1. A shipper is responsible for

a. planning, assembling, consolidating, and documenting a shipment; and arranging for its movement

b. ensuring a shipment is complete and removing RFID tags

c. clearing shipments and initiating TDRs as necessary

d. challenging shipments that do not meet applicable airlift requirements

a. planning, assembling, consolidating, and documenting a shipment; and arranging for its movement

2. The ATCMD is not used to

a. provide a way to process a shipment through the ACA

b. allow cargo processors to calculate critical leg ACL information

c. allow the APOE to easily and efficiently manifest the shipment

d. provide notification to the APOE that a shipment is inbound and requires further transfer

b. allow cargo processors to calculate critical leg ACL information

3. The shipper's second step and responsibility in the shipping process is to

a. determine the information necessary to complete the shipping documentation enlisting the help of the ACA

b. pack and prepare the shipment for movement,applying any required markings, labels, or RFID tags

c. use all information gathered to prepare the DD Form 1384

d. make necessary arrangements for delivery of the shipment to the transshipment point, referred to in the DTR as "making the shipment"

c. use all information gathered to prepare the DD Form 1384

4. Who is responsible for ensuring a shipment is complete and removing any RFID tags?

a. The shipper

b. The receiver

c. The transhipper

d. The CSB

b. The receiver

5. When is a shipment, other than TP-4 cargo, considered cleared by the ACA?

a. When the direct delivery vendor prepares the invoice

b. When you have scanned the bar-coded label and determined it is not in the DTS

c. When the CCP has delviered an airlift-ready pallet to the APOE

d. When the ACA has not challenged the shipment by the hour/day entered in the ATCMD date shipped field

6. What type of code represents the consignor/consignee blocks of the TCMD?

a. The air dimension code

b. The DI code

c. The air commodity and special handling code

d. The DODAAC

d. The DODAAC

7. You can use the sponsoring service code followed by five zeros for a DODAAC when

a. you cannot gain access to the DODACC website

b. you do not have a clear-text address to send the shipment

c. the consignor or consignee does not have an assigned DODAAC

d. you are in a deployed location and do not know how to query the location

c. the consignor or consignee does not have an assigned DODAAC

8. You can readily identify a unit move TCN because a zero is in what position?

a 1st

b. 3rd

c. 15th

d. Last

c. 15th

9. Which position of the TCN identifies a partial shipment?

a. 1st

b. 16th

c. 17th

d. Last

b. 16th

10. Which TP includes shipments requiring routine transportation?

a. TP-1

b. TP-2

c. TP-3

d. TP-4

c. TP-3

11. Which TP is considered "deferred air freight" and is moved as a last priority, only if there is room on a given aircraft?

a. TP-1

b. TP-2

c. TP-3

d. TP-4

d. TP-4

12. The three-position date shipped code is comprised of the

a. three-digit Julian date

b. ETA code and the last two digits of the Julian date

c. GMT hour code and the last two digits of the Julian date

d. GMT hour code and the ETA code

c. GMT hour code and the last two digits of the Julian date

13. You use the TACs to

a. identify shipments that require special recognition

b. identify the nature of the shipment and how to treat the shipment

c. link movement authority, funding approval, and accounting data for shipments

d. indicate the number of days a shipment will be in transit from the consignor to the APOE

c. link movement authority, funding approval, and accounting data for shipments

14. When receiving a shipment into the air terminal, you do not have to inspect for

a. matching documentation

b. signs of damage or pilferage

c. appropriate markings and labels

d. correct NSNs

d. correct NSNs

15. On the automated versions of the DD Form 1387, which three areas must have a bar code?

a. The pieces, weight and cube blocks

b. The TAC, the TP, and the charges blocks

c. The FMS case number, RDD, and date shipped blocks

d. The TCN, the DODAAC, and the piece number blocks

d. The TCN, the DODAAC, and the piece number blocks

16. You may use the manual version of the DD Form 1387

a. anytime; there are no restrictions

b. when the loadmaster/boom operator requests it

c. for contingency operations or where manual entry is the only way to document shipments

d. when automated label printers run out of label paper or shippers are untrained in completing the automated form

c. for contingency operations or where manual entry is the only way to document shipments

