Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 362201,

Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)?

a. Core task.

b. Duty competency.

c. Core competency.

d. Duty position task.

a. Core task.

b. Duty competency.

c. Core competency.

d. Duty position task

Which enlisted training element is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and

organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

a. Core task.

b. Duty competency.

c. Core competency.

d. Duty position task.

a. Core task.

b. Duty competency.

c. Core competency.

d. Duty position task.

Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server

farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?

a. Cyber Surety.

b. Client Systems.

c. Cyber Transport.

d. Cyber Systems Operations.

a. Cyber Surety.

b. Client Systems.

c. Cyber Transport.

d. Cyber Systems Operations.

Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and

“hands-on” maintenance actions?

a. Cyber Surety.

b. Client Systems.

c. Cyber Transport.

d. Cyber Systems Operations.

a. Cyber Surety.

b. Client Systems.

c. Cyber Transport.

d. Cyber Systems Operations.

Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment,

troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based

satellite devices?

a. Spectrum Operations.

b. Ground Radar Systems.

c. Cable and Antenna Systems.

d. Radio Frequency Transmission.

a. Spectrum Operations.

b. Ground Radar Systems.

c. Cable and Antenna Systems.

d. Radio Frequency Transmission.

Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of

fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems?

a. Spectrum Operations.

b. Ground Radar Systems.

c. Cable and Antenna Systems.

d. Radio Frequency Transmission.

a. Spectrum Operations.

b. Ground Radar Systems.

c. Cable and Antenna Systems.

d. Radio Frequency Transmission.

Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large

scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

a. Spectrum Operations.

b. Ground Radar Systems.

c. Cable and Antenna Systems.

d. Radio Frequency Transmission.

a. Spectrum Operations.

b. Ground Radar Systems.

c. Cable and Antenna Systems.

d. Radio Frequency Transmission.

Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

a. Unit training manger (UTM).

b. Base functional manager (BFM).

c. Major command functional manager MFM).

d. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

a. Unit training manger (UTM).

b. Base functional manager (BFM).

c. Major command functional manager MFM).

d. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to

include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

a. Unit training manger (UTM).

b. Base functional manager (BFM).

c. Major command functional manager (MFM).

d. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

a. Unit training manger (UTM).

b. Base functional manager (BFM).

c. Major command functional manager (MFM).

d. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the

development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

a. Unit training manger (UTM).

b. Base functional manager BFM).

c. Major command functional manager (MFM).

d. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

a. Unit training manger (UTM).

b. Base functional manager BFM).

c. Major command functional manager (MFM).

d. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer

(NCO)?

a. Unit training manger (UTM).

b. Base functional manager (BFM).

c. Major command functional manager (MFM).

d. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

a. Unit training manger (UTM).

b. Base functional manager (BFM).

c. Major command functional manager (MFM).

d. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

What is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

a. Modify training.

b. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

c. Conduct climate training surveys.

d. Review the occupational analysis report

a. Modify training.

b. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

c. Conduct climate training surveys.

d. Review the occupational analysis report

Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety

information on “Material Handling and Storage Equipment?”

a. 91–46.

b. 91–50.

c. 91–64.

d. 91–68

a. 91–46.

b. 91–50.

c. 91–64.

d. 91–68

Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference

safety information on “Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems?”

a. 91–46.

b. 91–50.

c. 91–64.

d. 91–68.

a. 91–46.

b. 91–50.

c. 91–64.

d. 91–68.

The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety

information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard

a. 91–46.

b. 91–50.

c. 91–64.

d. 91–68.

a. 91–46.

b. 91–50.

c. 91–64.

d. 91–68.

