Shared Flashcard Set

Details

3D151 CDC's Volume 1
Computer and Network System Fundamentals
100
Other
Professional
11/06/2013

Additional Other Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term

What entails how we communicate and manage data?

a. Information systems.
b. Satellite systems.
c. Airfield systems.
d. Power systems.
Definition
a. Information systems.
b. Satellite systems.
c. Airfield systems.
d. Power systems.
Term

What part of client systems includes the physical aspect of computers, telecommunications,

and other devices, to include the interconnect devices?

a. Programs.
b. Processes.
c. Hardware.
d. Paperwork.
Definition

a. Programs.

b. Processes.

c. Hardware.

d. Paperwork.

Term

What devices are mostly small, lightweight, and designed for mobile use?

a. Software.
b. Hardware.
c. Computers.
d. Handhelds.
Definition
a. Software.
b. Hardware.
c. Computers.
d. Handhelds.
Term

Any hardware added to a computer that expands its capabilities is referred to as a/an

a. port.
b. peripheral.
c. interface.
d. I/O device.
Definition
a. port.
b. peripheral.
c. interface.
d. I/O device.
Term

Which of the following is not one of the three types of interfaces?

a. Graphical.
b. Hardware.
c. Software.
d. User.
Definition
a. Graphical.
b. Hardware.
c. Software.
d. User.
Term

The transfer of eight bits of data simultaneously through eight separate lines in a single cable

a. serial port.

b. parallel port.

c. switching port.

d. universal serial bus port.

Definition

a. serial port.

b. parallel port.

c. switching port.

d. universal serial bus port.

Term

What program translates commands between a device and the programs that use the device?

a. Operating system.

b. Memory.

c. Driver.

d. Port.

Definition

a. Operating system.

b. Memory.

c. Driver.

d. Port.

Term

The term used to refer to the process of launching the OS is the

a. boot.

b. random access memory.

c. Basic Input/Output System.

d. Complimentary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor

Definition

a. boot.

b. random access memory.

c. Basic Input/Output System.

d. Complimentary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor

Term

What program sets up the divisions of memory that hold the operating system, user

information and applications?

a. The Memory.

b. The bootstrap loader.

c. BIOS.

d. CMOS.

Definition

a. The Memory.

b. The bootstrap loader.

c. BIOS.

d. CMOS.

Term

What describes how a computer finds a specific byte it is looking for in memory?

a. Processing.

b. Programming.

c. Memory addressing.

d. Memory segmenting

Definition

a. Processing.

b. Programming.

c. Memory addressing.

d. Memory segmenting

Term

How many bits long are the addresses that computer instructions work with?

a. 8.

b. 16.

c. 24.

d. 32.

Definition

a. 8.

b. 16.

c. 24.

d. 32.

Term

Which type of memory stores configuration information, and is used by the BIOS during

system boot up?

a. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor memory.

b. Programmable read only memory.

c. Random access memory.

d. Read only memory.

Definition

a. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor memory.

b. Programmable read only memory.

c. Random access memory.

d. Read only memory.

Term

What type of memory is nonvolatile, considered permanent, and is also called firmware in

reference to the data and instructions stored?

a. RAM.

b. ROM.

c. Cache.

d. CMOS.

Definition

a. RAM.

b. ROM.

c. Cache.

d. CMOS.

Term

This type of memory is blank and instructions can be placed on permanently.

a. ROM.
b. RAM.
c. CMOS.
d. PROM.
Definition
a. ROM.
b. RAM.
c. CMOS.
d. PROM.
Term

Which type of memory is used to duplicate frequently used information stored elsewhere or

computed earlier, because the original data is time consuming to retrieve or to compute?

a. RAM.

b. ROM.

c. Buffer.

d. Cache.

Definition

a. RAM.

b. ROM.

c. Buffer.

d. Cache.

Term

Which term describes that data is whole or complete?

a. Driver.

b. Parity bit.

c. Data integrity.

d. Error correction

Definition

a. Driver.

b. Parity bit.

c. Data integrity.

d. Error correction

Term

Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?

a. Parity bit.

b. Interrupt.

c. Data integrity.

d. Asynchronous.

Definition

a. Parity bit.

b. Interrupt.

c. Data integrity.

d. Asynchronous.

