Term
1. (001) Which agency functions to assist the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) in carrying out the
responsibilities of the office?
a. Air Staff.
b. Air National Guard Bureau.
c. Air Force Personnel Center.
d. Air Force Reserve Command. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
2. (001) How many subordinate units does the Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel
(AF/A1) have?
a. Two.
b. Four.
c. Six.
d. Eight. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3. (001) Which office is responsible for providing administrative support to the Deputy Chief of Staff,
Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1) by managing workflow, tracking correspondence,
administering and monitoring security and safety programs, and overseeing supplies and
equipment purchases?
a. Issues Team (AF/A1I).
b. Executive Services (AF/A1Z).
c. HQ United States Air Force (USAF).
d. HQ. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC). |
|
Definition
| b. Executive Services (AF/A1Z). |
|
|
Term
4. (001) This office defines the Culture of Airmen, including core standards, values and expectations.
a. Directorate of Airman Development and Sustainment (AF/A1D).
b. Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P).
c. Directorate of Plans and Integration (AF/A1X).
d. Issues Team (AF/A1I). |
|
Definition
| a. Directorate of Airman Development and Sustainment (AF/A1D). |
|
|
Term
5. (001) Which office does AF/A1 communicate with to ensure corporate Air Force requirements link
mission capabilities to programmed resources?
a. Directorate of Airman Development and Sustainment (AF/A1D).
b. Directorate of Manpower and Organization (AF/A1M).
c. Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P).
d. Directorate of Plans and Integration (AF/A1X). |
|
Definition
| b. Directorate of Manpower and Organization (AF/A1M). |
|
|
Term
6. (001) This office plans and executes the Base Realignment and Closure (BRAC) program.
a. Directorate of Airman Development and Sustainment (AF/A1D).
b. Directorate of Manpower and Organization (AF/A1M).
c. Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P).
d. Directorate of Plans and Integration (AF/A1X). |
|
Definition
| b. Directorate of Manpower and Organization (AF/A1M). |
|
|
Term
7. (001) The Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1) utilizes the Directorate of
Force Management Policy (AF/A1P) to communicate all of the following except
a. developing objectives.
b. performing analysis.
c. developing force management policies.
d. developing doctrine and legislative guidance. |
|
Definition
| d. developing doctrine and legislative guidance. |
|
|
Term
8. (001) Which office implements programs, such as “Stop Loss,” to effectively shape and balance
the Air Force’s Total Force?
a. Directorate of Airman Development and Sustainment (AF/A1D).
b. Directorate of Manpower and Organization (AF/A1M).
c. Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P).
d. Directorate of Plans and Integration (AF/A1X). |
|
Definition
| c. Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P). |
|
|
Term
9. (001) Which office serves as the program manager for planning, programming, and developing
information technology (IT) for the Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1)?
a. Directorate of Airman Development and Sustainment (AF/A1D).
b. Directorate of Manpower and Organization (AF/A1M).
c. Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P).
d. Directorate of Plans and Integration (AF/A1X). |
|
Definition
| d. Directorate of Plans and Integration (AF/A1X). |
|
|
Term
10. (002) Which field operating agency (FOA) primarily accomplishes their mission by ensuring the
right numbers of people in the right grades and skills are available to perform the missions of unit
commanders worldwide?
a. Air Force Manpower Agency (AFMA).
b. Air Force Personnel Operations Agency (AFPOA).
c. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center ( HQ AFPC).
d. Headquarters Air Force Resource Management Process (HAFRMP). |
|
Definition
| c. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center ( HQ AFPC). |
|
|
Term
11. (002) The Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) integrates and executes personnel operations to
develop Air Force people and
a. meet field commander requirements.
b. ensure strategic goals are effectively aligned.
c. design, develop, and test personnel processes.
d. execute wartime and home station capabilities. |
|
Definition
| a. meet field commander requirements. |
|
|
Term
12. (002) Who does the Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) support by providing transition
assistance and support?
a. Active duty.
b. Air Force retirees.
c. Active duty, reservists, and guardsmen.
d. Active duty, reservists, guardsmen, and civilians. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
13. (002) Which directorate assists Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) with
facilitating the professional development of all enlisted members and officers below the grade of
colonel?
a. Assignments.
b. Personnel Data Systems.
c. Civilian Force Integration.
d. Air and Space Expeditionary Force Operations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
14. (002) For assistance with recruiting and training interns to provide future Air Force leaders,
Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) contacts the Directorate of
a. Assignments.