From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will

result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?

a. Sunlight.

b. Microwaves.

c. Ionizing radiation.

d. Nonionizing radiation

a. Sunlight.

b. Microwaves.

c. Ionizing radiation.

d. Nonionizing radiation

Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for

accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and

resources to the lowest acceptable risk?

a. Accept no unnecessary risk.

b. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

c. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

d. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

a. Accept no unnecessary risk.

b. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

c. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

d. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against

opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capability?

a. Accept no unnecessary risk.

b. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

c. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

d. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

a. Accept no unnecessary risk.

b. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

c. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

d. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive

operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?

a. Accept no unnecessary risk.

b. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

c. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

d. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

a. Accept no unnecessary risk.

b. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

c. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

d. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by

a. providing adversaries access to useless data files on legacy systems.

b. taking offensive measures to track adversaries and correct damage to sensitive data.

c. denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary’s ability to use cyberspace.

d. allowing the adversaries to use the cyberspace domain so we can document the country they’re from.

a. providing adversaries access to useless data files on legacy systems.

b. taking offensive measures to track adversaries and correct damage to sensitive data.

c. denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary’s ability to use cyberspace.

d. allowing the adversaries to use the cyberspace domain so we can document the country they’re from.

Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of

systems spread out over large areas?

a. Joint Operability network.

b. Tactical data links network.

c. Strategic data control network.

d. Supervisory control and data acquisition.

a. Joint Operability network.

b. Tactical data links network.

c. Strategic data control network.

d. Supervisory control and data acquisition

Which center has the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force

networks?

a. Area Processing Center (APC).

b. Network Control Center (NCC).

c. Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).

d. Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC).

a. Area Processing Center (APC).

b. Network Control Center (NCC).

c. Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).

d. Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC).

Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local

level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?

a. Area Processing Center (APC).

b. Network Control Center (NCC).

c. Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).

d. Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC).

a. Area Processing Center (APC).

b. Network Control Center (NCC).

c. Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).

d. Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC).

Which function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway

communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages?

a. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

b. Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

c. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).

d. Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).

a. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

b. Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

c. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).

d. Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).

Which function or organization was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force

(AETF)?

a. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

b. Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

c. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).

d. Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).

a. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

b. Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

c. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).

d. Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).

Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps

community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the

warfighter?

a. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

b. Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

c. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).

d. Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).

a. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

b. Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

c. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).

d. Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).

Which document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United

States?

a. Constitution.

b. Bill of Rights.

c. United States Title Code 10.

d. Uniform Code of Military Justice.

a. Constitution.

b. Bill of Rights.

c. United States Title Code 10.

d. Uniform Code of Military Justice.

Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive

component of government and established all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force,

and Marine Corps?

a. Constitution.

b. Bill of Rights.

c. United States Title Code 10.

d. Uniform Code of Military Justice.

a. Constitution.

b. Bill of Rights.

c. United States Title Code 10.

d. Uniform Code of Military Justice.

Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding

instruction and law?

a. Constitution.

b. Bill of Rights.

c. United States Title Code 10.

d. Uniform Code of Military Justice.

a. Constitution.

b. Bill of Rights.

c. United States Title Code 10.

d. Uniform Code of Military Justice.

In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint

and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD?

a. 1994.

b. 1995.

c. 1997.

d. 1998.

a. 1994.

b. 1995.

c. 1997.

d. 1998.

In what year did the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in

August of 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine?

a. 1994.

b. 1995.

c. 1997.

d. 1998.

a. 1994.

b. 1995.

c. 1997.

d. 1998.

Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and

HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?

a. Air Force Doctrines.

b. Air Force Pamphlets.

c. Air Force Instructions.

d. Air Force Policy Directives.

a. Air Force Doctrines.

b. Air Force Pamphlets.

c. Air Force Instructions.

d. Air Force Policy Directives.

Which publication type are informational publications which are “how to” documents?

a. Air Force Pamphlets.

b. Air Force Instructions.

c. Air Force Publications.

d. Air Force Policy Directives.

a. Air Force Pamphlets.

b. Air Force Instructions.

c. Air Force Publications.

d. Air Force Policy Directives.

What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits information to convey data over

significant geographical distances to communicate?

a. Broadcasts.

b. Transmissions.

c. Telecommunications.

d. Voice over Internet Protocol.

a. Broadcasts.

b. Transmissions.

c. Telecommunications.

d. Voice over Internet Protocol.

What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location?

a. myPay.

b. E-publishing.

c. Air Force Portal.

d. virtual Military Personnel Flight.

a. myPay.

b. E-publishing.

c. Air Force Portal.

d. virtual Military Personnel Flight.

