Which statement identifies the various forms of acts Congress uses to control government
contracting?

Enabling and procedural acts, authorization acts and appropriations acts.

What agency’s objective is to provide aid and counseling to small businesses?

Small Business Administration.

Which party is the contractor?

Third party.

What are the two categories of actual authority?

Express and implied.

When government personnel make a mistake, the US Supreme Court has stated that rather than adopt a rule that might injure the public, it is better

for an individual to occasionally suffer from the mistakes.

Who is responsible for ascertaining whether government agents are acting within the bounds of their authority?

The contractor.

The elements of equitable estoppel include all of the following except the

contractor did not reasonably and innocently rely on the acts of the government. 

Cases filed under the doctrine of estoppel are generally decided on the issue of

whether the contractor acted reasonably and innocently.

A CO appointment must be reviewed at least

every two years

Which statement concerning the CO’s appointment or termination is true?

In no event will the termination of a CO be retroactive.

Which statement about the offeree is correct?

Only the intended offeree can accept the offer.

Which statement about an offer is correct?

The offer must be so definite that the performance to be rendered by each party is reasonably certain.

An offeror’s withdrawal of an offer before acceptance is called a

revocation.

Which statement about communicating acceptance of a contract is true?

If the time, place, and means of communication are expressed by the offeror, no other time,place, or means will constitute an acceptance.

What is the name given to the exchange of promises?

Consideration.

What is meant by adequate consideration?

The consideration in the exchange is a fair bargain.

What is meant by the term "competent" in regards to a contracting party?

Having the mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound.

Which individual would be considered competent to enter into a contract?

A 23-year-old car salesperson.

As a general rule, a contract that violates a statute is

unlawful and void and will not be enforced.

Under the clean hands doctrine, an individual may enforce an illegal contract when

the innocent party to the contract is in the class of persons for whom the law is designed to protect.

Which situation would preclude a ratification?

Government not obtaining a benefit from the performance.

What action may be taken for a nonratifiable commitment?

Resolution by the GAO claim procedures.

What publications series represents Contracting?

64

Which AFI defines the roles and responsibilities of positions within the operational contracting squadron?

AFI 64-102.

FAR is issued under the joint authority of the

Administrator of General Services, the Secretary of Defense, and the Administrator of the NASA.

What councils prepare all FAR revisions?

DAR Council and the CAA Council.

What is meant by implementing FAR?

Providing agency procedures to carry out the prescriptions in FAR.

Which DFARS reference identifies supplemental information?

219.502–2–70.

DFARS is updated

quarterly.

 In determining the action to take in a specific case requiring a contract adjustment, the Comptroller General Decisions are referred to and used as

rulings.

Where are short briefs of new Comptroller General Decisions located?

Federal Register.

A government action may be protested by

an interested party.

Once an agency is notified by telephone that a protest has been filed, the agency (under
most circumstances) has how many days to submit a complete report to GAO?

30

When an agency receives notice of a protest from GAO within 10 days after contract award or within five days after a debriefing date, the contracting officer immediately

suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract.

How many days does an interested party have to protest after the basis of a protest is known, or should have been known?

no later than 10 days

How many days does GAO have to issue its recommendation on a protest?

100

What action may the contractor take when a dispute cannot be resolved by mutual
agreement of the contracting parties?

Submit a claim under the Disputes clause.

Contractor claims must be submitted to the CO for a decision within

six years after accrual of the claim.

Who is responsible for reviewing the contracting officer’s final decision on claims
exceeding $100,000 prior to sending the decision to the contractor?

Air Force Material Command Law Center.

If the contracting officer decides the contractor should be compensated for a claim, when is the amount paid to the contractor?

As soon as possible without waiting for any appeal.

How long after the contracting officer’s final decision does the contractor have to appeal to ASBCA?

90 days from the receipt of the contracting officer’s decision.

Upon learning of an appeal to ASBCA, the contracting officer must comply with Rule 4 of the ASBCA rules found in

DFARS Appendix A.

Two techniques of ADR are

mediation and arbitration.

Which government requirement is violated when the wrong “color of money” is used?

Misappropriations Act.

What act is violated when an organization obligates more funds than are available?

Anti-Deficiency Act.

The Bona-Fide Need rule requires current year funds be obligated

in the same year the government will use the supplies or services.

O&M funds are categorized as what type of appropriation?

Annual

NAFs are generated through

Morale, Welfare and Recreational facilities.