Term

What data integrity method is used in high-end personal computers and file servers?

a. Parity.

b. Polling.

c. Nonparity.

d. Error correction code memory

Definition

a. Parity.

b. Polling.

c. Nonparity.

d. Error correction code memory

Term

Reading and storing a document on a hard disk or some other storage medium for

processing at a more convenient time is called

a. a driver.
b. spooling.
c. an interrupt.
d. a print queue
Definition
a. a driver.
b. spooling.
c. an interrupt.
d. a print queue
Term

A spooled print job be several times larger than the printed document size because of the

conversion to the

a. printer’s language.

b. driver’s language.

c. processor’s language.

d. print server’s language

Definition

a. printer’s language.

b. driver’s language.

c. processor’s language.

d. print server’s language

Term

 static internet protocol address on a network printer during hardware configuration is

used for

a. print job queuing.

b. print job locating.

c. print job spooling.

d. operating system configuration.

Definition

a. print job queuing.

b. print job locating.

c. print job spooling.

d. operating system configuration.

Term

Printer hardware configuration via the web is done through

a. hypertext transfer protocol.

b. printer front panel controls.

c. Hewlett Packard Jetadmin.

d. telnet.

Definition

a. hypertext transfer protocol.

b. printer front panel controls.

c. Hewlett Packard Jetadmin.

d. telnet.

Term

What type of printer software configuration option requires a new port to be created?

a. Telnet.

b. Local printer.

c. Driver printing.

d. TCP/IP printing

Definition

a. Telnet.

b. Local printer.

c. Driver printing.

d. TCP/IP printing

Term

Which of these is not a prominent characteristic of an operating system?

a. The operational environment.

b. The way it processes.

c. The user interface.

d. Multitasking.

Definition

a. The operational environment.

b. The way it processes.

c. The user interface.

d. Multitasking.

Term

Which of the below is not a type of computer user interface?

a. Application driven interface.

b. Command driven interface.

c. Graphical user interface.

d. Menu driven interface.

Definition

a. Application driven interface.

b. Command driven interface.

c. Graphical user interface.

d. Menu driven interface.

Term

Which hardware requirement is defined as the model and the clock speed of the CPU?

a. Memory.

b. Peripherals.

c. Architecture.

d. Processing power.

Definition

a. Memory.

b. Peripherals.

c. Architecture.

d. Processing power.

Term

What should be done before anything else, once the operating system installation is

complete?

a. A reboot.

b. Install drivers.

c. Set a password.

d. Install antivirus.

Definition

a. A reboot.

b. Install drivers.

c. Set a password.

d. Install antivirus.

Term

The specifications that should be met, if not exceeded, to ensure a computer is compatible

as well as powerful enough to run an operating system without constant problems is for the

computer to have the minimum

a. software.

b. hardware.

c. processors.

d. applications

Definition

a. software.

b. hardware.

c. processors.

d. applications

Term

What are minor software updates or improvements called?

a. Bundles.

b. Patches.

c. Databases.

d. Processors

Definition

a. Bundles.

b. Patches.

c. Databases.

d. Processors

Term

What is the simplest and most efficient way to duplicate a computer’s software, with no loss

of files or configurations within the programs?

a. WinZip.

b. Norton Utilities.

c. Bundled software.

d. Imaging software.

Definition

a. WinZip.

b. Norton Utilities.

c. Bundled software.

d. Imaging software.

Term

How many byte sectors is a hard disk divided into?

a. 124.

b. 248.

c. 512.

d. 1024.

Definition

a. 124.

b. 248.

c. 512.

d. 1024.

Term

The first sector at the beginning of a hard drive is called the master

a. volume.

b. cylinder.

c. partition.

d. boot record.

Definition

a. volume.

b. cylinder.

c. partition.

d. boot record.

Term

A formatted disk partition that is used for a particular file system is called

a. dynamic storage.

b. basic storage.

c. a volume.

d. a sector.

Definition

a. dynamic storage.

b. basic storage.

c. a volume.

d. a sector.

Term

Which file system is the best choice for data storage if the server is a dedicated Windows

server?

a. NTFS.

b. FATS.

c. Neither FATS nor NTFS.

d. Either FATS or NTFS.

Definition

a. NTFS.

b. FATS.

c. Neither FATS nor NTFS.

d. Either FATS or NTFS.