What tool is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation

program for other transformation task forces?

a. myPay.

b. E-publishing.

c. Air Force Portal.

d. virtual Military Personnel Flight.

a. myPay.

b. E-publishing.

c. Air Force Portal.

d. virtual Military Personnel Flight.

Which Air Force Portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to all

applications with no further log-in requirement?

a. my base.

b. Single-sign-on.

c. Community of practice.

d. virtual Military Personnel Flight.

a. my base.

b. Single-sign-on.

c. Community of practice.

d. virtual Military Personnel Flight.

Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal?

a. my base.

b. Single-sign-on.

c. Community of practice.

d. virtual Military Personnel Flight.

a. my base.

b. Single-sign-on.

c. Community of practice.

d. virtual Military Personnel Flight.

Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a

given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a

project, and/or solve group problems?

a. my base.

b. Single-sign-on.

c. Community of practice.

d. virtual Military Personnel Flight

a. my base.

b. Single-sign-on.

c. Community of practice.

d. virtual Military Personnel Flight

Which document would you reference for guidance on “Web management and Internet use?”

a. AFI 33118.

b. AFI 33119.

c. AFI 33127.

d. AFI 33129.

a. AFI 33118.

b. AFI 33119.

c. AFI 33127.

d. AFI 33129.

Prior to posting web content on an Air Force web page; which document would you reference

regarding compliance of local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to

the Internet/public Web sites?

a. AFI 33127.

b. AFI 33129.

c. AFI 35101.

d. AFI 35108.

a. AFI 33127.

b. AFI 33129.

c. AFI 35101.

d. AFI 35108.

When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette?

a. Keep emails brief and to the point.

b. Read your email out loud to yourself.

c. Consistently use the “Reply-to-All” feature.

d. Ensure attachments are appropriate to supplement your message

a. Keep emails brief and to the point.

b. Read your email out loud to yourself.

c. Consistently use the “Reply-to-All” feature.

d. Ensure attachments are appropriate to supplement your message

Which document is not considered an official government record?

a. Published doctrines.

b. Geographical base maps.

c. Photographs of a retreat ceremony.

d. Library reference or museum exhibitions.

a. Published doctrines.

b. Geographical base maps.

c. Photographs of a retreat ceremony.

d. Library reference or museum exhibitions.

Records that are considered to be in draft format

a. can be altered and are not officially released.

b. can’t be altered, but are officially released.

c. can’t be altered and are officially signed.

d. officially signed and officially released

a. can be altered and are not officially released.

b. can’t be altered, but are officially released.

c. can’t be altered and are officially signed.

d. officially signed and officially released

Records that are considered to be in final format have which characteristic?

a. Officially signed and not released.

b. Officially signed and officially released.

c. Can be altered and are not officially released.

d. Can’t be altered, but are not officially released.

a. Officially signed and not released.

b. Officially signed and officially released.

c. Can be altered and are not officially released.

d. Can’t be altered, but are not officially released.

Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records

managers?

a. Base records manager.

b. Chief of Office of Records.

c. Command records manager.

d. Functional area records manager

a. Base records manager.

b. Chief of Office of Records.

c. Command records manager.

d. Functional area records manager

Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?

a. Base records manager.

b. Chief of Office of Records.

c. Command records manager.

d. Functional area records manager.

a. Base records manager.

b. Chief of Office of Records.

c. Command records manager.

d. Functional area records manager

Who is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or

contractor to perform records management?

a. Base records manager.

b. Chief of Office of Records.

c. Command records manager.

d. Functional area records manager

a. Base records manager.

b. Chief of Office of Records.

c. Command records manager.

d. Functional area records manager

Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

a. Base records manager.

b. Chief of Office of Records.

c. Command records manager.

d. Functional area records manager

a. Base records manager.

b. Chief of Office of Records.

c. Command records manager.

d. Functional area records manager

A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a/an

a. file.

b. record.

c. database.

d. enterprise.

a. file.

b. record.

c. database.

d. enterprise.

A logical group of record is called a/an

a. file.

b. field.

c. database.

d. enterprise.

a. file.

b. field.

c. database.

d. enterprise.

An organized collection of data or data structures is known as a/an

a. file.

b. record.

c. database.

d. enterprise.

a. file.

b. record.

c. database.

d. enterprise.