Who directs the overall operation of NAF services facilities at an installation?

Force Support Squadron Commander.

What part of FAR determines whether to include contract financing through progress
payments?

Part 32

The aggregate of commercial advance payments cannot exceed what amount of the contract price?

15%

Whose job is it to ensure the local purchase program effectively meets customer needs
while complying with all applicable statutes, executive orders, regulations, and AFIs?

Contracting squadron commander.

Which position is responsible for managing the socio-economic and other public policy
programs?

Director of business operations.

Which is not a function of the contracting superintendent?

Appointing COs.

A CO responsibility includes

ensuring contractors receive equitable treatment.

Who is responsible for precisely describing a requirement in a purchase request?

Customer

What is a purpose of the customer education program?

Develop open lines of communication.

Which of the following topics is used for contractor education activities?

Federal wage rates.

The Prompt Payment Act requires that final payment of construction contracts be made
within

30 days of acceptance by the government.

What contractor education method may be used to assist new small business concerns
achieve a clear and mutual understanding of all contract requirements?

Post-award orientation.

What skill level identifies a contracting journeyman?

6C051

What tool assists the contracting management team in determining whether or not a unit is in compliance with applicable laws and regulations?

Self-inspection program.

What program is designed to prevent sensitive information from getting into the wrong hands?

OPSEC

What is the definition of a classified contract?

Any contract that requires, or may require, access to classified information by the contractor in the performance of the contract.

Who is responsible for identifying safety hazards?

All personnel

Who must comply with OSHA requirements?

Contractors and government employees.

What document must contractors and vendors submit when they supply hazardous
materials to the government?

Material Safety Data Sheet.

Products or services that have a lesser negative effect on human health or the environment when compared with competing products or services that serve the same purpose are known as

environmentally preferable.

The Buy American Act allows exceptions for articles, materials, and supplies purchased

specifically for commissary resale.

What action should the CO take if contract award is made on the nonqualifying country
offer and the duty is exempted by the Duty-Free clause?

Award the contract at the offered price minus the amount of duty.

Which contract type may be used when it is possible to negotiate a fair and reasonable firmfixed-price for an initial period, but not for subsequent periods of performance?

Fixed-price with prospective price redetermination.

Incentive contracts are appropriate when the

firm-fixed-price contract is not appropriate 

What three types of predetermined, formula-type incentives may be used?

Cost, delivery, and performance.

Which incentive arrangement should motivate contractors to strive for outstanding results in all incentive areas?

Multiple-incentive arrangement.

When the government cannot use other incentives in fixed-price contracts because it cannot objectively measure contractor performance, it motivates the contractor by using

award-fee provisions.

Which written preliminary contractual instrument immediately authorizes a contractor to begin manufacturing supplies or performing services?

Letter contract

When a contractor will acquire materials and services based on direct labor hours at
specified fixed hourly rates, the appropriate contract is

Time and materials

Which of the following contracts provide no positive profit incentive to the contractor for
cost control or labor efficiency?

Time and materials

Which contract type does not require execution of a determination and finding prior to use?

Fixed-price

The purpose of simplified acquisition procedures is to

reduce administrative costs and the administrative burden on the contractor.

Solicitations and contracts for the acquisition of commercial items are prepared on Standard Form

1449

When may a contractor be issued a GPC?

Never

The micro-purchase threshold for supply purchases made by an overseas cardholder from a CONUS vendor for use overseas is

$3,000.00

An SF44 may be used when

a single delivery and a single payment will be made.

Performance-based acquisition

allows contractors the latitude to meet contract objectives.

Sealed bidding should not be used for construction contracts when

it is necessary to conduct discussions with offerors.

What factors are multiplied against standard prices in a SABER contract and include cost
elements such as overhead and G&A expenses?

Coefficients

A SABER contract

complements the traditional construction program.

Contracts for professional services of an architectural or engineering nature that must be performed or approved by a person licensed, registered, or certified to provide such services are known as

architect-engineer services contracts.

What is the statutory limitation on the contract fee for A-E services for the preparation of designs, plans, drawings, and specifications?

Six percent of the project’s estimated cost to complete construction.

What clause must be included in the contract if the government requires the contractor to design the project so that construction costs will not exceed a specified amount due to a fundinglimitation?

Design within Funding Limitations clause.

Which of the following is a characteristic of agreements?

Establishes the ground work for future contracts.