b. Personnel Data Systems.
c. Civilian Force Integration.
d. Air and Space Expeditionary Force Operations. |
|
Definition
| c. Civilian Force Integration. |
|
|
Term
15. (002) Which directorate assists Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) with
developing guidance, procedures and training for active duty, Guard, Reserve and civilian
personnel accountability?
a. Assignments.
b. Force Operations.
c. Personnel Services.
d. Personnel Data Systems. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
16. (002) Which directorate is primarily responsible for reporting casualties worldwide, notifying
family members, and providing assistance to families and field commanders on benefits and
entitlements?
a. Air and Space Expeditionary Force Operations.
b. Personnel Services.
c. Force Operations.
d. Assignments. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
17. (002) Which directorate assists Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) with
information technology and lifecycle management?
a. Staff.
b. Force Operations.
c. Personnel Services.
d. Personnel Data Systems. |
|
Definition
| d. Personnel Data Systems. |
|
|
Term
18. (002) Which directorate is responsible for developing guidance, procedures and training for active
duty, guard, reserve, and civilian personnel directly supporting Air Force programs?
a. Staff.
b. Force Operations.
c. Personnel Services.
d. Personnel Data Systems. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
19. (002) Which field operating agency (FOA) is responsible for determining requirements needed to
execute wartime and home-station capabilities supporting Air Force Concepts of Operations
(CONOPS)?
a. Air Force Manpower Agency (AFMA).
b. Air Force Personnel Operations Agency (AFPOA).
c. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center ( HQ AFPC).
d. Headquarters Air Force Military Personnel Center ( HQ AFMPC). |
|
Definition
| a. Air Force Manpower Agency (AFMA). |
|
|
Term
20. (002) What field operating agency (FOA) does the Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and
Personnel (AF/A1) look to for measuring and managing the outcome of improved service
delivery and efficient investment in human capital?
a. Air Force Manpower Agency (AFMA).
b. Air Force Personnel Operations Agency (AFPOA).
c. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).
d. Headquarters Air Force Military Personnel Center (HQ AFMPC). |
|
Definition
| b. Air Force Personnel Operations Agency (AFPOA). |
|
|
Term
21. (003) What authorizations were reduced to save money during Program Budget Decision (PBD)
720 ?
a. Programs.
b. Manpower.
c. Equipment.
d. Additional duties. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
22. (003) What component is comprised of an information technology solution that is provided to
commanders to support their personnel needs?
a. Military personnel data system (MILPDS).
b. Personnel service delivery model (PSDM).
c. Base-level service delivery model (BLSDM).
d. Automated records management system (ARMS). |
|
Definition
| c. Base-level service delivery model (BLSDM). |
|
|
Term
23. (003) How many flights were each organization realigned and consolidated into during phase I of
the Mission Support Squadron’s (MSS) transformative structure testing?
a. Four.
b. Five.
c. Six.
d. Seven. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
24. (004) The major command (MAJCOM) is the highest level of command below Headquarters Air
Force (HAF) and directly above the
a. wing.
b. numbered air force (NAF).
c. commander’s support staff (CSS).
d. military personnel section (MPS). |
|
Definition
| b. numbered air force (NAF). |
|
|
Term
25. (004) How do major commands (MAJCOM) monitor the effectiveness of military personnel
sections (MPS) and commander support staff (CSS) programs?
a. Test analysis.
b. Periodic staff assistance visits.
c. Nuclear Surety Inspections (NSI).
d. Unit Compliance Inspections (UCI). |
|
Definition
| b. Periodic staff assistance visits. |
|
|
Term
26. (004) As of August 2009, how many major commands made up the Air Force structure?
a. 8.
b. 9.
c. 10.
d. 11. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
27. (005) The Air and Space Expeditionary Center (AEFC) is a direct reporting unit (DRU) assigned
under
a. major command (MAJCOM).
b. a numbered Air Force (NAF).
c. Headquarters Air Force (HAF).
d. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC). |
|
Definition
| d. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC). |
|
|
Term
28. (005) The Air and Space Expeditionary Force Center (AEFC) is responsible for executing the Air
Force battle rhythm by centrally managing the scheduling and sourcing of forces to meet the
requirements of
a. combatant commanders.
b. squadron commanders.
c. group commanders.
d. wing commanders. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
29. (005) Why did the Air and Space Expeditionary Force Center (AEFC) move from Langley AFB,
Virginia to Randolph AFB, Texas?