Who is responsible for creating unique passwords for the office of primarily responsibility (OPR)

records custodian?

a. Base records manager.

b. Chief of Office of Records.

c. Command records manager.

d. Functional area records manager.

a. Base records manager.

b. Chief of Office of Records.

c. Command records manager.

d. Functional area records manager.

Marking the records for filing is considered which step of file management?

a. First step.

b. Second step.

c. Third step.

d. Final step.

a. First step.

b. Second step.

c. Third step.

d. Final step.

The primary purpose for maintaining records is to ensure

a. historical events are not forgotten.

b. the collection of data creates a wealth of information.

c. we can provide information to decision makers whenever and wherever it is needed.

d. data for individuals is readily available upon request and privacy act information is protected.

a. historical events are not forgotten.

b. the collection of data creates a wealth of information.

c. we can provide information to decision makers whenever and wherever it is needed.

d. data for individuals is readily available upon request and privacy act information is protected.

What authorization generates a file disposition control label for each item listed on the office’s file

plan?

a. National Archives and Records Administration (NARA)

b. Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS).

c. Local operations instructions.

d. Command operations directives.

a. National Archives and Records Administration (NARA)

b. Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS).

c. Local operations instructions.

d. Command operations directives.

What determines the cutoff for active records?

a. End period.

b. Archive date.

c. Retention period.

d. Superseded date

a. End period.

b. Archive date.

c. Retention period.

d. Superseded date

A comprehensive term that specifies the destruction, salvage, and donation of records, or the transfer

to a staging area or records center; and the transfer of records from one organization to another is called a

a. retire.

b. archive.

c. acquisition.

d. disposition.

a. retire.

b. archive.

c. acquisition.

d. disposition.

For which exception will federal records centers accept records having less than 3 years of retention?

a. Casualties.

b. Base closures.

c. Deployed AF units.

d. Joint force operations.

a. Casualties.

b. Base closures.

c. Deployed AF units.

d. Joint force operations.

Which document is used for accountability purposes when retirement records are identified and

prepared for federal records centers, staging areas or to transfer records to another organization?

a. AF Form 55.

b. AF Form 457.

c. Standard Form 50.

d. Standard Form 135.

a. AF Form 55.

b. AF Form 457.

c. Standard Form 50.

d. Standard Form 135.

The proper way we destroy records to prevent compromise is by

a. placing them in approved staging containers.

b. shipping it to Federal records centers in approved containers.

c. altering the data on the records so in the event is compromised, it is recognizable.

d. any method such as tearing, burning, or shredding; as long as personal data is not recognizable and

beyond reconstruction.

a. placing them in approved staging containers.

b. shipping it to Federal records centers in approved containers.

c. altering the data on the records so in the event is compromised, it is recognizable.

d. any method such as tearing, burning, or shredding; as long as personal data is not recognizable and

beyond reconstruction.

AFPD 104, Operations Planning: Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) aligns what

requirements with a matching force generation model?

a. Posturing.

b. Tempo bands.

c. Unit type codes.

d. Joint manning document

a. Posturing.

b. Tempo bands.

c. Unit type codes.

d. Joint manning document.

Which organization is responsible for air and space expeditionary force (AEF) sourcing of individual

augmentees, Joint Manning Document authorizations, and managing replacements for 365-day or greater

requirements?

a. Global Force Management (GFM).

b. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).

c. Combatant Commander (CCDR).

d. Commander Air Combat Command (COMACC).

a. Global Force Management (GFM).

b. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).

c. Combatant Commander (CCDR).

d. Commander Air Combat Command (COMACC).

What places air and space expeditionary force (AEF) forces in a “ready to deploy” state and supports

global requirements, home station requirements or support to Combatant Commanders (CCDR)?

a. Posturing.

b. Tempo bands.

c. Unit type codes.

d. Joint manning document.

a. Posturing.

b. Tempo bands.

c. Unit type codes.

d. Joint manning document.

Who has the primary mission of providing the joint force air component commander (JFACC) with

the tools necessary to fight and win a major theater war within the scope and coordination of all land, sea,

and air forces?

a. Global Force Management.

b. Air Force Personnel Center.

c. Commander, Air Force Forces.

d. Air and Space Operations Center.

a. Global Force Management.

b. Air Force Personnel Center.

c. Commander, Air Force Forces.

d. Air and Space Operations Center.