Term

What physical structure component is a collection of Internet Protocol subnet ranges?

a. Site.

b. Namespace.

c. Global catalog.

d. Domain controller

Definition

a. Site.

b. Namespace.

c. Global catalog.

d. Domain controller

Term

By default, the first domain controller in active directory service is a

a. forest.

b. namespace.

c. global catalog.

d. globally unique identifier

Definition

a. forest.

b. namespace.

c. global catalog.

d. globally unique identifier

Term

Which of these is a disadvantage of client-server networks?

a. A high level of security can be implemented at the server.

b. Users are relieved of the burden of managing resources.

c. Managing servers requires a dedicated staff.

d. More powerful resources can be shared.

Definition

a. A high level of security can be implemented at the server.

b. Users are relieved of the burden of managing resources.

c. Managing servers requires a dedicated staff.

d. More powerful resources can be shared.

Term

What type of remote network provides a private tunnel through public cloud (the Internet)?

a. Virtual private network.

b. Peer to peer.

c. Broadband.

d. Three tier.

Definition

a. Virtual private network.

b. Peer to peer.

c. Broadband.

d. Three tier.

Term

What form of remote network access is often the only choice for rural or remote areas?

a. Dial-up

b. Wireless.

c. Broadband.

d. Virtual private network.

Definition

a. Dial-up

b. Wireless.

c. Broadband.

d. Virtual private network.

Term

What does Wi-Fi use to carry network signals to the network access point?

a. Cable lines.

b. Radio waves.

c. Dedicated lines.

d. Telephone lines.

Definition

a. Cable lines.

b. Radio waves.

c. Dedicated lines.

d. Telephone lines.

Term

What item below is not found in the Active Directory structure?

a. Domains.

b. Objects.

c. Forests.

d. Wi-Fi.

Definition

a. Domains.

b. Objects.

c. Forests.

d. Wi-Fi.

Term

What is configured to provide or deny users access to service on a local computer or on the

local network/domain?

a. Profile.

b. Domain.

c. Account.

d. Directory.

Definition

a. Profile.

b. Domain.

c. Account.

d. Directory.

Term

User accounts are uniquely identified by the

a. ACL.

b. SID.

c. permissions.

d. rights.

Definition

a. ACL.

b. SID.

c. permissions.

d. rights.

Term

Groups in active directory are directory

a. trees.

b. units.

c. forests.

d. objects.

Definition

a. trees.

b. units.

c. forests.

d. objects.

Term

Members of this group have full control of the server or individual workstations and can

assign user rights and access control permissions.

a. Domain group accounts.

b. Domain user accounts.

c. Local Administrators.

d. Local user.

Definition

a. Domain group accounts.

b. Domain user accounts.

c. Local Administrators.

d. Local user.

Term

Which item resides on a domain controller and provides access to network resources

throughout the domain?

a. Local groups.

b. Domain groups.

c. Local user accounts.

d. Domain user accounts.

Definition

a. Local groups.

b. Domain groups.

c. Local user accounts.

d. Domain user accounts.

Term

What is used to organize different types of accounts into manageable units?

a. An object.

b. An ACL.

c. A group.

d. An SID.

Definition

a. An object.

b. An ACL.

c. A group.

d. An SID.

Term

What is installed on a computer to act as the interface between the computer and network?

a. NIC.

b. Ethernet.

c. Transceiver.

d. Coaxial cable.

Definition

a. NIC.

b. Ethernet.

c. Transceiver.

d. Coaxial cable.

Term

What is the unique identification number a network interface card (NIC) provides to a

personal computer?

a. MAC address.

b. IEEE address.

c. OUI address.

d. SAS address

Definition

a. MAC address.

b. IEEE address.

c. OUI address.

d. SAS address

Term

How many connector interfaces does a network interface card (NIC) provide for network

cables?

a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
Definition
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
Term

What software activates the actual transmission and receipt of data over the network?

a. Network interface card connector interfaces.
b. Network interface drivers.
c. Media Access Control.
d. Open data interfaces.
Definition
a. Network interface card connector interfaces.
b. Network interface drivers.
c. Media Access Control.
d. Open data interfaces.
Term

Which information is not required when configuring Transmission Control Protocol/Internet

Protocol (TCP/IP)?

a. Domain name system server address.

b. Media Access Control address.

c. Internet protocol address.

d. Administrator access.