a. There were no longer facilities available to support the AEFC at Langley AFB.
b. The Air Combat Command Commander (COMACC) requested the move.
c. The Air Force Personnel Center Commander (AFPC/CC) requested the move.
d. To merge two centers together with a focus on operationalizing personnel under one
commander. |
|
Definition
d. To merge two centers together with a focus on operationalizing personnel under one
commander. |
|
|
Term
30. (006) The Air Force Reserve Command’s (AFRC) vision is to have citizen
a. Airmen fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power.
b. officers fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power.
c. enlisted fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power.
d. Airmen partially engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power. |
|
Definition
| a. Airmen fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power. |
|
|
Term
31. (006) Approximately how many aircraft are assigned to the Air Force Reserve Command
(AFRC)?
a. 380.
b. 400.
c. 420.
d. 440. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
32. (007) The Air National Guard (ANG) has both a federal and
a. state mission.
b. overseas mission.
c. local government mission.
d. District of Columbia mission. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
33. (007) Hurricane Katrina, that hit the Louisiana/Mississippi Gulf Coast in August 2005, was one of
the most devastating hurricanes of all time. Which agency was activated to help with this natural
disaster?
a. Air National Guard (ANG) Bureau.
b. Air Force Manpower Agency (AFMA).
c. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).
d. Headquarters Air Force Reserve Command (HQ AFRC). |
|
Definition
| a. Air National Guard (ANG) Bureau. |
|
|
Term
34. (007) What percentage of the Air Force’s tactical airlift support does the Air National Guard
(ANG) provide for combat communications functions, aero medical evacuations, and aerial
refueling operations?
a. 25.
b. 50.
c. 75.
d. 100. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
35. (007) When Air National Guard (ANG) units are not mobilized or under federal control, they
report to the
a. Vice president.
b. President.
c. Governor.
d. Mayor. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
36. (008) What does the first position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identify?
a. Skill level.
b. Career field.
c. Career group.
d. Career field subdivision. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
37. (008) A combination of the first and the second positions of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC)
identifies the
a. skill level.
b. career field.
c. career group.
d. career field subdivision. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
38. (008) What does the combination of the first, second, and third positions of an Air Force specialty
code (AFSC) identify?
a. Skill level.
b. Career field.
c. Career group.
d. Career field subdivision. |
|
Definition
| d. Career field subdivision. |
|
|
Term
39. (008) The fourth position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies a
a. skill level.
b. career field.
c. career group.
d. career field subdivision. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
40. (008) Which skill level identifies enlisted personnel with a high degree of technical knowledge
who have acquired additional supervisory capabilities through training and knowledge?
a. Three.
b. Five.
c. Seven.
d. Nine. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
41. (008) Which type of Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is initially based on how the member is
classified at the time of enlistment or during basic training?
a. Duty.
b. Control.
c. Primary.
d. Secondary. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
42. (008) The duties and responsibilities of the personnel craftsman include all of the following
except
a. advise civilians on civilian personnel issues and programs.
b. create, maintain, and audit personnel records.
c. provide casualty assistance.
d. perform personnel actions. |
|
Definition
| a. advise civilians on civilian personnel issues and programs. |
|
|
Term
43. (008) Which is not a Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO) function that a
personnel craftsman performs?
a. Preparation of movement.
b. Personnel accountability.
c. Personnel classification.
d. Personal support. |
|
Definition
| c. Personnel classification. |
|
|
Term
44. (009) What skill level indentifies enlisted personnel who, through experience, training, and
performance, have shown a high degree of managerial and supervisory ability?
a. 3.
b. 5.
c. 7.
d. 9. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
45. (009) Regarding training, a superintendent must emphasize to an Airman that
a. training is key to the success of the Air Force.
b. advanced specialty training occurs as the trainee gains experience.
c. completing a career development course is the most important form of training.
d. on-the-job training teaches the trainee everything they need to know about the job. |
|
Definition
| a. training is key to the success of the Air Force. |
|
|
Term
46. (009) What is a senior noncommissioned officer (SNCO) primary purpose?
a. Career progression.
b. Maintain readiness.
c. Mission accomplishment.
d. Review evaluation reports. |
|
Definition
| c. Mission accomplishment. |
|
|
Term
47. (009) What rank transitions from being technical experts and first line supervisors to leaders with
operational competence?
a. Staff sergeants.
b. Technical sergeants.
c. Master sergeants.
