Which of the following security programs is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities?

(a) OPSEC

When was the first Air Force OPSEC program introduced?

(c) 1966

In what year was the present OPSEC program we use today established?

(c) 1970

In which of the following OPSEC steps would you inform the AFOSI of potential adversaries and their associated capabilities, limitations and intentions to collect, analyze, and use critical information?

(b) Threat assessment

In which of the following OPSEC steps would program managers and coordinators recommend actions to senior decision-makers and commanders?

(a) Risk assessment

Which of the following OPSEC steps would dynamic situations require you to reaccomplish preventative actions?

(c) Apply OPSEC measures

Specific facts about friendly activities, intentions, capabilities or limitations vitally needed by adversaries for them to plan and act effectively to guarantee failure or unacceptable consequences for friendly mission accomplisment best describe

(b) critical information

In which OPSEC indicator would abrupt changes or cancellations of schedules fall under?

(a) Operational

Special briefings, meetings, or religious services would fall under which OPSEC indicator?

(b) Administrative

Deviating from normal procedures would fall under which OPSEC indicator?

(d) Logistic and maintenance support

Data aggregation is defined as the

(c) collection of loosely associated data and/or information

What are among the most problemic OPSEC vulnerabilities in the Air Force today?

(b) Telephones and cell phones

The reason information is collected best describes which mandatory item of a Privacy Act Statement?

(a) Purpose

What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material?

(c) AF Form 3227

Guidance for posting information on AF web sites is outlined in

(b) AFI 33-129

Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information can be found in

(c) AFI 31-501

Disclosure of information that would result in the loss, misuse, unauthorized access, or modifications that might adversely affect national security would best be described as

(d) sensitive but unclassified

Which document provides guidance on the Information Security Program Management?

(b) AFI 31-401

What specific restrictions can a designated approving authority (DAA) impose on classified systems or networks?

(c) Prohibit the use of goverment owned removable storage media

Before obtaining access to classified material, which document must be signed as a prerequisite?

(c) Standard Form 312

What form is annotated at the end-of-day security check to ensure classified material is stored appropriately?

(b) Standard Form 701

What is the COMSEC program designed to do?

(d) Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information

What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging?

(a) AFI 33-119

Where would you find guidance on how to properly store, control, safeguard, transfer, and destroy COMSEC material?

(a) AFI 31-201, Volume 1

Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package?

(b) SF 153

Which form is used as a visitor registor log to record visitors into a restricted areas?

(b) AF Form 1109

An investigated or evaluated incident that has been determined as jeopardizing the security of COMSEC material is best described as a COMSEC

(a) insecurity

An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of goverment information is best described as a COMSEC

(c) incident

What are the three types of COMSEC incidents?

(b) Physical, personnel, and cryptographic

Which organization assignes COMSEC incident report case numbers?

(a) Air Force Communications Agency

Final reports of a COMSEC incident are due

(c) 30 days after the initial report is issued

The Air Force Information Assuance (IA) Awareness Program is detailed in

(c) AFI 33-204

Which security program applies discipline measures and controls to protect data computer system data against unauthoized, disclosure, modification, or destruction?

(d) COMPUSEC

What computer software is designed to collect personal information such as passwords and financial details without the users consent?

(a) Spyware

What best describes and unintended signal or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment?

(b) Emanation

An unclassified term referring to technical investigations for compromising emanations from an electrically operated data processing equipment is known as

(c) TEMPEST

Which condition exists when there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer networks?

(d) INFOCON 5

Which condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system activities when an increased risk of attack is present?

(c) INFOCON 4

When a risk of a network system attack has been identified, which condition requires all unclassified dial-up connections be disconnected?

(b) INFOCON 3

Which condition permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication?

(a) INFOCON 2

Which of the following provides the guidance necessary to manage the increasingly complex network environment and customers high quality service?

(b) AFI 33-115, Volume 2 (Vol. 1 in the text)

At which NETOPS level is responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure globally managed?

(a) Tier 1

At which NETOPS level are networks managed at the local level?