17. What is/are the source documents for completing the MSL?

a AF Form 4080

b. Shipper's Declaration for Dangerous Goods(SDDG)

c. DD Form 1384

d. SF 361 and SF 364

c. DD Form 1384

18. You place two MSLs on any item over how many cubic feet?

a. 5

b. 10

c. 15

d. 20

b. 10

19. When a shipment with a discrepancy is delivered to your air terminal, you may refuse it

a. anytime; there are no restrictions

b. when the shipper delivers the shipment

c. when an intermediate carrier delivers the shipment

d. when an AMC aircraft delivers the shipment

b. when the shipper delivers the shipment

20. You must correct a discrepancy with a shipment received at your terminal

a. always; no exceptions

b. when the shipper delivers the cargo

c. when the discrepancy is minor and you can correct it on the spot

d. when the discrepancy is major and requires significant repacking

c. when the discrepancy is minor and you can correct it on the spot

21. Which form do you use to frustrate a shipment?

a. SF Form 361

b. SF Form 364

c. AMC Form 33

d. DD Form 1387

c. AMC Form 33

22. Which agency is responsible for correcting shipments you frustrate?

a. AD/CD section

b. ATOC/Load Planning

c. CSS/records and reports section

d. CSB/ACA

d. CSB/ACA

23. Using manual procedures, when you annotate the GMT hour code and last two digits of the Julian date of arrival on the TCMD, what does is represent?

a. The block time fo the aircraft

b. The SET

c. The RDD

d. The time the shipment was frustrated

b. The SET

24. Which criteria do you use to determine which cargo to process first?

a. Split/partial shipment code, air dimension code and receipt time

b. Destination, transportation priority, and SET

c. Warehouse location, cargo size and TAC

d. Air commodity and special handling code and GMT

b. Destination, transportation priority, and SET

25. When the SET is equal for two or more shipments, you determine which shipments are processed first by using the

a. air commodity and special handling code

b. expedited handling indicators and the RDD

c. TAC, project code, and type pack code

d. split/partial shipment code, air dimension code, and DI code

b. expedited handling indicators and the RDD

26. At manual stations or when a manual manifest is used, the ATOC personnel will write which information on the inbound manifests they deliver to the cargo processign function?

a GMT and Julian date of the aircraft block time in the top left-hand corner

b. SET and Julian date of the aircraft block time in the top left hand corner

c. GMT and Julian date of the aircraft block time in the top right hand corner

d. SET and Julian date of the aircraft block time in the top right hand corner

c. GMT and Julian date of the aircraft block time in  the top right hand corner

27. When aircraft arrive without cargo manifests and ATOC personnel attempt to acquire them, you must

a. break all the pallets down and process them immediately

b. wait until you receive the manifests to start processing all the cargo

c. prepare a substitute manifest and start processing anything that requires immediate action

d. store the cargo out of the way until you receive the manifests and process other shipments instead

c. prepare a substitute manifest and start processing anything that requires immediate action

28. If after six hours, ATOC personnel are unable to acquire the manifests for an aircraft, you must

a. break each pallet down and take the appropriate information from the shipping labels

b. store the pallets out of the way until the originating station can reproduce the manifests

c. process all TP-1 and 2 cargo, but leave TP-3 and -4 cargo until you receive the manifests

d. process all TP-1 cargo with "999" expedited handling indicators, but leave all other cargo until you receive the manifests

a. break each pallet down and take the appropiate information from the shipping labels

29. A short shipment is a shipment that

a. arrived at the air terminal open, torn, or cut

b. arrived at the air terminal, but is not listed on the manifest

c. is listed on the manifest, but did not arrive at the air terminal

d. arrived at the air terminal but removed due to suspicion of pilferage

c. is listed on the manifest, but did not arrive at the air terminal

30. Which type of shipment is annotated by the circling the line item on the manifest and handwriting "S/S" on the right-hand margin next to the line item

a. Short

b. Over

c. Pilfered

d. Confiscated

a. Short

31. An over shipment is a shipment that

a. arrived at the air terminal open, torn, or cut

b. arrived at the air terminal, but is not listed on the manifest

c. is listed on the manifest, but did not arrive at the air terminal

d. arrived at the air terminal but removed due to suspicion of pilferage

b. arrived at the air terminal, but is not listed on the manifest

32. Which type of shipment must you annotate on the manifest and write "O/S" on the right hand margin next to the information you added?

