. Before a vehicle with an accompanying load can be accepted for airlift during a joint inspection (JI), its cargo must be restrained with a minimum of

a. 1/2 inch diameter rope

b. 1/2 inch diameter nylon rope

c. 1/2 inch diameter bungee cords

d. straps of any size from a commercial source

a. 1/2 inch diameter rope

64. During a joint inspection (JI), if a pallet is dirty and the dirt cannot be swept off, what must occur before the pallet can be accepted for airlift?

a. Cargo Deployment Function personnel must steam clean and or power wash it

b. The deploying unit must wrap the pallet in a plastic cover and re-palletize the cargo

c. The deploying unit must call US Customs to clean and re-inspect the pallet

d. The deploying unit must steam clean and/or power wash it

d. the deploying unit must steam clean and/or

power wash it

65. During a joint inspection (JI), before a pallet can be accepted for airlift, what must you ensure in terms of dunnage requirements?

a. There are no dunnage requirements for pallets

b. Three pieces of any size and made of the proper material accompanies each pallet

c. Two pieces, each measuring 4" X 4" X 88" and made of the proper material, accompanies each pallet

d. Three pieces, each measuring 4" X 4" X 88 and made of the proper material, accompanies each pallet

d. Three pieces, each measuring 4" X 4" X 88 and made of the proper material, accompanies each pallet

66. After a joint inspection (JI) is complete, who signs the

DD Form 2133, Joint Airlift Inspection Record?

a. The deploying unit representative and the troop commander

b.The troop commander and the aircraft loadmaster/boom operator

c.The deploying unit representative and the qualified mobility force inspector

d. The qualified mobility force inspector and the aircraft loadmaster/boom operator

c. The deploying unit representative and the troop commander

67. Which type of airdrop requires no parachute?

a.Freedrop

b. Extraction

c. Low-velocity

d. High-velocity

a. Freedrop

68. Which type of airdrop requires stabilization parachutes to hold the loads upright?

a. Freedrop

b. Low-velocity

c. High-velocity

d. Gravity method

c. High-velocity

69. Which method of airdrop begins with a 15 foot drogue parachute deploying and ends with the main cargo parachute deploying after the platform exits the aircraft?

a. Type V

b. Gravity

c. Door-load

d. Extraction

d. Extraction

70. What is the capacity of the A-7A cargo sling when three straps are used?

a. 200 pounds

b. 300 pounds

c. 400 pounds

d. 500 pounds

c. 400 pounds

71. What is the capacity of the A-22 cargo bag?

a. 200 pounds

b. 1,200 pounds

c. 2,200 pounds

d. 3,200 pounds

c. 2,200 pounds

72. What is the maximum and minimum drop weights of the Type V airdrop platform?

a. 32,000 and 1,500 pounds

b. 42,000 and 2,500 pounds

c. 52,000 and 3,500 pounds

d. 62,000 and 4,500 pounds

b. 42,000 and 2,500 pounds

73. Each ring on the Type V airdrop platform can restrain up to how many pounds?

a. 5,000

b. 7,500

c. 10,000

d. 25,000

a. 5,000

74. Which parachute will support between a 501 and 2,200 pound drop weight?

a. G-11B

b. G-12E

c. G-14

d.Extraction

b. G-12E

75. Which parachute has a drop capacity of 200-500 pounds?

a. G-11B

b. G-12E

c. G-14

d. Extraction

c. G-14

76. Which parachute can produce a drag of up to 28,000 pounds?

a. G-11B

b. G-12E

c. G-14

d. Extraction

d. Extraction

77. Which form will you use as a guide throughout the vehicl inspection process?

a. AF Form 1800, Operator's Inspection guide and Trouble Report

b. AF Form 1474, Agency Report of Motor Vehicle Data

c. AF Form 1823, Vehicle and Equipment Work Order

d. AF Form 2028, Vehicle Unit Inspection Record

a. AF Form 1800, Operator's Inspection guide and Trouble Report

78. The purpose of the  before-operation vehicle inspection is to ensure

a. the vehicle control officer is adhering to regualtions

b. no one has driven the vehicle since you last inspected it

c. the vehicle is safe and in commission before you operate it

d. all damage and malfunctions are recorded before you report it

c. the vehicle is safe and in commission before you operate it

79. Which information are you required to put in the designated shift/signature block of the AF Form 1800, Operator's Inspection Guide and Trouble Report, once you complete the inspection?