Definition

a. Domain name system server address.

b. Media Access Control address.

c. Internet protocol address.

d. Administrator access.

Term

What stores print jobs in a print queue until a printer becomes available?

a. Print pool.

b. Print farm.

c. Print server.

d. Distributive print

Definition

a. Print pool.

b. Print farm.

c. Print server.

d. Distributive print

Term

Which is not a transmission medium for a wireless local area network?

a. Microwaves.

b. Fiber optics.

c. Radio.

d. Light.

Definition

a. Microwaves.

b. Fiber optics.

c. Radio.

d. Light.

Term

On a network, what system manages network resources, allows other resources to be shared

across the network, and provides the security necessary in a multi-user environment?

a. NOS.

b. NIC.

c. Client.

d. Server.

Definition

a. NOS.

b. NIC.

c. Client.

d. Server.

Term

In a network environment, what may be responsible for all or some of the network

operational tasks?

a. NOS.

b. NIC.

c. Client.

d. Server.

Definition

a. NOS.

b. NIC.

c. Client.

d. Server.

Term

What are the two major ways to implement a client server network?

a. First/last.

b. High/low.

c. Thick/thin.

d. Client/workstation

Definition

a. First/last.

b. High/low.

c. Thick/thin.

d. Client/workstation

Term

What access control uses segregation of duties and security screening for users?

a. Administrative.

b. Technical.

c. Physical.

d. Local.

Definition

a. Administrative.

b. Technical.

c. Physical.

d. Local.

Term

The Public Key Infrastructure component that would be necessary if the private key of a

key holder was compromised is referred to as the certificate

a. registration.

b. revocation.

c. authority.

d. key.

Definition

a. registration.

b. revocation.

c. authority.

d. key.

Term

What is an electronic credit card-like device that establishes your credentials when doing

business or other transactions on the Internet?

a. Public key infrastructure client.

b. Certificate authority key.

c. Authentication key.

d. Digital certificate

Definition

a. Public key infrastructure client.

b. Certificate authority key.

c. Authentication key.

d. Digital certificate

Term

How does a router send information to the internet on a wireless network?

a. An Ethernet connection.

b. Radio waves.

c. An antenna.

d. Wi-Fi.

Definition

a. An Ethernet connection.

b. Radio waves.

c. An antenna.

d. Wi-Fi.

Term

What device receives information from the internet and translates it into a radio signal and

sends it to the computer’s wireless adapter?

a. Network interface card.

b. Ethernet.

c. Router.

d. Wi-Fi.

Definition

a. Network interface card.

b. Ethernet.

c. Router.

d. Wi-Fi.

Term

What piece of equipment is at the core of most Wi-Fi networks?

a. Client.

b. Router.

c. Network interface card.

d. Intrusion detection system.

Definition

a. Client.

b. Router.

c. Network interface card.

d. Intrusion detection system.

Term

If this security feature is enabled on a wireless network, access points or routers perform

additional checks, helping prevent network break-ins.

a. Encryption.

b. SSID.

c. DHCP.

d. MAC address filtering

Definition

a. Encryption.

b. SSID.

c. DHCP.

d. MAC address filtering

Term

What drives faster processing speeds and increases the power of many computers and

communication devices?

a. Microtechnology.

b. Nanotechnology.

c. Gigatechnology.

d. Biotechnology.

Definition

a. Microtechnology.

b. Nanotechnology.

c. Gigatechnology.

d. Biotechnology.

Term

How much power does a NAND drive require?

a. <4 watt.

b. <3 watts.

c. <2 watts.

d. <1 watts.

Definition

a. <4 watt.

b. <3 watts.

c. <2 watts.

d. <1 watts.

Term

What technology involves the capture and storage of a distinctive, measurable

characteristic, feature, or trait of an individual for later recognition by automated means?

a. Microtechnology.

b. Nanotechnology.

c. Biometrics.

d. Protocols

Definition

a. Microtechnology.

b. Nanotechnology.

c. Biometrics.

d. Protocols

Term

Which is not a valid form of identity management?

a. Iris.

b. Hair.

c. Palm.

d. Voice.

Definition

a. Iris.

b. Hair.

c. Palm.

d. Voice.

Term

What protocol provides an almost unlimited number of Internet Protocol addresses?

a. TCP/IP.

b. VIP.

c. IPv6.

d. IPv4.

