1. During an anti-hijacking inspection, when will you brief passengers that prohibited carry-on items must be placed in their check baggage or they will be confiscated?

a. During the space available roll call

b. When the passenger checks n with an agent as present

c. During the arrival briefing over the public address system

d. When the passenger arrives at the security/inspection area

2. If an authorized distingushed visitor will be going directly to the aircraft and not through the passenger terminal for travel, how will this passenger receive an anti-hjack inspection?

a. Passengers are never authorized to proceed directly to the aircraft and bypass the passenger terminal

b. The Air terminal operations center will call Security Forces personnel to conduct the inspection of the aircraft

c. Passenger service personnel will be summoned to the aircraft with a handheld magnetometer to conduct the inspection

d. The aircraft commander will provide an inspection and give the required documentation to passenger service personnel

3. During an anti-hijacking inspection, when may passengers traveling on validated troop movements carry loaded firearms?

a. After they present their weapons training card to passenger terminal personnel

b. When engaging an enemy force immediately after airdropping or landing

c. After the loadmaster has verfied the serial number from the weapon

d. When the troop commander authorizes them in writing

b. When engaging an enemy force immediately after airdropping or landing

4. Before passengers walk through the magnetometer, they must

a. show a copy of their identification (ID) card and valid travel orders

b. stand with their feet apart and their hands out to the sides

c. empty their bags onto the x-ray machine

d. empty their pockets into a small tray

d. empty their pockets into a small tray

5. When an individual activates the walk-through magnetometer twice, what action should you take?

a. Silence the walk-through magnetometer and allow them to pass through again

b. Screen them using the hand-held metal detector

c. Notify security forces personnel

d. Remove them from the flight

b. Screen them using the hand-held metal detector

6. What is the first thing you should do when operating the hand-held metal detectors to inspect passengers?

a. Instruct the passenger to assume the position

b. Identify the source of the detector's activation

c. Tell the passenger why and how you wll conduct the inspection

d. Allow the detector to warm up before scanning the passenger's back

c. Tell the passenger why and how you wll conduct the inspection

7. During an anti-hijackbacking inspection with the hand-held metal detector, you would begin by scanning a passenger's

a. head, followed by the outline of the body, the front, and then the back

b. feet, followed by the outline of the body, the back, and then the front

c. head, followed by the front and then the back 

d. feet, followed by the front and then the back

a. head, followed by the outline of the body, the front, and then the back

8. When inspecting passengers with the hand-held metal detector and it locates metal, you must have them remove the metal item,

a. and then you simply re-scan the area the item was removed from

b. show it to you and replace it, and then you simply continue scanning the entire body

c. before you re-scan the area the item was removed from, and re-accomplish a scan of the entire body

d. before you re-scan the area the item was removed from, and then have them enter the walk-through magnetometer

d. before you re-scan the area the item was removed from, and then have them enter the walk-through magnetometer

9. When you are unable to detect the source that set off the alarm on the hand-held magnetometer, passengers have the choice of

a. contacting their unit to request a character reference and authorization to travel without screening

b. waiving their right to anti-hijacking privelages using a Department of Defense (DD)

Form 2093

c. consenting to a frisk by security forces personnel or sign an anti-hijacking waiver

d. consenting to a frisk by security forces personnel or be denied boarding

c. consenting to a frisk by security forces personnel or sign an anti-hijacking waiver

10. To operate properly, what do most explosives detection devices require before you use them?

a. Calibration and a significant warm up

b. Samples from the sample traps

c. Thorough cleaning

d. Resetting

a. Calibration and a significant warm up

11. You should activate the duress alarm if

a. a passenger doesn't have the proper travel authorizations

b. you notice anything suspicious or find an undeclared weapon or other dangerous article

c. a passenger declared a weapon in his or her checked baggage before placing the bag on the x-ray machine

d. you are screening a passenger who is authorized to carry a loaded weapon and the walk-through magnetometer alarms

b. you notice anything suspicious or find an undeclared weapon or other dangerous article

12. What are the two types of customers?

a. Internal and external

b. Proximal and distant

c. verbal and nonverbal

d. Outbound and inbound

a. Internal and external

13. What is one way to communicate nonverbally to your customers that you are professional, respectful, and can be relied upon for accurate and complete information?