a. Short shipment]

b. Over shipment

c. Pilfered shipment

d. Confiscated shipment

b. Over shipment

33. Who is responsible for initiating an immediate investigation to determine if pilferage has occurred for a shipment?

a. SF duty officer

b.TMO/air freight

c. ATOC duty officer

d. CSB.ACA

c. ATOC duty officer

34. Which cargo may be turned over to the owning unit without an authorization letter?

a. Registered mail

b. Classified cargo

c. Unit mobility cargo

d. Signature service cargo

c. Unit mobility cargo

35. You must obtain a signature from everyone who picks up terminating cargo, except

a. postal authorities, when picking up registered mail

b.aircrew members, when using a cargo manifest

c. truck drivers, who have shown their IDs at the front gate

d. TMO personnel, when under operational control of AMC and located in the same facility

d. TMO personnel, when under operatinal control of AMC and located in the same family

36. How many cargo applications do the GATES HHTs provide access to?

a. 15

b. 16

c. 17

d. 18

c. 17

37. You do not perform a soft reset when the HHT is

a. active

b.awake

c. hidden

d. suspended

d. suspended

38. An 8,000-pound piece of a cargo is built on a pallet and you are responsible for adding enough restraining to get the pallet to the aircraft. How many pounds can each ring on a 463L pallet restrain?

a. 5,000

b. 7,500

c. 10,000

d. 25,000

b. 7,500

39. You are loading an aircraft and must winch a heavy pallet into position. As a minimum, how many attaching points will you use to safely winch this pallet on the aircraft?

a. One

b. Two

c. Three

d. Winching pallets is not authorized

b. Two

40. You are deployed and a cargo user has offered several dirty cargo pallets for air transportation. Which one of the following is considered acceptable?

a. A thin film of road dust

b. Chunks of mud under a vehicle

c. No amount of dirt is acceptable

d. Dirt and sand that you can pinch with our fingers

a. A thin film of road dust

41. A cargo user has returned 60 empty 463L pallets to your unit, which you will be shipping to another location via air. How many of these pallets maximum can you ship in one stack, provided adequate damage is appropriately placed, and excluding the base support pallet?

a. 20

b. 30

c. 40

d. 50

a. 20

42. You are building a multi-pallet train using one-inch couplers. Which aircraft can this train be loaded on, assuming it is properly configured?

a. C-5

b. C-17

c. C-130

d. DC-10

d. DC-10

43. While sorting through net sets, you discover several unserviceable RFID tags still attached to the nets. What must you do with these unserviceable tags?

a. Return them to the shipper

b. Leave them on the nets for the next consignee to return

c. Return them to the Defense Logistics Agency for repair

d. Throw them away and log them on the 463L asset report

44. You are building a pallet destined for Aviano AB, Italy and only have space for one more piece of cargo on the pallet. All of the available pieces have the same destination and transportation priority. Which other two factors will you use to consider which piece to build?

a. Weight and SET

b. Movement indicator and type pack

c. Movement indicator and SET

d. Aircraft fuselage station and movement indicator

45. You must break down an originating pallet and individually weigh each piece of cargo if there is a difference of how many pounds between the documented and actual weight?

a. 100

b. 150

c. 200

d. 355

b. 150

46 What must be considered when building a multi-pallet train?

a. Immigrations clearance

b. Supply of pallet covers

c. Multi-pallets in back log

d. MHE required to handle the pallet train

d. MHE required to handle the pallet train

47. When using nets to securte multi-pallet trains, what is the maximum load on two and three pallet trains measuring 96 inches or less?