Definition

a. TCP/IP.

b. VIP.

c. IPv6.

d. IPv4.

Term

Which is NOT a basic function of antivirus programs?

a. Removal.

b. Scanning.

c. Detection.

d. Vaccination.

Definition

a. Removal.

b. Scanning.

c. Detection.

d. Vaccination.

Term

Who centrally manages the Air Force server updates that keep your workstation antivirus

software current?

a. Enterprise Information Technology Service Desk.

b. Air Force Network Operation Center.

c. Workgroups.

d. Clients.

Definition

a. Enterprise Information Technology Service Desk.

b. Air Force Network Operation Center.

c. Workgroups.

d. Clients.

Term

What item is a means by which Windows products are updated and kept current?

a. Security patches.

b. Software packs.

c. Security packs.

d. Software fixes.

Definition

a. Security patches.

b. Software packs.

c. Security packs.

d. Software fixes.

Term

Which Air Force Instruction governs software use?

a. 33–110.

b. 33–112.

c. 33–114.

d. 33–116.

Definition

a. 33–110.

b. 33–112.

c. 33–114.

d. 33–116.

Term

With a software license agreement, who has the full rights to the software and its further

distribution and reproduction?

a. Buyer.

b. Publisher.

c. US Air Force.

d. US government.

Definition

a. Buyer.

b. Publisher.

c. US Air Force.

d. US government.

Term

What is an essential tool for any Client Systems Technician to find software approved for

use on an AF network?

a. Certification.

b. Enterprise license.

c. Enterprise Software Agreement.

d. Evaluated/Approved Product List

Definition

a. Certification.

b. Enterprise license.

c. Enterprise Software Agreement.

d. Evaluated/Approved Product List

Term

What is one of the best habits a Client Systems Technician can form in order to save time,

effort and prevent mistakes?

a. Working fast.

b. Minimizing tools.

c. Getting organized.

d. Remembering everything.

Definition

a. Working fast.

b. Minimizing tools.

c. Getting organized.

d. Remembering everything.

Term

Which logical troubleshooting step would include classifying the problem as hardware or

software related?

a. Isolate the problem.

b. Define the problem.

c. Resolve the problem.

d. Confirm the resolution.

Definition

a. Isolate the problem.

b. Define the problem.

c. Resolve the problem.

d. Confirm the resolution.

Term
One of the most common hardware diagnostic tool is the

a. basic input/output system card.

b. power-on self test.

c. loopback plug.

d. patch panel.

 
Definition

a. basic input/output system card.

b. power-on self test.

c. loopback plug.

d. patch panel.

Term

In network troubleshooting, any event that has a negative effect on the service of the

network is referred to as a

a. vulnerability.

b. problem.

c. fault.

d. bug.

Definition

a. vulnerability.

b. problem.

c. fault.

d. bug.

Term

The action that involves localization and identification of irregularities that cause a fault to

be registered is referred to as fault

a. diagnosis.

b. detection.

c. correction.

d. documentation.

Definition

a. diagnosis.

b. detection.

c. correction.

d. documentation.

Term

Which item is not a good practice in helping with future troubleshooting

a. Remembering every step taken.

b. Knowing your network.

c. Documentation.

d. Gathering facts.

Definition

a. Remembering every step taken.

b. Knowing your network.

c. Documentation.

d. Gathering facts.

Term

Within how many bytes of a transmission should a network interface card sense a collision?

a. 16 bytes.

b. 32 bytes.

c. 64 bytes.

d. 128 bytes.

Definition

a. 16 bytes.

b. 32 bytes.

c. 64 bytes.

d. 128 bytes.

Term

What function enables the higher layer protocol data units to fit into the lower layer PDU

for transmission across the network?

a. Frame relays.

b. Fragmentation.

c. Round trip delay.

d. Asynchronous transfer mode.

Definition

a. Frame relays.

b. Fragmentation.

c. Round trip delay.

d. Asynchronous transfer mode.

Term

Which is not a way in which round trip delay can be determined?

a. Maximum delay.

b. Minimum delay.

c. Average delay.

d. Total delay.

Definition

a. Maximum delay.

b. Minimum delay.

c. Average delay.

d. Total delay.

Term

Which alarm category in the network management system indicates a warning?

a. Red.

b. Blue.

c. Cyan.

d. Orange.