a. Full name only

b. Last name only

c. Laundry mark only

d. Last name and rank only

b. Last name only

80. Which forklift is handy when working in tight spaces because its short wheelbase allows you to make tight turns?

a. 4K

b. 10K

c. 10K AT

d. 50K

a. 4K

81. Which forklift has a maximum lifting capacity of 10,000 pounds and can lift up to 150 inches high?

a. 4K

b. 10K

c. 10K AT

d. 50K

b. 10K

82. When approaching the ramp for final positioning, what feature of the 10K forklift should you use to have smooth, positive control?

a. Inching pedal

b. Rollerized tines

c. Mast control lever

d. Highest forward gear

a. Inching pedal

83. How do you position the tines when parking a forklift?

a. Tilt the mast all the way back and lower the tines to the ground

b. Tilt the mast all the way forward and lower the tines to the ground

c.Tilt the mast so the tines are level with the ground and lower the forks flat

d. There are no requirements for positioning the tines when parking a forklift

c. Tilt the mast so the tines are level with the ground and lower the forks flat

84. Which K-loader has a deck range from 39 to 156 inches and can be used to load all aircraft except the KC-10 and the main cargo floors of the B-747 and DC-10?

a. 25K

b. 40K

c. Tunner loader

d. Halvorsen loader

a. 25K

85. Which cab controls on the tunner are used to operate the deck functions when on/offloading cargo?

a. The circuit breaker panel

b. The deck pitch control box

c. The deck and conveyor control panel

d. The primary deck control indicator light

c. The deck and conveyor control panel

86. Operating the starter continuously on the Tunner for longer than a minimum of how many seconds will cause it to overheat?

a. 20

b. 30

c. 60

d. 120

b. 30

87. After cranking the starter on the Tunner for 30 seconds without a successful start, allow the starter to cool down for how many minutes before trying again?

a. 1

b.2

c. 3

d. 4

b. 2

88. In case of an engine failure or hydraulic pump failure when driving, the Halvorsen has an electrically powered hydraulic pump with in the hydraulic system that instantly and automatically operates for how many seconds?

a. 20

b. 30

c. 45

d. 60

b. 30

89. In which part of a vehicle inspection on a bus would you  check to make sure the emergency door is operational, including the warning buzzer, and that nothing is blocking it?

a. Before operation

b. During operation

c. After operation

d. Inspecting the emergency door is not necessary

b. During operation

90. In which part of a vehicle inspection will you clean and refuel the bus, if necessary, and ensure passengers did not damage any part of the bus interior?

a. Before operation

b. During operation

c. After operation

d. Accomplishing this task is not necessary

c. After operation

91. At least how far away from an aircraft should you adjust the staircase truck stairs to the desired height before proceeding?

a. 5 feet

b. 10 feet

c. 5 meters

d. 10 meters

b. 10 feet

92. Which feature of the baggage conveyor is portable, allowing you to carry it into the belly of an aircraft, if necessary?

a. Guide rails

b. Front control

c. Conveyor belt

d. Elevating linkage

b. Front control

93. Which feature of the baggage conveyor minimizes baggage from falling off the belt?

a. Guide rails

b. Front control

c. Conveyor belt

d. Elevating linkage

a. Guide rails

94. How do you know when the waste tank on the lavatory service truck (LST) is full?

a. Open the tank and look inside

b. Look through the sight window

c. Wait until the flow meter zeroes out

d. Look at the gauge in the control panel

b. Look through the sight window

95. Which feature of the lavatory service truck (LST) measures the amount of rinse-fill solution being pumped inside of an aircraft or Air Transportable Galley/Lavatory (ATGL)?

a. Flow meter

b. Dump meter

c. Control panel

d. Waste tank sight gauge

a. Flow meter

96. Which feature on the potable water truck pump compartment must you always make sure is zeroed out before use?

a. The meter

b. Pump motor

c. Control panel

d. Waste tank sight gauge

a. The meter

97. Before operating the water pump on the potable water truck, you must ensure the tank contains at least how many gallons?

a. 20

b. 40

c. 60

d. 80

b. 40

98. What towing mistake can easily bend or break trailer tongues and render the equipment untransportable?

a. Jack-knifing

b. Stopping too gradually

c. Accelerating gradually

d. Driving too close to the edge of a dock

a. Jack-knifing

99. How fast you can tow equipment depends on what factors?

a. The type and height of the equipment and how many you are towing only

b. The type of equipment and how many you are towing only

c. How many you are towing only

d. The type of equipment only

b. The type of equipment and how many you are towing only

100. Which part of a pintle hook assembly will be used in all pintle hook towing operations?

a. Tow valve

b. Support legs

c. Safety/cotter pin

d. Integral brake system

c. Safety/cotter pin