a. Dressing and grooming yourself appropiately

b. Choosing your words very carefully

c. Speaking slowly and loud enough

d. Enunciating your words clearly

a. Dressing and grooming yourself appropiately

14. You should check back with a customer after how may minutes when placing them on hold?

a. 30 seconds to one minute

b. Two or three minutes

c. Four to five minutes

d. Five to six minutes

b. Two or three minutes

15. The Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 253 and AMC IMT 19 are used for passengers to

a. clear customs while traveling from overseas to the Continental United States (CONUS)

b. comment on the service they received while traveling overseas

d. sign up on the space available register

b. comment on the service they received while traveling overseas

16. What is the first step in briefing passengers?

a. Ensure they have all been downloaded from the aircraft and have all their hand-carried items secure

b. Prepare yourself so you know exactly which information you need to brief them about the subject

c. Place an AMC Form 29 on their baggage and deny them access until they reach their destination

d. Open another counter to help more passengers get through the processing line

b. Prepare yourself so you know exactly which information you need to brief them about the subject

17. When briefing passengers, if they have questions and you don't know the answer, what should you do?

a. After attempting to look up the information, give your best educated guess

b. Refer them to the regulation that governs their travel

c. Provide them with the passenger terminal website

d. Seek help from your supervisor

d. Seek help from your supervisor

18. When briefing passengers on travel restrictions, documents you will ensure they possess if required include a valid photo identification (ID) card,

a. a leave form or pass, official military orders, a passport, and visas only

b. official military orders, a passport, visas, and AMC Form 30-FCG only

c. a leave form or pass, official military orders, a passport, visas, and vaccination records only

d. official military orders, a passport, visas, vaccination record, and an AMC Form 30-FCG only

c. a leave form or pass, official military orders, a passport, visas, and vaccination records only

19. When making a flight information announcement about a departing flight that has been delayed, you should update passengers every

a. 5 minutes

b. 10 minutes

c. 15 minutes

d. 20 minutes

d. 20 minutes

20. When making a roll call announcement, which information should you give passengers first?

a. Your rank, name, mission number, and destination of the flight

b. Give them operational details about a flight that may make them uncomfortable

c. Tell them to be travel ready and let them know when you change space-available categories

d. Give them a brief explanation of the roll call process to include categories and date and time of sign

a. Your rank, name, mission number, and destination of the flight

21. When checking the travel category to determine travel eligibility, one way dependents and family members are authorized to travel in space-required status is when they are

a. participating in school activities during the school year

b. traveling on temporary duty accompanied by the sponsor

c. unaccompanied on ordinary leave or traveling accompanied

d. issued official travel orders under emergency leave conditions

d. issued official travel orders under emergency leave conditions

22. When verifying transportation authorizations for space-required passengers, what information should you check against the passenger's identification (ID) card of someone who is traveling on permanent change of station (PSC) orders?

a. Name, grade, and social security number

b. Unit, major command, and unit address

c. If dependent travel is authorized and priority of travel

d. Signature of the unit commander and clear text address

a. Name, grade, and social security number

23. After determining travel eligibility for space-required passengers, to check travel clearances, you must determine if the passenger is eligible to travel to the destination by checking the required documents such as passports, visas, and immunization records for

a. tendency, ingenuity, and deftness

b. suitability, reliability, and proficiency

c. capacity, presence, creativity, and ineffectiveness

d. presence, currency, accuracy, and completeness

d. presence, currency, accuracy, and completeness

24. If active duty Air Force SSgt James Curtis is traveling with emergency status annotated on his leave form, which of the following Coninental United States (CONUS) or overseas unfunded travel  options is SSgt Curtis eligible for?

a. CONUS to Conus only

b. CONUS to overseas only

c. Overseas to overseas only

d. Overseas to CONUS only

a. CONUS to Conus only

25. During the task of determining eligibility for space-available travel, under which travel category may uniformed service members travel while on permissive temporary duty (TDY) orders for house hunting?