d. Senior master sergeants. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
48. (009) These are experienced operational leaders, skilled at merging subordinates’ talents, skills,
and resources with other teams’ functions to most effectively accomplish the mission.
a. Technical sergeants.
b. Master sergeants.
c. Senior master sergeants.
d. Chief master sergeants. |
|
Definition
| c. Senior master sergeants. |
|
|
Term
49. (009) What enlisted rank must epitomize the finest qualities of a military leader and develop
future enlisted leaders?
a. Technical sergeants.
b. Master sergeants.
c. Senior master sergeants.
d. Chief master sergeants. |
|
Definition
| d. Chief master sergeants. |
|
|
Term
50. (010) The strategy of the Air Force on-the job training (OJT) program provides realistic and
flexible training by using all of the following capabilities except
a. managing.
b. executing.
c. enhancing.
d. developing. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
51. (010) The Air Force on-the job (OJT) program consists of all of the following components except
job
a. satisfaction.
b. proficiency.
c. knowledge.
d. experience. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
52. (010) What is key to the total training program?
a. Career development courses (CDCs).
b. Specialty knowledge test (SKT).
c. On-the job training (OJT).
d. Upgrade training (UGT). |
|
Definition
| d. Upgrade training (UGT). |
|
|
Term
53. (010) What training title is awarded after personnel complete a mandatory career development
course (CDC), all core tasks identified in the career field education and training plan (CFETP),
and other duty position tasks?
a. Apprentice.
b. Journeyman.
c. Craftsman.
d. Superintendent. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
54. (010) This type of training is defined as specialized, systematic and/or thorough technical training
provided to enhance specific knowledge needs of each person involved in the training.
a. Initial skills.
b. On-the job.
c. Upgrade.
d. In-house. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
55. (011) As a supervisor, what do you require to develop a Master Training Plan (MTP) used to
manage work center and individual training?
a. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
b. Career Development Course (CDC).
c. Specialty Training Standard (STS).
d. Job Qualification Standard (JQS). |
|
Definition
| a. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). |
|
|
Term
56. (011) What document identifies all day-to day mission requirements, core tasks, in-garrison and
contingency tasks, and additional duties performed in the work center?
a. Specialty Training Standard.
b. Job Qualification Standard.
c. Master Training Plan.
d. Master Task List. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
57. (011) Who is responsible for initiating personnel action on trainees entering, completing, or
withdrawing from training?
a. Supervisors.
b. Unit training managers.
c. Career Assistance Advisors.
d. Air Force Career Field Managers. |
|
Definition
| b. Unit training managers. |
|
|
Term
58. (011) The focal point of the Air Force training program is the
a. trainee.
b. trainer.
c. supervisor.
d. unit training manager. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
59. (011) Why is it important to document interruptions to upgrade training, such as leave or
temporary duty, on the AF IMT 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet?
a. So the unit training manager (UTM) can reference the dates.
b. So the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) can reference the dates.
c. In case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training and the course material.
d. In case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training, documentation can be referenced. |
|
Definition
| d. In case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training, documentation can be referenced. |
|
|
Term
60. (011) All of the following are the trainee’s responsibilities in the upgrade training process except
a. documenting training progress on AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation
Sheet.
b. budgeting on- and off-duty time to complete assigned training tasks.
c. comprehending the applicable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
requirements and career path.
d. acknowledging and documenting task qualification upon completion of training.
Please |
|
Definition
a. documenting training progress on AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation
Sheet. |
|
|
Term
61. (012) Why is it important to develop and implement control measures when dealing with
classified material?
a. So you know where the classified information is kept.
b. To keep track of the people dealing with the classified material.
c. So security forces knows where the classified information is kept.
d. To decrease the possibility of classified information falling into the wrong hands. |
|
Definition
| d. To decrease the possibility of classified information falling into the wrong hands. |
|
|
Term
62. (012) Which is not an installation security program manager’s program responsibility?
a. Recognizing the training efforts of effective security managers publicly.
b. Assessing the effectiveness of training programs as part of the information security program
review.
c. Indoctrinating personnel to the investigation position code reflected in the unit manpower
document.
d. Developing and conducting classroom or one-on-one training for newly appointed security
managers. |
|
Definition
c. Indoctrinating personnel to the investigation position code reflected in the unit manpower
document. |
|
|
Term
63. (012) Within how many days of assignment to the unit must supervisors ensure their cleared
personnel receive an initial security education orientation before they access classified
information?
a. 90.