Which document is the basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of air and

space expeditionary forces (AEF)?

a. Posturing.

b. Tempo bands.

c. Unit type codes.

d. Joint manning document.

a. Posturing.

b. Tempo bands.

c. Unit type codes.

d. Joint manning document.

Which function is a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to

exchange secure and non-secure voice, data, and video communications by way of line-of-sight (LOS),

satellite, or hard-wired resources?

a. Designed operational capability.

b. Theater deployable communications.

c. Manpower and equipment force packaging.

d. Joint operation planning and execution system

a. Designed operational capability.

b. Theater deployable communications.

c. Manpower and equipment force packaging.

d. Joint operation planning and execution system

Defense Support of Civil Authorities (DSCA), Humanitarian Relief Operations (HUMRO), Non-

Combatant Evacuation Operations (NEO) and support to International Law Enforcement are all examples

of

a. operational capabilities packages.

b. theater deployable communications.

c. manpower and equipment force packaging.

d. Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) force modules

a. operational capabilities packages.

b. theater deployable communications.

c. manpower and equipment force packaging.

d. Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) force modules

Which function has the primary purpose of providing standard force package descriptions of the force

packages to be used to support contingency planning at all levels of command?

a. Operational capabilities packages.

b. Theater deployable communications.

c. Manpower and equipment force packaging (MEFPAK).

d. Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) force modules.

a. Operational capabilities packages.

b. Theater deployable communications.

c. Manpower and equipment force packaging (MEFPAK).

d. Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) force modules.

A remotely piloted or self-piloted aircraft that can carry cameras, sensors, communications equipment,

or other payloads is called a/an

a. high altitude endurance (HAE).

b. unmanned aerial vehicles (UAV).

c. type unit equipment detail file (TUDET).

d. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

a. high altitude endurance (HAE).

b. unmanned aerial vehicles (UAV).

c. type unit equipment detail file (TUDET).

d. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

As of September 2004, how many total flight hours have coalition unmanned aircrafts flown to

support Operation ENDURING FREEDOM and Operation IRAQI FREEDOM?

a. 80,000.

b. 90,000.

c. 100,000.

d. 120,000.

a. 80,000.

b. 90,000.

c. 100,000.

d. 120,000.

Which system focuses on providing exploitable digital imagery to the warfighter in near real-time?

a. High altitude endurance (HAE).

b. Unmanned aerial vehicles (UAV).

c. Tactical unmanned aerial vehicle (TUAV).

d. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

a. High altitude endurance (HAE).

b. Unmanned aerial vehicles (UAV).

c. Tactical unmanned aerial vehicle (TUAV).

d. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

Which theater deployable communications (TDC) equipment characteristic requires equipment

modules to be expandable and packaged for deployment in standard 19-inch rack mounted transit cases,

vehicles, or shelterized configurations?

a. Mobility.

b. Survivability.

c. Interoperability.

d. Modularity-scalability.

a. Mobility.

b. Survivability.

c. Interoperability.

d. Modularity-scalability.

Which theater deployable communications (TDC) equipment characteristic requires size, weight,

power requirements, and equipment set-up times are kept to an absolute minimum to support the

transportation, deployment, and operations in a deployed environment?

a. Mobility.

b. Survivability.

c. Interoperability.

d. Modularity-scalability.

a. Mobility.

b. Survivability.

c. Interoperability.

d. Modularity-scalability.

Which component of theater deployable communications (TDC) is a suite of modules and accessory

kits serving as the backbone of a deployed communication network?

a. Basic access module (BAM).

b. Integrated communications access package (ICAP).

c. Promina multiplexer (P-MUX).

d. Flyaway tri-band satellite terminal (FTSAT).

a. Basic access module (BAM).

b. Integrated communications access package (ICAP).

c. Promina multiplexer (P-MUX).

d. Flyaway tri-band satellite terminal (FTSAT).