a. Category I

b. Category II

c. Category III

d. Category IV

c. Category III

26. A passenger can be categorized as a Blue Bark passenger when the passenger is

a. a dependent whose sponsor is missing in action or a prisoner of was

b. traveling in conjunction with the death of a family member

c. either a senior officer or senior public official

d. on board an aircraft but not on the manifest

b. traveling in conjunction with the death of a family member

27. When a passenger is too large to be safely restrained in a single aircraft seat using a single seatbelt, handle him or her as you would

a. a distinguished visitor

b. a Phoenix Raven passenger

c. a differently-abled passenger

d. an AMC mission mobility observer (MMO)

c. a differently-abled passenger

28. Which special category situation would cause a passenger to need a medical doctor's certification to be medically sound to travel?

a. An infant less than six weeks old and women who are less than six weeks postpartum

b. A Phoenix Raven passenger flying on a special mission to accompany aircrew

c. An Air Mobility Command (AMC) mobility mission observer (MMO)

d. A next of kin (NOK) or very seriously ill (VSI) passenger

a. An infant less than six weeks old and women who are less than six weeks postpartum

29. If a mission essential ground personnel (MEGP) passenger wants to travel on a specific mission that departs at 0800 Greenwich Mean Time (GMT), when is the latest time the MEGP can notify the Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) of that intention?

a. 0700 GMT

b. 0600 GMT

c. 0500 GMT

d. 0400 GMT

c. 0500 GMT

30. Before space-available passengers can be entered into the space-available register, which form must they complete?

a. DD Form 988

b. AMC Form 35

c. DD Form 1610

d. AMC Form 140

d. AMC Form 140

31. When maintaining a space-required standby listing, if there are no passengers that remain on the listing who have already been selected for missions or are no longer in need of airlift, how should you mark the listing?

a. Reprint a new register each time

b. You do not need to mark the listing

c. Line through the passenger's register entry

d. Leave them on the register until the page is full and create a new one

c. Line through the passenger's register entry

32. While updating and maintaining the space-available standby listing on 23 Apr 09, which passenger with the following date and time of sign-up will you purge from the listing?

a. 22 Feb 09/0800

b. 25 Feb 09/1600

c. 22 Mar 09/1130

d. 25 Mar 09/1552

a. 22 Feb 09/0800

33. While selecting passengers for a flight, which would you select first?

a. Space-required, priority 1 passenger with a date and time of sign-up of 1 May 09 at 0900

b. Space-required, priority 1 passenger with a date and time of sign-up of 1 May 09 at 0700

c. Space-available category I passenger with a date and date of sign u-up of 30 Apr 09 at 1100

d. Space-available category I passenger with a date and date of sign-up of 30 Apr 09 at 1130

b. Space-required, priority 1 passenger with a date and time of sign-up of 1 May 09 at 0700

34. If a space-available passenger is not present for a roll call, you should

a. remove the passenger's name and continue with the selection process

b. skip the passenger's name and continue with the selection process

c. mark the passenger as not  present on the space-available standby listing

d. pull the passenger's AMC Form 140 from the station file and call the passenger

b. skip the passenger's name and continue with the selection process

35. When preparing the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 148/2, Boarding Pass/Ticket/Receipt, how many copies will you complete and how are they distributed?

a. One copy; to the passenger

b. One copy; for passenger service records

c. Two copies; one to the passenger and one for passenger service records

d. Three copies; one to the passenger, one for passenger service records, and one for the in-flight kitchen

c. Two copies; one to the passenger and one for passenger service records

36. When preparing the Department of Defense (DD) Form 2131, Passenger Manifest, when individuals enter their name, grade, signature and date in the manifest certification blocks, they are certifying that

a. anti-hijacking measures have been conducted

b. next of kin have been identified and contacted

c. emergency point of contact information has been verified

d. all copies of the manifest have been distributed appropiately

a. anti-hijacking measures have been conducted

37. When preparing in-flight meal requests, you would offer passengers a lunch meal if the aircraft will be in the air from

a. 0900 to 1200

b. 0700 to 1015

c. 1100 to 1215

d. 0930 to 1445

d. 0930 to 1445

38. When preparing an in-flight meal request, how many meals would you offer passengers if the flight is eight hours long and covers one meal period?

a. Snacks and beverages only

b. three meals

c. two meals

d. one meal

d. one meal

39. When preparing an in-flight meal request, which factors will you use to plan the amount of snacks and beverages you will need for a given flight?