b. 120.
c. 150.
d. 180. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
64. (012) Which application is used only by adjudicative personnel and provides capabilities such as
case management and adjudicative history and summary?
a. Joint Clearance and Access Verification System (JCAVS).
b. Joint Adjudication Management System (JAMS).
c. Personnel Occupying Information System (POIS).
d. Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS). |
|
Definition
| b. Joint Adjudication Management System (JAMS). |
|
|
Term
65. (012) Which application is used for providing capabilities such as access indoctrination,
debriefing history, incident and issue file reporting, history, and management of unit personnel
security functions?
a. Joint Clearance and Access Verification System (JCAVS).
b. Joint Adjudication Management System (JAMS).
c. Personnel Occupying Information System (POIS).
d. Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS). |
|
Definition
| a. Joint Clearance and Access Verification System (JCAVS). |
|
|
Term
66. (012) It is important to use the SF 312, Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement, when
granting an individual access to classified information to ensure
a. all necessary access steps have been completed.
b. the security manager sends the proper form to be filed in archives.
c. you include this form as part of the Field Record Group.
d. you have a source document signed and dated by the individual. |
|
Definition
| d. you have a source document signed and dated by the individual. |
|
|
Term
67. (012) When a individual refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) for access to classified
information, the commander or staff agency chief does all of the following except
a. initiates a security incident report.
b. denies the individual access to classified information.
c. initiates action to establish a Security Information File (SIF).
d. grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signed. |
|
Definition
| d. grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signed. |
|
|
Term
68. (012) It is important for the commander or staff agency chief to complete a three-step process
against an individual who refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) because the
a. refusal may initiate removal from the squadron.
b. refusal may be indicative of suspicious or negative behavior.
c. commander may be required to interview the member a second time.
d. commander may be required to refer the individual to another commander. |
|
Definition
| b. refusal may be indicative of suspicious or negative behavior. |
|
|
Term
69. (012) Why is it imperative to complete the four-step authorization process when confirming a
person’s level of access to classified information?
a. Because each step is an intricate part of the “go, no-go” process.
b. Because each step is an intricate piece of the “checks and balance” process.
c. You will be unable to process the request, and therefore, the person will not get access.
d. You will be unable to process the request, no access is granted, and the process is repeated. |
|
Definition
| b. Because each step is an intricate piece of the “checks and balance” process. |
|
|
Term
70. (012) Authority to grant security clearance access to persons outside the Executive Branch
without a previous clearance may not be delegated below the
a. Mission support group (MSG) commander.
b. Major command (MAJCOM) commander.
c. Numbered Air Force (NAF) commander.
d. Wing (WG) commander. |
|
Definition
| b. Major command (MAJCOM) commander. |
|
|
Term
71. (013) Why is it important to consider your environment when hand carrying sensitive material?
a. The material may get confiscated by unauthorized personnel.
b. The material may not be important enough to hand carry.
c. The foreign government may want to take it from you.
d. To avoid bringing unwanted attention to yourself. |
|
Definition
| a. The material may get confiscated by unauthorized personnel. |
|
|
Term
72. (013) When transporting laptops and disks, couriers must do all of the following except
a. password protect laptops.
b. erase laptops and disks completely before transporting.
c. wrap or secure classified media within a container if outer markings are visible.
d. mark laptops and disks according to DOD 5200.1R, Information Security Program. |
|
Definition
| b. erase laptops and disks completely before transporting. |
|
|
Term
73. (013) Personnel who need to transport classified material will use the Department of State courier
system to transport
a. through secret internet protocol router networks.
b. from one storage unit to an available storage unit.
c. through or within countries hostile to the United States.
d. through or within a military installation in the United States. |
|
Definition
| c. through or within countries hostile to the United States. |
|
|
Term
74. (013) Classified communications security (COMSEC) information may not be transmitted
a. during duty hours.
b. over the weekend.
c. after hours.
d. overnight. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
75. (013) Who is responsible for making sure an authorized person is available to receive a secure
package on a holiday and to verify the correct mailing address?
a. Sender.
b. Shipper.
c. Receiver.
d. Supplier. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
76. (014) Which is not considered one of the five principles of good communication?
a. Focus.
b. Justification.
c. Organization.
d. Understanding. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
77. (014) How many effective communication steps are needed to become a better communicator
whether you are writing or speaking?
a. Three.
b. Five.
c. Seven.