Which system provides the capability to identify, sequence, and separate aircraft; provide final

approach guidance, and control instructions to aircraft at deployed locations in all types of weather?

a. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

b. Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS).

c. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

d. Deployable Air Traffic-Control and landing Systems (DATCALS).

a. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

b. Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS).

c. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

d. Deployable Air Traffic-Control and landing Systems (DATCALS).

Which system asset can be tasked to provide liaison, control tower, Radar Approach Control

(RAPCON), precision landing, and mobile Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN) services as a standalone unit

or in any combination?

a. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

b. Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS).

c. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

d. Deployable Air Traffic-Control and landing Systems (DATCALS).

a. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

b. Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS).

c. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

d. Deployable Air Traffic-Control and landing Systems (DATCALS).

The 85th Engineering and Installation Squadron (EIS) is assigned to the

a. Air Combat Command (ACC).

b. Air Mobility Command (AMC).

c. Air Force Space Command (AFSC).

d. Special Operations Command (SOC).

a. Air Combat Command (ACC).

b. Air Mobility Command (AMC).

c. Air Force Space Command (AFSC).

d. Special Operations Command (SOC).

Under what program does the Department of Defense (DOD) collects, processes, produces,

disseminates, and uses information?

a. Global Information Grid (GIG).

b. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

c. Command, control, communications, computers, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (C4ISR).

d. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

a. Global Information Grid (GIG).

b. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

c. Command, control, communications, computers, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (C4ISR).

d. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

What system provides connectivity between the US and allied forces for critical missions and

enhances worldwide readiness, mobility, responsiveness, and operations?

a. Global Information Grid (GIG).

b. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

c. Command, control, communications, computers, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (C4ISR).

d. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

a. Global Information Grid (GIG).

b. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

c. Command, control, communications, computers, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (C4ISR).

d. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

Which system is employed at more than 600 sites across the global information grid (GIG) and

interconnected through the SIPRNET?

a. Global Broadcast Service (GBS).

b. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

c. Command, control, communications, computers, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (C4ISR).

d. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

a. Global Broadcast Service (GBS).

b. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

c. Command, control, communications, computers, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (C4ISR).

d. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

Which major system employs the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES), Global

Status of Resources and Training System (GSORTS), Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution

Segments (DCAPES), and Common Operational Picture (COP) systems?

a. Global Broadcast Service (GBS).

b. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

c. Command, control, communications, computers, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (C4ISR).

d. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

a. Global Broadcast Service (GBS).

b. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

c. Command, control, communications, computers, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (C4ISR).

d. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

Which system primarily deals with logistics planning data, such as transportation, personnel, and

material requirements?

a. Global Broadcast Service (GBS).

b. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

c. Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

d. Theatre Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

a. Global Broadcast Service (GBS).

b. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

c. Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

d. Theatre Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

Which system of interconnected computer networks is used by the United States Department of

Defense and the United States Department of State?

a. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

b. Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS).

c. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

d. Deployable Air Traffic Control and Lighting System (DATCALS).

a. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

b. Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS).

c. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

d. Deployable Air Traffic Control and Lighting System (DATCALS).

Which Air Force specific system uses the global information grid (GIG) backbone for inter-site

communications and was designed to provide an automated and integrated planning and execution

capability to the Combat Air Forces (CAF) and Joint/Combined Forces?

a. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

b. Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS).

c. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

d. Deployable Air Traffic Control and Lighting System (DATCALS).

a. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

b. Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS).

c. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

d. Deployable Air Traffic Control and Lighting System (DATCALS).

Which system provides a solution to a decrease in manpower and increase in requirements, at the

same time, taking advantage of new technological developments to deliver superior connectivity,

flexibility, speed, reliability, and joint interoperability?

a. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

b. Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS).

c. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

d. Deployable Air Traffic Control and Lighting System (DATCALS).

a. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

b. Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS).

c. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

d. Deployable Air Traffic Control and Lighting System (DATCALS).