a. Actual number of passengers manifested only

b. Consumption factors from previously flown missions along the same route and the actual number of passengers manifested only

c. Monthly data the in-flight kitchen submits to the passenger terminal managers and the actual number of passengers manifested only

d. Consumption factors from previously flown missions along the same route and the monthly data the in-flight kitchen submits to the passenger terminal managers only

b. Consumption factors from previously flown missions along the same route and the actual number of passengers manifested only

40. While you are passing meal orders to the in-flight kitchen for a C-5 that departs at 1015, what is the latest time you can pass a tentative and final meal order of 61 meals?

a. 0715; 0815

b. 0820; 0930

c. 0745; 0945

d. 0925; 1000

a. 0715; 0815

41. When completing the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 162, In-flight Meal Supplemental Worksheet, from which two sources can you get the information to compute the total amount of monies collected from the passengers?

a. From the remarks section of the passengers' travel authorizations or from each of the blocks in section V of the AMC form 162

b. The meal costs from the passengers' AMC Form 148/2s or from the remarks section of the passengers' travel authorizations

c.The meal costs from the passengers' AMC Form 148/2s or from each of the blocks in section V of the AMC Form 35

d. The meal costs from the passengers' AMC Form 148/2s or from each of the blocks in section V of the AMC Form 162

d. The meal costs from the passengers' AMC Form 148/2s or from each of the blocks in section V of the AMC Form 162

42. When preparing the AMC Form 162, In-flight Meal Supplemental Worksheet, from which source document will you get the information to enter the line numbers,type of meal, and passenger costs in section V?

a. Passengers' AMC Form 148/2s

b. Passengers' AMC Form 135

c. Passengers' DD Form 1610

d. DD Form 2131

a. Passengers' AMC Form 148/2s

43. When determining head tax charges for passengers, in which of the following circumstances will you charge the tax for a passenger traveling from Mcguire Air Force Base, NJ to Ramstein Air Base, Germany?

a.Space-required passenger traveling on a military aircraft

b. Space-available passenger traveling on a military aircraft

c. Space-required passenger traveling on a commercial-contracted aircraft

d. Space-available passenger traveling on a commercial-contracted aircraft

d. Space-available passenger traveling on a commercial-contracted aircraft

44. When determining pet shipping charges, you will charge a passenger for one excess baggage piece when the combined container and pet weight

a. exceed 150 pounds

b. exceed 140 pounds

c. does not exceed 70 pounds

d. ranges between 71 and 140 pounds

c. does not exceed 70 pounds

45. What is the first step in determining pet shipping charges?

a. Accept the payment

b. determine the total pieces to charge

c. Determine the amount to charge for each piece based on the rate

d. Determine the passenger single rate for the channel being traveled

b. determine the total pieces to charge

46. What is the first step when turning in cash collections?

a. Record all cash transactions and meal charges on an AMC 148/2

b. Have your supervisor place all drawers in a safe, inside a secure area

c. balance your cash drawer by taking out all money you collected during your shift

d. Turn in four copies of the DD Form 2133 to finance and keep the last copy for the station file

c. balance your cash drawer by taking out all money you collected during your shift

47. What is the last step when giving a passenger a refund?

a. Sign the boarding pass to show that you initiated the refund

b. Clearly mark the smaller bills to give the passenger change

c. Endorse the back of the AF Form 796, Headcount Record

d. Give the passenger the money out the change fund

a. Sign the boarding pass to show that you initiated the refund

48. If you are loading passengers on a C-17 that departs at 1630, at what time should the last passenger be loaded on the aircraft to protect against mission delays?

a. 1600

b. 1615

c. 1620

d. 1625

c. 1620

49. When you are downloading passengers off of a C-5, the first passenger you would allow to deplane first would be a

a. space-available passenger traveling on ordinary leave

b. space-required passenger traveling on emergency leave

c. space-available distinguished visitor traveling on ordinary leave

d. space-required passenger traveling on permanent change of station orders

c. space-available distinguished visitor traveling on ordinary leave

50. If a passenger originating out of your station on emergency leave was manifested on the 03R1 mission (which has been delayed), how many hours do you have to move that passenger?