(c) Tier 3

An accreditation decision which allows a system to operate in an environment for which it was originally intended is known as

(a) a full accreditation

An accreditation descision which permits an information system to operate until specific identified steps can be completed is known as

(d) an interim accreditation

Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires the greatest possible deterrence against hostile acts?

(a) A

Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts?

(b) B

Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts?

(c) C

Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing "top secret" information?

(a) SF 706

Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing "secret" information?

(b) SF 707

Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing "unclassified" information?

(d) SF 710

Personnel conducting end-of-day security checks will make sure classified material is stored appropriately at the close of each working day and record them on

(b) Standard Form 701

The top secret control officer (TSCO) uses which form for the purpose of a "top secret cover sheet and access" disclosure of record?

(b) AF Form 144

How does the Air Force organize, train, equip, and sustain, the best air and space force

(a) by using the AEF concept

Which of the following is defined as the legal authoriity exercised over subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment?

(b) Command

Which best describes the definition of a unit type code (UTC)?

(d) It is the basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of AEFs

Deployment execution and unit personnel preparation are responsibilities most often delegated to the

(d) UDM

Which of the following do commanders use to report the ability of a standard UTC to perform its mission capability (MISCAP) statement worldwide and to identify its capability through the next AEF bucket?

(a) ART

Which of the following is the Air Force computer system used for UTC package management?

(d) MEFPAK

Which of the following is a DOD directed integrated joint command and control (C2) system used for conventional and theater-level nuclear operation planning and execution?

(a) JOPES

Which database is used for the purpose of coordinating the movement of joint forces into their operational locations?

(b) TPFDD

Which of the following is used to collect and store the data of material requirements and logistics details for UTCs?

(b) LOGFOR

Which characteristics should proposed theater deployable communications (TDC) equipment strive to have?

(d) Open system standards, interoperability, and suvivability

TDC is composed of which three major components?

(b) Ground satellite terminals, ICAP, NCC-D

Which is a suite of modules and accessory kits that serve as the backbone for deployed communication networks?

(a) ICAP

Which AOC area support team provides staff support to the Chief of AOC systems?

(c) Communications focal point

Which area support team makes sure servers, workstations, peripherals, communications devices, and software programs are on-line and available to network users?

(d) Command and control systems

What DOD agencies refine tactics, techniques, procedures, and measuring concepts for inusion into current and next generation operations systems?

(a) Future combat systems

Which of the following has the primary function of coodinating and directing immediate requests of tactical close air support to land forces?

(d) Air support operations squadrons

Who has the mission to provide fast reaction to immediate requests from land forces for close air support?

(c) Air support operations center

Which airborne platform collects real-time positioning and tracking data on the location of friendly and enemy aircraft and naval vessels in the AOR?

(a) E-3 Sentry

Which is the primary system used for analyzing dynamic intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance data of rapid post-mission?

(d) Ground data processing stations

Which is a development program focused on providing exploitable surveillance and reconnaissance digital imagery to the war fighter in near real-time?

(c) High altitude endurance

Name two forces relating to spectrum concepts.

(d) Gravitational and electromagnetic

Radio waves travel through free space at the speed of light and can be

(d) reflected, refracted, or diffracted

Waves that travel through the air in a straight line (line-of-sight) from one transmitting antenna to a receiving antenna are known as

(b) direct waves

Which wave transmission is very effective for long-distance communications in the high-frequency range (3-30 MHz)

(a) sky waves

Which are used as the main propogation modes of transmissions for direct and ground reflected waves?

(c) VHF/UHF

Which are used as the primary transmission of direct radio waves?

(b) EHF/SHF

One of the disadvantages of line-of-sight primary mode of radio tranmission is that relay stations are required

(c) when distance exceeds 30 to 40 miles

Which frequency range is used for UHF band designation?

(d) 300 to 3,000 MHz

Which frequency range is used for SHF band designation?

(a) 3 to 30 GHz

Which frequency range is used for EHF band designation?

(c) 30 to 300 GHz