a. 20,000 lbs

b. 20,710 lbs

c. 21,000 lbs

d. 26,000 lbs

d. 26,000 lbs

48. You received several shipments in for airlift; which one will you not mark with a C/B?

a. A small piece of rolling stock weighing 500 pounds

b. A shipment of pipes that are 13 feet long

c. A three-pallet train

d. A single pallet

d. A single pallet

49. When marking the C/B on a vehicle the C/B marking must be positioned

a. near one axle on one side of the vehicle

b. above one axle on one side of the vehicle

c. near each axle on both sides of the vehicle

d. above each axle on both sides of the vehicle

d. above each axle on both sides of the vehicle

50. When preparing the AMC Form 39 for a pallet, which information belongs in the "Oldest SET" block?

a. The clear text GMT and Julian date  of the oldest piece on teh pallet

b. The TCN of the oldest piece on the pallet

c. The GMT hour/code of the first piece you placed on the pallet

d. The GMT hour/code of the oldest piece on the pallet

d. The GMT hour/code of the oldest piece on the pallet

51. Which two manual forms must both be placed on a completed 463L pallet after it is built?

a. AMC Form 39 and DD Form 2775

b. DD Form 1907 and AMC Form 39

c. DD Form 1907 and DD Form 2775

d. AMC Form 1015 and DD Form 2275

a. AMC Form 39 and DD Form 2775

52. When you attach the RFID tag to a pallet, ensure it is attached where?

a. Inside the pallet cover

b. Bottom right corner of the pallet

c. Outside of any plastic or over wrapping

d. near the highest priority piece of cargo

c. Outside of any plastic or over wrapping

53. Which best describes the role of a hazardous materials handler?

a. Inspects hazardous materials internally and externally

b. Packages hazardous materials to prepare for shipment

c. Loads or transports hazardous materials to/on and aircraft

d. Accomplishes the SDDG

c. Loads or transports hazardous materials to prepare for shipment

54. Which hazardous materials class consists of explosive materials?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

a. 1

55. Which hazardous materials class consists of flammable liquids?

a. 1

b.2

c. 3

d. 4

c. 3

56. Which hazardous materials class consists of infectious and toxic materials?

a. 4

b. 5

c. 6

d. 7

c. 6

57. Which category of hazard is considered a distinct and seperate hazardous item that is a component of a larger item and does not require a hazardous materials label?

a. Primary

b. Secondary

c. Subsidiary

d. Tertiary

b. Secondary

58. What form do shippers use to certify their hazardous materials shipments?

a. DD Form 1385

b. DD Form 1387-2

c. AMC Form 1033

d. AMC Form 1015

c. AMC Form 1033

59. Which form do inspectors use to inspect and frustrate hazardous materials shipments?

a. DD Form 1385

b. DD Form 1387-2

c. AMC Form 1033

d. AMC Form 1015

d. AMC Form 1015

60. How many fire extinguishers minimum must be available for use at any location where explosives are handled?

a. None

b. One

c. Two

d. Three

c. Two

61. In the hazardous materials compatibility tables, the letter "X" means these articles

a. must not be loaded, transported , or stored together

b. have notes you must refer to, to determine compatibility

c. have no restrictions for being loaded, transported, or stored together

d. must not be loaded, transported, or stored together unless separated by at least 88 inches in all directions

a. must not be loaded, transported, or stored together

62. In the hazardous materials compatibility tables, the letter "O" means these articles

a. must not be loaded, transported or stored together

b. have notes you must refer to, to determine compatibility

c. have no restrictions for being loaded, transported or stored together

d. must not be loaded, transported, or stored together unless separated by at least 88 inches in all directions

d. must not be loaded, transported, or stored together unless separated by at least 88 inches in all directions

63. How must hazardous materials placards be displayed at aircraft?

a. Front only and at entry points

b. Front and rear only and at entry points

c. Front, rear, both sides and at entry points

d. Cargo loading end and both sides only

c. Front, rear, both sides and at entry points

64. Which class requires a placard for any amount of hazard?

a. 1.3.

b. 1.6.

c. 2.1.

d. 2.2.

a. 1.3.

65. Which class requires a placard for 1,001 pounds or more aggregate gross weight of material?

a. 1.1.

b. 1.2.

c. 2.1.

d. 4.3.

c. 2.1.

66. When a load contains class 2.1, class 2.2, and class 3 materials that total 1,500 pounds, which placard will you use?

a. Class 2.1.

b. Class 2.2.