a. 24 hours

b. 36 hours

c. 48 hours

d. 72 hours

a. 24 hours

51. If a commercial-contracted has been delayed for aircraft maintenance issues and won't be fixed until the next day, the carrier is responsible (at no cost to the passengers) to provide

a. meals and lodging only

b. lodging, meals, and per diem only

c. meals, lodging, and transportation only

d. lodging, transportation, meals, as well as per diem

c. meals, lodging, and transportation only

52. Your are checking in baggage for a passenger traveling on emergency leave, which Air Mobility Command (AMC) baggage tag strap should you attach to that passenger's bags

a. AMC Form 20-DV

b. AMC Form 20-EL

c. AMC Form 20-OB

d. AMC Form 20 SR

b. AMC Form 20-EL

53. After you have completed your final headcount on the aircraft and discover you are missing one passenger who is listed on the manifest, what is your next step?

a. Remove that passenger's baggage form the aircraft

b. Send a runner back to the terminal to locate the passenger

c. Return to the terminal to make an announcement to locate the passenger

d. Call the downline station and have them ship the baggage back when they receive it

a. Remove that passenger's baggage form the aircraft

54. When receiving baggage from a terminating flight in the baggage claim area, if you discover two unclaimed articles 30 minutes after the last passenger has claimed his or her baggage, what is your next step?

a. Search the aircraft for the passenger who owns the baggage

b. Turn the articles over to the Traffic Management Flight (TMF)

c. Mark them with the mission number and transfer them to the lost and found section

d. Mark them with the mission number, remove all baggage tags, and secure them in a locked area

c. Mark them with the mission number and transfer them to the lost and found section

55. When pre-booked pets are accepted in soft-sided containers, what is the maximum number of pets allowed in the cabin?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 6

b. 3

56. If a passenger has just reported a mishandled bag to you but cannot provide the boarding pass or baggage claim checks, what is your next step?

a. Cross reference the passenger manifest to make sure the passenger was manifested on the flight

b. Tell the passenger to report to the baggage service center for mishandled baggage tracer action

c. Report the passenger to the security forces for making a false baggage claim report

d. Process the passenger's baggage claim without documentation

a. Cross reference the passenger manifest to make sure the passenger was manifested on the flight

57. A passenger has just reported a lost bag to you and you are preparing an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 134, Mishandled Baggage Report. In how many copies will you prepare the form and to whom does the original go?

a. 3; retain in the AMC Form 136 or forward to the Baggage Service Center (BSC) after five days

b. 2; retain in the AMC Form 136 or forward to the BSC after five days

c. 3; attach to the number one article

d. 2; attach to the number one article

a. 3; retain in the AMC Form 136 or forward to the Baggage Service Center (BSC) after five days

58. When you are preparing an Air Mobility Command (AMC ) Form 134, Mishandled Baggage Report, for a damaged bad, which of the following would represent a valid case number for a damaged bag?

a. 09-299

b. 09-501

c. D-009

d. P-009

c. D-009

59. Once you have prepared an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 136, Baggage Mishandled Report File, the documents you must include in this form before you send the file to the Baggage Service Center (BSC) are the original AMC Form 134,

a. and baggage tags only

b. and boarding pass only

c. AMC Form 70, and boarding pass

d. copies of the boarding pass, baggage tags, or flight manifest

d. copies of the boarding pass, baggage tags, or flight manifest

60. If you are at the station where a passenger reported a lost bag on 23 April 12, how much time do you have to find the lost baggage and update the remarks section on Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 134, Mishandled Baggage Report before only the Baggage Service Center (BSC) will assume responsibility for the claim?

a. 2 days

b. 3 days

c. 5 days

d. 10 days

c. 5 days

61. When you discover a found bag, what must you do before you secure the baggage?

a. Tag it with an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 20-ID with the case number on the form

b. Send it to the Baggage Service Center (BSC) for tracer action within five days of finding it

c. Present it to customs officials for clearance and reflect this action on the AMC Form 134

d. Complete a mishandled baggage letter and place it inside the bag

c. Present it to customs officials for clearance and reflect this action on the AMC Form 134

62. If a passenger has reported a pilfered bag, what must you do before you file the report?

a. Provide the passenger a list of local charitied t donate the pilfered items

b. Turn the baggage in to the property disposal office until the missing articles can be found

c. Inventory the contents of the bag and place an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 70 inside

d. Determine from the passenger if the pilfered articles are actually missing or simply misplaced

d. Determine from the passenger if the pilfered articles are actually missing or simply misplaced