d. Nine. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
78. (014) In order to be successful when communicating with your audience, use all of the following
tips except
a. being inclusive.
b. being original.
c. extending courtesy.
d. making it personal. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
79. (014) Use all of the following approaches when researching your topic to uncover information
that supports your communication goals except
a. assign a deadline.
b. determine what is known.
c. review the purpose and scope of the overall project.
d. avoid asking your supervisor until you have all information to present. |
|
Definition
| d. avoid asking your supervisor until you have all information to present. |
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Term
80. (014) What rule of e-mail communication would you use to make sure the subject line
communicates your purpose?
a. Be selective about the message you send.
b. Keep your e-mail under control.
c. Be clear and concise.
d. Watch your tone. |
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Definition
|
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Term
81. (014) What e-mail communication rule is violated if you discuss controversial, sensitive, official
use only, classified, personal, or privacy act information?
a. Be selective about who received your message.
b. Be selective about the message you send.
c. Keep your e-mail under control.
d. Be clear and concise. |
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Definition
| a. Be selective about who received your message. |
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Term
82. (015) A member’s date of enlistment (DOE), or day entering an extension, requires an E63 update
be input into the military personnel data system (MILPDS) no earlier than
a. 30 days prior.
b. 60 days prior.
c. 90 days prior.
d. 120 days prior. |
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Definition
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Term
83. (015) What Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to change an initial E63
projection prior to the effective date of a reenlistment action?
a. E63.
b. E64.
c. E6D.
d. E6F. |
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Definition
|
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Term
84. (015) Which Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to change a date of separation
only in the Master Military Pay Account (MMPA)?
a. E6C.
b. E6F.
c. TU4.
d. TU5. |
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Definition
|
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Term
85. (015) What Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to cancel an extension prior to
the effective date and is automatically output when the extension is cancelled?
a. E6F.
b. TU4.
c. TU5.
d. TU6. |
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Definition
|
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Term
86. (015) What Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) reject code appears when a
reenlistments clerk updates a reenlistment or extension, but does not include the obligated
service?
a. BDE.
b. DJM.
c. RDJ.
d. VAM. |
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Definition
|
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Term
87. (016) An individual cannot change a Military Personnel Data System (MILPDS) standard
product. Who designs and controls those products?
a. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).
b. Military Personnel Section (MPS).
c. Personnel System Manager (PSM).
d. Major Command (MAJCOM). |
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Definition
| a. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC). |
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Term
88. (016) How often are transaction registers (TR) programmatically controlled and produced?
a. Daily.
b. Weekly.
c. Monthly.
d. Quarterly. |
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Definition
|
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Term
89. (017) What agency, or individual, coordinates on all suggested changes and/or improvements to
management assessment products (MAP)?
a. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).
b. Military Personnel Section (MPS).
c. Personnel System Manager (PSM).
d. Major Command (MAJCOM). |
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Definition
| c. Personnel System Manager (PSM). |
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Term
90. (017) What management assessment product (MAP) reflects an inbound member’s name if the
member contacts customer service stating a sponsor has not been assigned?
a. 7A, CUSTSVC-NO SPONSOR.
b. 7B, EMPLOYMENTS-EXPIRED DS-LOST TIME.
c. 13A, RELOC-NOTIFICATION NOT ON FILE.
d. 13B, RELOC-PPC-PRP. |
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Definition
| a. 7A, CUSTSVC-NO SPONSOR. |
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Term
91. (017) What management assessment product (MAP) would a member’s name be reflected on if
administrative certification under the personnel reliability program (PRP) is required and the
member is projected to Minot AFB, ND?
a. MAP 7B, EMPLOYMENTS-EXPIRED DS-LOST TIME.
b. MAP 10, RELOC-AAC.
c. MAP 13B, RELOC-PPC-PRP.
d. MAP 15, EMPLOYMENTS-FUNCTCAT. |
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Definition
| c. MAP 13B, RELOC-PPC-PRP. |
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Term
92. (017) What management assessment product (MAP) can the career development section use to
ensure database integrity if a member is projected for a permanent change of station (PCS) and is
demoted before departing?
a. MAP 6, ENHANCEMENT-QUALITY-CHECK.
b. MAP 8, EMPLOYMENTS-EXPIRED DS-LOST TIME.
c. MAP 10, RELOC-AAC.
d. MAP 13A, RELOCATION-NOTIFICATION NOT ON FILE. |
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Definition
| a. MAP 6, ENHANCEMENT-QUALITY-CHECK. |
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