c. Class 3

d. DANGEROUS

d. DANGEROUS

67. What is the minimum number of fire extinguishers that a vehicle must contain while transporting explosives?

a. None

b. One

c. Two

d. Three

c. Two

68. Where on the aircraft should hazardous materials be loaded?

a. AFT of non-jettisonable cargo

b. Forward of non-jettisonable cargo

c. Anywhere, as long as it is compatible

d. On the right side only, as long as it is compatible

a. AFT of non-jettisonable cargo

69. Which form must shippers complete for security or classified shipments?

a. DD Form 1387-2

b. AMC Form 1015

c. DD Form 1497-2

d. AMC Form 1033

a. DD Form 1387-2

70. If a shipment is hazardous and requires security, which form must shippers complete?

a. DD Form 1387-2 only

b. AMC Form 1033 only

c. DD Form 1387-2 and AMC Form 1033

d. DD Form 1387-2, AMC Form 1033 and AMC Form 1015

c. DD Form 1387-2 and AMC Form 1033

71. When using manual prodecures, you will transfer custody of a shipment requireing security precautions by using the

a. AMC Form 214

b. DD Form 1907 or manual manifest

c. GATES manifest

d. AMC Form 1015

b. DD Form 1907 or manual manifest

72. How ofter will security cage cargo be inventoruied?

a. Not less than once per day

b. Not less than every other day

c. At the beginning of each day at 0001

d. At the beginning and end of each shift

d. At the beginning and end of each shift

73. What is the maximum number of HR transfer cases that can be safely transported on one 463L pallet if absolutely necessary?

a. 3

b. 4

c. 6

d.12

d. 12

74. You received a vaccine shipment that can be removed from refrigeration for short periods of time. Which form must be on the shipment to identify this requirement?

a. DD Form 1502

b. DD Form 1502-1

c. DD Form 1502-2

d. DD Form 1502-3

c. DD Form 1502-2

75. You have received three blood shipments that require refrigeration and re-icing before they are airlifted. On which form would you document the re-icing and refrigeration?

a. DD Form 1033

b. AMC Form 36

c. AMC Form 106

d. DD Form 1532-1

c. AMC Form 106

76. When receiving registered mail, the two pieces of information you must check against the manifest are the

a. register number and the TP

b. register number and the RDD

c. TCN, weight, and cube

d. TCN and register number

d. TCN and register number

77. At a minimum, seal consolidated registered mail containers with

a. packing tape and boxcar seals

b. packing tape and plastic or metal bands

c. packing tape, plastic or metal bands, and boxcar seals

d. metal or plastic bands, spray adhesive, and boxcar seals

c. packing tape, plastic or metal bands, and boxcar seals

78. You work at an air terminal without an ACA or a CSB and receive a call from a Navy customer who wants to green sheet some Navy equipment. Who will initiate green sheet action for this customer when it is necessary to meet a shipment's RDD?

a. The air freight officer

b. The squadron commander

c. The air terminal operations officer

d. The ATOC outbound controller

c. The air terminal operations officer

79. Assemblies and sub assemblies identified by the military departments that comprise or could comprise a standardized war reserve nuclear weapons as it would exist once separated/removed from its intended delivery vehicle" is the Office of Secretary of Defense definition of what type of material.

a. Nuclear Material

b. Nuclear Surety Material

c. Special Nuclear Materials

d. Nuclear Weapons Related Material

d. Nuclear Weapons Related Material

80. All personnel performing what functions are required to complete the NWRM fundamentals course?

a. Passenger Service, ATOC, and load planning

b. Special handling, freight, ramp services, and load planning

c. Special handling, freight, ramp services, ATOC, security cage, and load planning

d. Special handling, freight, ramp services, passenger service, ATOC, and load planning.

b. Special handling, freight, ramp services, and load planning

81. You use the bare tines of a forklift to load/offload an aircraft

a. if you need to for training

b.when the loadmaster authorizes it

c. when servicing "other than USAF" aircraft

d. when rollerized tines are available, but not currently attached

a. if you need to for training

82. If using a pry bar to assist with loading, how much can you load on the pry bar?

a. 250 lbs

b. 355 lbs

c. It depends on the aircraft

d. It depends on the applicable pry bar TO

c. It depends on the aircraft

83. You have received an extremely heavy piece of cargo resting only on two skids. Which formula would you use to determine its contact area?

a. Diameter2 x 0.785

b. Length x width (of each skid)

c. Length x width (of each skid) x 0.785

d. Length x width (of each skid) x the number of skids

d. Length x width (of each skid) x the number of skids

84. You are loading a heavy piece of a cargo resting only on two skids. Which formula would you use to determine its contact area?