63. If a bag is excessively damaged and articles from it have become lost or missing, what must you do after annotating the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 134 with the necessary statement?

a. Present it to customs officials for clearance

b. List all articles reported missing and the estimated value of each

c. Inventory the contents of the bag and place an AMC form 70 inside

d. List all articles reported missing and the estimated value of each and notify the security and law enforcement agencies

b. List all articles reported missing and the estimated value of each

64. After you have determined who the owner is for a particular item, which two forms will you use to send it to them as soon as possible?

a. AMC Form 57 and AMC Form 70

b. AMC Form 57 and DD Form 2131

c. AMC Form 70 and AMC Form 20-ID

d. AMC Form 20-ID and DD Form 2131

a. AMC Form 57 and AMC Form 70

65. If you sent a piece of RUSH baggage to Elmendorf AFB, Alaska on, 23 Apr 12 at 1400 and you have not received confirmation that they received the bag, when is the latest you should follow-up with them to receive confirmation?

a. 22 Apr 12 at 1400

b. 23 Apr 12 at 1800

c. 24 Apr 12 at 1400

d. 25 Apr 12 at 1400

d. 25 Apr 12 at 1400

66. Which item is placed on three-point dunnage, a 463L pallet dolly, or a suitable roller system in order to prevent damage?

a. Net sets

b. Portable Lavatory unit

c. Air transportable galley/lavatory

d. Electrical hotplates and insulated hot/cold jugs

c. Air transportable galley/lavatory

67. When you are tasked to load non-expendable supplies on an Air Mobility Command (AMC ) C-5, which form should you use?

a. AF IMT 4128, Fleet Service Checklist

b. AF IMT 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt

c. AFTO Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record

d. AMC Form 12-1, Air Transportable Galley/Lavatory (ATGL) Unit Checklist

a. AF IMT 4128, Fleet Service Checklist

68. If you are servicing an arriving aircraft and notice a personal item left by a passenger, what action must you take?

a. Turn it into the passenger terminal's lost and found or Security Forces

b. Turn it into the Customer Service Branch (CSB) so it can be shipped to the passenger

c. Drive the article to the passenger, who will be waiting at the baggage pick-up conveyor

d. Annotate the article in the statement block of the AF IMT 4128 and describe the action you took to recover it

a. Turn it into the passenger terminal's lost and found or Security Forces

69. When recording the various Fleet Service activities on an AMC Form 244, such as "latrine serviced by," you should include the initials of the

a. person recording the information, the Julian date, and start and complete times

b. person who serviced the latrine, the Julian date, and start and complete times

c. person who serviced the latrine and the start and complete times

d. dispatcher and the start and complete times

b. person who serviced the latrine, the Julian date, and start and complete times

70. As a Fleet Service dispatcher, after you have completed and signed an AMC Form 244, Fleet Service Arrival/Departure Worksheet, who else needs to sign it before it can be turned into records?

a. An aircrew member

b. The air terminal manager

c. A flight kitchen representative

d. The Fleet Service shift supervisor

d. The Fleet Service shift supervisor

71. Which describes the proper way to clean and service an oven?

a. wipe down the oven racks and oven interior and ensure the oven is operational

b. Remove the dirty racks, clean the oven interior, install clean racks and ensure the oven is operational

c. Take the oven racks to Fleet supply for cleaning and use a 5% sodium hypochlorite solution to wipe down the oven interior

d. Take the oven racks to the flight kitchen for cleaning and use a 5% sodium hypochlorite solution to wipe down the oven interior

b. Remove the dirty racks, clean the oven interior, install clean racks and ensure the oven is operational

72. When you are picking up clean and filled 5-gallon igloos and coffee jugs from the flight kitchen to take an aircraft, in order for them to remain clean, you must ensure the

a. igloos are wiped down with a 5% sodium hypochlorite solution

b. igloos are wiped down with spray cleaner and a soft cloth

c. spouts will be bundled in lots of five

d. spouts will be covered in plastic

d. spouts will be covered in plastic

73. What must you do before you print and sign your name on the AF IMT 3516, Food Service Inventory Transfer, when picking up meals from the flight kitchen?