Which command and control structure is a priority component of the global information grid (GIG)

designed to support the President, SECDEF, and the JCS in the exercise of their responsibilities?

a. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

b. National Military Command Center (NMCC).

c. National Military Command System (NMCS).

d. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

a. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

b. National Military Command Center (NMCC).

c. National Military Command System (NMCS).

d. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

Which command and control structure is a primary network used to transmit the emergency action

messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting

commanders in the field?

a. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

b. National Military Command System (NMCS).

c. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

d. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

a. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

b. National Military Command System (NMCS).

c. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

d. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

Which command and control structure has network node whose survivability is achieved using

nuclear hardened equipment, redundant circuits, and alternate communications paths?

a. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

b. National Military Command Center (NMCC).

c. National Military Command System (NMCS).

d. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

a. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

b. National Military Command Center (NMCC).

c. National Military Command System (NMCS).

d. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

Which system was originally designed as a specialized system for Army, Navy, and Air Force

technicians to use as a tool to troubleshoot network problems?

a. JEWELER.

b. SEAMARK.

c. NEWSDEALER.

d. STREAMLINER.

a. JEWELER.

b. SEAMARK.

c. NEWSDEALER.

d. STREAMLINER.

Which program was created in response to the FY 97–03 Defense Planning Guidance that directed a

“program to migrate to a multi-intelligence, common, interoperable, open systems ground systems

architecture?

a. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

b. National Military Command System (NMCS).

c. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

d. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

a. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

b. National Military Command System (NMCS).

c. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

d. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

ich systems basic functions operational elements are tasking, processing, exploitation, and

dissemination (TPED)?

a. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

b. National Military Command System (NMCS).

c. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

d. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

a. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

b. National Military Command System (NMCS).

c. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

d. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

Which system is a radar tracker and correlator software program that is hosted on a powerful server

based computer system, which takes inputs from long and short range radars and displays it all on a scope

(computer monitor)?

a. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

b. Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

c. National Military Command System (NMCS).

d. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

a. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

b. Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

c. National Military Command System (NMCS).

d. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

Which system capitalizes on the popular commercial direct broadcast satellite technology to provide

critical information to the nation’s warfighters?

a. Global Broadcast Service (GBS).

b. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

c. Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

d. National Military Command System (NMCS).

a. Global Broadcast Service (GBS).

b. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

c. Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

d. National Military Command System (NMCS).

Which system is a service that broadcasts via communication payloads on military satellites (Ka band)

and commercial satellites (Ku Band)?

a. Global Broadcast Service (GBS).

b. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

c. Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

d. National Military Command System (NMCS).

a. Global Broadcast Service (GBS).

b. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

c. Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

d. National Military Command System (NMCS).

Which system is a USAF program supporting Global, Defense Communication System (DCS) HF

Entry, Mystic Star, and System of Inter- American Telecommunications for the Air Forces (SITFAA)

missions?

a. Global Broadcast Service (GBS).

b. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

c. Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

d. High Frequency-Global Communications System (HF-GCS).

a. Global Broadcast Service (GBS).

b. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

c. Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

d. High Frequency-Global Communications System (HF-GCS).

Which system provides high-quality voice/data HF and ultra-high frequency (UHF) satellite

communications to the president, vice president, cabinet members, and other senior government and

military officials while aboard special airlift mission (SAM) aircraft?

a. Seamark.

b. NORAD.

c. Mystic Star.

d. MILSATCOM.

a. Seamark.

b. NORAD.

c. Mystic Star.

d. MILSATCOM.

Which system provides the ability to rapidly detect and identify airborne targets with minimal or no

support?

a. Global Broadcast Service (GBS).

b. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

c. Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

d. Ground Theater Air Control (GTACS).

a. Global Broadcast Service (GBS).

b. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

c. Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

d. Ground Theater Air Control (GTACS).

Which system can be deployed in either the Control Reporting Center or Control Reporting Element

configurations?

a. Global Broadcast Service (GBS).

b. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

c. Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

d. Ground Theater Air Control (GTACS).

a. Global Broadcast Service (GBS).

b. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

c. Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

d. Ground Theater Air Control (GTACS).

What function provides the Department of Defense (DOD) with the capability to reach

hundreds of thousands of people via personal computers (PC), personal digital assistants

(PDAs), land and cell phones, pagers, Blackberry devices, and/or giant voice systems in realtime?

a. Command Post.

b. AtHoc’s solutions.

c. Regional warning system.

d. Command warning system.

a. Command Post.

b. AtHoc’s solutions.

c. Regional warning system.

d. Command warning system.