a. Bridge shoring

b. Sleeper shoring

c. Parking shoring

d. Approach shoring

a. Bridge shoring

85. As a load team member, you are responsible for matching which information on the pallet and load plan?

a. Pieces, weight, and cube

b. Pallet ID, destination, and height

c. Pallet ID, destination, and weight

d. Tie-down information, height and weight

c. Pallet ID, destination, and weight

86. Which types of loading aids are used to pull cargo slowly into the aircraft?

a. The rollers, locks and rails

b. The cargo winch and snatch blocks

c. Load team personnel and stabilizer struts

d. The bridge plates and auxiliary  loading ramps

b. The cargo winch and snatch blocks

87. You are withing 10 feet of an aircraft. In which zone are you?

a. Clear

b. Spotter

c. Loading

d. Engine operations

b. Spotter

88. How do you secure rolling stock to a K-loader?

a. Forward and aft with straps

b. Forward and aft with chains and devices

c. Forward, aft and lateral with chains and devices

d. Forward and aft with pallet locks, stops and supplemental restraint

b. Forward and aft with chains and devices

89. Non-unitized warehouse skids or individual containers of explosives will be secured to forklifts for movement. When is the exemption for this is when

a. bumped cargo requires expeditious movement

b. movement is within the 25 feet circle of safety parameter

c. container skids/pallets have integral 360 degree tine enclosures

d. shift supervisor declares supplemental restraint to be in "relaxed" conditions

c. container skids/pallets have integral 360 degree tine enclosures

90. You are loading passengers on a C-17 in which several pallets are loaded. How many inches away must your passengers sit from the palletized cargo at a minimum?

a. 10

b. 20

c. 30

d.40

c. 30

91. You and your team are loading very heavy pallets on a C-5. Which of the following is the correct way to load the pallets?

a. Load team personnel pulling them

b. Load team personnel pushing them

c. Gravity feeding them from the K-loader

d. Pushing the pallets out of control at excessive speeds

b. Load team personnel pushing them

92. You and your team have made every effort to find a qualified driver to operate the construction equipment that you will load on the C-130. Since you cannot find anyone, your ramp supervisor must choose someone from your team. Which of the following must your supervisor choose?

a. The senior-ranking load team member

b. The most qualified load team member

c. The ramp supervisor will load the rolling stock

d. The lowest-ranking load team member who needs the training

b. The most qualified load team member

93. You are driving a truck onto a C-17 for airlift. You must remain in the truck until when?

a. Load team members initially secure the vehicle aft only

b. Load team members initially secure the vehicle forward only

c. Load team members initially secure the vehicle forward and aft

d. The driver may exit once the vehicle is in position and the driver engages the parking  brake

c. Load team members initially secure the vehicle forward and aft

94. How many 10,000-lb chains would you use to restrain of cargo weighing 6,350 lbs for the forward direction when the cargo is restrained to a pallet?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d.6

a. 2

95. Up to how many angles does tie down provide restraint for when applied properly?

a. One

b. Two

c. Three

d. Four

c. Three

96. During engine running on/offload operations, the load team positions themselves at least how far aft of C-130 and C-17 aircraft?

a. C-130: 50 feet/C-17: 25 feet

b. C-130: 25 feet/C-17: 50 feet

c. C-130: 150 feet/C-17: 50 feet

d. C-130:25 feet/C-17: 150 feet

a. C-130: 50 feet/C-17: 25 feet

97. During ERO operations, in all cases, the load team can approach the aircraft once

a. the engines shut down

b. the aircraft chocks are in place

c. the crew entrance door has opened

d. an aircrew member signals to do so

d. an aircrew member signals to do so

98. During ERO operations, when are passengers loaded on the aircraft?

a. After the ramp cargo is loaded

b. After all of the cargo is loaded

c. Before all of the cargo is loaded

d. Before the ramp cargo is loaded

d. Before the ramp cargo is loaded

99. If concurrent operations are already in progress, load team chiefs and other personnel must report to whom prior to entering the area?

a. The loadmaster

b. The ramp coordinator

c. The CSS

d. The ATOC senior controller

c. The CSS

100. Before performing any concurrent servicing operations, who is requires to ground themselves to a suitable grounding point or a bare, unpainted portion of the aircraft?

a. The load master only

b. All personnel involved in the operation

c. The loadmaster and load team chief only

d. The CSS only

b. All personnel involved in the operation