a. notify the dispatcher of your start time

b. Verify you have every item listed on the form

c. Call in the meal numbers to the passenger terminal

d. Help the aircrew member stow the meals in the proper storage areas

b. Verify you have every item listed on the form

74. If a c-17 blocks out at 0800, after what timeframe would aircrew be required to pick up their own meals?

a. 0610

b. 0615

c. 0645

d. 0715

d. 0715

75. After you have delivered meals to a C-5, who will stow those meals in the galley or air transportable galley lavatory (ATGL) storage areas?

a. Aircrew members only

b. Fleet Service and maintenance personnel

c. Aircrew members and maintenance personnel

d. Fleet Service personnel and aircrew members

d. Fleet Service personnel and aircrew members

76. You are stationed at McChord AFB, WA and a flight just arrived from Kadena AB, Japan that has unused meals on board. What must you do with these meals?

a. After U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) inspection and approval, turn them into the flight kitchen using the AF IMT 3516 or AF IMT 129

b. After USDA inspection and approval, place them in two plastic bags and incinerate or sterilize them at an approved facility

c. After USDA inspection and approval, they are free to consume during one of your breaks

d. Turn them into the flight kitchen using the AF IMT 3516 or AF IMT 129

b. After USDA inspection and approval, place them in two plastic bags and incinerate or sterilize them at an approved facility

77. When servicing an aircraft with potable water, you should fill the aircraft water tank until the

a. flow meter reads 11 gallons

b. water discharges from the overflow fitting or to the requested capacity

c. flow meter zeroes out or until water discharges from the overflow fitting

d. water reaches the requested capacity or 11 gallons, which ever comes first

b. water discharges from the overflow fitting or to the requested capacity

78. When servicing the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) water tank, you should fill it with potable water until the

a. flow meter reads 11 gallons

b. gauge indicated that it is full or 39 gallons, whichever comes first

c. water discharges from the overflow fitting or to the requested capacity

d. water discharges from the overflow fitting or until water discharges from the overflow fitting

b. gauge indicated that it is full or 39 gallons, whichever comes first

79. How much water or solution do you use to rinse and fill the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) waste tank?

a. 39 liters

b. 11 liters

c. 39 gallons

d. 11 gallons

d. 11 gallons

80. When completing the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, times are recorded in

a. local time

b. Julian time

c. Eastern Standard Time (EST)

d. Greenwich Mean Time (GMT)

d. Greenwich Mean Time (GMT)

81. Before a manually completed mission's Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, is forwarded to the Records, Reports, and Analysis section, the shift supervisor will

a. use it to brief the aircrew

b. review it for accuracy and content and signs it

c. transfer all of the data into the AMC Form 68, Aerial Port Movement Log

d. file it in your personal information file for later use in your performance appraisal

b. review it for accuracy and content and signs it

82. Who is responsible for gathering, processing, and disseminating ALL information pertaining to air terminal operations?

a. Data records section

b. Squadron Commander

c. processing control function

d. Information control function

b. Squadron Commander

83. Information control ensures that documentation is distributed to respective terminal work centers and that originals are forwarded to the

a. air terminal operations center (ATOC) senior controller

b. Headquarters Air Mobility Command (HQ/AMC) A4T

c. records and reports section

d. aircraft commander

d. aircraft commander

84. When loadmasters sign the hazardous brief sheet, below their signature they must legibly print

a. their units

b. their names

c. the mission number

d. the certification statement in full

b. their names

85. When retrieving the manual inbound cargo manifest from an arriving aircraft, which format will the ramp controller use to annotate aircraft block time in the upper right-hand corner?

a. Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) and calendar date

b. Local time and calendar date

c. GMT and Julian date

d. Local time and Julian date

c. GMT and Julian date

86. Which is not a function of capability forecasting?

a. Monitor and clear explosives shipments

b. Accomplish aircraft capability schedules

c. Deliver documentation to and from the aircraft

d. Coordinate Special Assignment Airlift/Air Missions (SAAM/SAM)

c. Deliver documentation to and from the aircraft

87. What is the maximum time allowed prior to the mission's departure for aerial port of embarkation (APOE) cape forecasters to request port-to-port clearance for air shipment of explosives?