Definition

a. Red.

b. Blue.

c. Cyan.

d. Orange.

Term

Which type of network is often called the GigE network?

a. 1000 BaseT.

b. 1000 BaseG.

c. 10/100 BaseT.

d. 10/100 BaseG.

Definition

a. 1000 BaseT.

b. 1000 BaseG.

c. 10/100 BaseT.

d. 10/100 BaseG.

Term

What percentage of all network problems occur at the data link and physical layers of the

open systems interconnect reference model?

a. 15 percent.

b. 30 percent.

c. 45 percent.

d. 60 percent.

Definition

a. 15 percent.

b. 30 percent.

c. 45 percent.

d. 60 percent.

Term

What piece of test equipment can help verify connectivity and identify shorts, reversed,

crossed or split pairs on a network?

a. Time domain reflectometer.

b. Wide-area network tester.

c. Local-area network tester.

d. Signal generator

Definition

a. Time domain reflectometer.

b. Wide-area network tester.

c. Local-area network tester.

d. Signal generator

Term

What tool can launch individual troubleshooting/configuration programs and other utilities

having to do with networking, video display, printers, sound, and email configuration on an

operating system?

a. Control Panel.

b. Event Viewer.

c. Device Manager.

d. Disk Management.

Definition

a. Control Panel.

b. Event Viewer.

c. Device Manager.

d. Disk Management.

Term

Use which tool to list all installed device drivers and their status, find hardware components

that are not functioning properly or two devices that are in conflict on an operating system (OS)?

a. Event Viewer.

b. Control Panel.

c. Device Manager.

d. Network Connections.

Definition

a. Event Viewer.

b. Control Panel.

c. Device Manager.

d. Network Connections.

Term

This operating system tool allows the viewing of the number of sent packets, status, total

connection time, and speed of a network.

a. Network Connections.

b. Device Manager.

c. Control Panel.

d. Event Viewer.

Definition

a. Network Connections.

b. Device Manager.

c. Control Panel.

d. Event Viewer.

Term

Which fault isolation technique may entail checking the cable connections as well as

reseating devices and checking all switches and settings for devices?

a. Check physical connections.

b. Check hardware devices.

c. Software check.

d. Memory check.

Definition

a. Check physical connections.

b. Check hardware devices.

c. Software check.

d. Memory check.

Term

When troubleshooting after a system failure, this step is a last resort effort when all other

avenues have been exhausted.

a. Reboot the system.

b. Reinstall application programs.

c. Remove and replace the operating system.

d. Remove and replace the CD/DVD-ROM drive.

Definition

a. Reboot the system.

b. Reinstall application programs.

c. Remove and replace the operating system.

d. Remove and replace the CD/DVD-ROM drive.

Term

This practice uses tapes, electronic vaulting, or mirrored disks and should be done regularly.

a. Reconfiguration.

b. Programming.

c. Data backup.

d. Reloading.

Definition

a. Reconfiguration.

b. Programming.

c. Data backup.

d. Reloading.

Term

Which media has a storage capacity of gigabyte (GB) – terabyte (TB), has a slow to

moderate speed and is moderately expensive?

a. Tape.

b. Network.

c. CD-ROM.

d. DVD ROM.

Definition

a. Tape.

b. Network.

c. CD-ROM.

d. DVD ROM.

Term

Which backup type does not clear archive flags once the backup job is complete?

a. Full.

b. Daily.

c. Incremental.

d. Differential.

Definition

a. Full.

b. Daily.

c. Incremental.

d. Differential.

Term

Which cleaning process overwrites all addressable locations with binary zeros, then binary

ones, and overwrites all addressable locations with any character on sealed disk drives, hard

disks, and drives?

a. Destroying.

b. Sanitizing.

c. Clearing.

d. Erasing

Definition

a. Destroying.

b. Sanitizing.

c. Clearing.

d. Erasing

Term

This is an authorized method of cleaning and sanitizing many types of magnetic media.

a. Erasing.

b. Clearing.

c. Wipeinfo.

d. Overwrite.

Definition

a. Erasing.

b. Clearing.

c. Wipeinfo.

d. Overwrite.

Term
What is the primary interface for the hard drive, CD and floppy disk drive?  
Definition
IDE controller
Term
What term describes any program, operation, or device communicating with a computer?  
Definition
I/O
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