a. 12 hours

b. 24 hours

c. 36 hours

d. 48 hours

b. 24 hours

88. Intransit Visibility (ITV) provides commanders the capability to

a. connect and replicate

b. enter data into feeder systems accurately

c. interface with X-MAN, Logistics (LOGMOD), and MANPER-B systems

d. determine if a force has reached its destination and ready to perform its mission

d. determine if a force has reached its destination and ready to perform its mission

89. What hazardous materials qualification must load planners have?

a. Packer

b. Handler

c. Inspector

d. Technical specialist

c. Inspector

90. Which type of load plan are users authorized to use when they do not have Automated Air Load Planning System (AALPS)/Intergrated Computerized Deployment System (ICODES) capability?

a. DD Form 2130-xx series load plans

b. AF IMT 4080, Load/Sequence Breakdown Worksheet

c. DD Form 1387-2, Special Handling Data/Certification

d. DD Form 365-4, Weight and Balance Clearance Form F- Transport

b. AF IMT 4080, Load/Sequence Breakdown Worksheet

91. What must remain the highest priority when load planning cargo

a. Ease of offload at the downline station

b. Ease of onload at the onload station

c. Loadmaster preference

d. Safety of flight

d. Safety of flight

92. At a minimum, how many copies of each manifest must load planning produce?

a. Two

b. Four

c. Six

d. Eight

c. Six

93.  Which form would you use when you need to manually manifest cargo?

a. DD Form 1385, Cargo Manifest

b. DD Form 2130-XX series load plans

c. AF IMT 4080, Load/Sequence Breakdown Worksheet

d. Automated Air Load Planning Sytstem (AALPS) load plans

a. DD Form 1385, Cargo Manifest

94. Which form do you attach to the manual manifest when the pallet header data is listed in the body of the manifest?

a. AMC Form 39, Pallet Invoice

b. DD Form 2130-XX series load plan

c. AF IMT 4080, Load/Sequence Breakdown Worksheet

d. DD Form 1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document

a. AMC Form 39, Pallet Invoice

95. Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) personnel prepare the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 56, Rehandled Workload when

a. an ATOC representative is required to make additional trips to an aircraft during extended delays, mission reroutes, or load or aircraft swaps

b. cargo is frustrated to Air Clearance Authority/Customer Service Branch (ACA/CSB)

c. loads are returning to storage locations after the mission changes

d. cargo requires re-icing more than one time

a. an ATOC representative is required to make additional trips to an aircraft during extended delays, mission reroutes, or load or aircraft swaps

96. After reviewing Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 56, Rehandled Workload, section leadership will forward it to the

a. property disposition office for filing

b. base staging agency for inclusion in the national archives

c. Records, Reports, and Analysis section to consolidate and include in the 7107 report

d. HQ AMC for inclusion in the Revenue Traffic Data Processing Center (RTDPC) files

c. Records, Reports, and Analysis section to consolidate and include in the 7107 report

97. If a shipper has called looking for a shipment when your computers are down, how will you locate the shipment

a. Conduct a physical search of the warehouse and cargo yard

b. Tell the shipper to call back when the computers come back up

c. Call the receiver and ask if he or she has recevied the shipment

d. Fill out a Standard Form (SF) 361, Transportation Discrepancy Report (TDR)

a. Conduct a physical search of the warehouse and cargo yard

98. When conducting tracer action in the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES), which shipment information will enter into the system to track the cargo?

a. Project code or document identifier code (DIC)

b. Transportation control number (TCN) or pallet ID

c. Customer identification code (CIC) or accounting code

d. Transportation account code (TAC) or manifest register number

b. Transportation control number (TCN) or pallet ID

99. How long do you maintain transportation documentation that pertains to military originating, terminating, and intransit airlift?

a. One current year plus one inactive fiscal year as permanent at the base staging area

b. Two current years plus one inactive fiscal year as permanent at the base staging area

c. One current year plus one inactive calendar year as permanent at the base staging area

d. Two current years plus one inactive calendar year as permanent at the base staging area

a. One current year plus one inactive fiscal year as permanent at the base staging area

100. When maintaining transportation documentation, a consolidated file package (CFP) is filed

a. calendar date beginning with the start of the calendar year

b. Julian date beginning with the start of the calendar year

c. calendar date beginning with the start of the fiscal year

d. Julian date beginning with the start of the fiscal year

d. Julian date beginning with the start of the fiscal year