The government can exercise its right to the option period

without further negotiation or agreement with the contractor.

Benefits of options include increased

competition

What type of contracting instrument would have the letter “M” in the ninth position of the PIIN?

Manual purchase order

Solicitations types using the letter “R” in the procurement instrument identification number (PIIN) represent

RFP

The commercial contract format uses the

SF 1449

When using the UCF, which section title would you find under Part I – The Schedule?

Contract Administration Data

When using the UCF you include lengthy specifications in

Section J

When using the UCF, which section contains evaluation factors for award?

Section M

The purpose of acquisition planning is to

maximize competition.

Planning must take place

as soon as an agency need is identified.

According to OMB Circular A-76, during competitive sourcing the government competes with

industry

Leadership of an acquisition team may be shared between the CO and

the program manager

Which of the following acquisition team members provides cost proposal analysis support?

Auditor

An SASS is required for acquisitions with a dollar value

between the SAT and $8M.

Strategic sourcing focus areas are identified by

spend analysis.

In order to understand the constant changes in organizational spend the process of strategic sourcing must be performed

continuously

In what phase of the strategic sourcing process is a solicitation issued?

Execution

When conducting market research, the extent of research is normally based on

urgency of the requirement.

Market research may be used to

determine if a price is fair and reasonable.

What specific information is included in a market research report?

Constraints to competition.

When evaluating purchase requests, ensure descriptions are defined in terms that

encourage the use of commercial items.

What action should a CO take when a purchase request contains an unreasonable delivery date?

Consult with customer and document discussions.

An IGE is required for all construction requirements exceeding

$150,000.

When conducting an initial review of a requirements document ensure that purchase descriptions

are arranged in a logical manner.

Failure to use clear and concise language may increase the

potential for a contract claim.

Construction specifications follow which format?

CSI Format

A properly written statement of work facilitates

preparation of responsive proposals.

A PWS normally includes which of the following elements?

Performance requirements.

Which requirements document cites key agency goals and allows maximum flexibility of an offeror to propose an innovative approach?

SOO

A lease versus purchase determination is required when equipment will be leased for more than

60 days

Why are contractors required to mark supplies, or otherwise furnish notice with the supplies, of the existence of a warranty?

Inform government personnel who store, stock, or use the supplies.

The implied warranty of merchantability provides that an item

is reasonably fit for the ordinary purposes for which such items are used.

The principal purpose of a warranty is to delineate the rights and obligations of the
contractor and the government for defective items and services and to

foster quality performance.

Brand name requirements must be supported by a

justification and approval.

Brand name justifications should describe unique capabilities and

the impact on the mission if substituted.

Who has the final authority for determining adequacy of a sole source justification?

Contracting officer.

Which online business system provides data on federal contract actions over $3,000?

FPDS-NG.

What FAR part prescribes policy for contracting with small businesses?

FAR Part 19

Small business size standards are established on an industry-by-industry basis according to the

NAICS

Which socio-economic category includes the 8(a) program?

SDB

Designating a competition advocate for each contracting activity is a requirement of the

Office of Federal Procurement Policy Act

The approval authority for justification and approval (J&A) actions over $650,000, but not exceeding $12.5 million?

Competition advocate.

Which of the following scenarios require the CO to promote competition to the maximum
extent practicable?

$3,500 open market supply purchase.

When placing an order against a federal supply schedule expected to exceed the SAT, the CO is required to place the order

on a competitive basis using e-Buy.

All of the following are examples of competitive procedures except

brand name requirements.

Which of the following exceptions to full and open competition must be supported by a
determination and finding?

Establishing or maintaining alternative sources.

Small business specialists are required to review all acquisitions at what minimum
threshold?

$10,000.

What dollar amount is automatically reserved for small business concerns?

Between $3,000 and $150,000.

What FAR Part 6 exception satisfies the requirement for sole source and brand name
justifications?

Only one responsible source will satisfy agency requirements.

What FAR Part 6 exception must be supported by a determination and finding?

Public interest.

What special form of written approval is used by an authorized official as a prerequisite to taking certain contracting actions?

Determination and finding.

The “findings” in determination and findings means that

a statement of fact or rationale essential to support the determination.

A determination and finding does not include

a specific contract type and contract amount.

Within how many days after contract award must a J&A be made available to the public
through the GPE?

14 Days

Which form of security ensures that a bidder will not withdraw a bid within the period
specified for acceptance?

Irrevocable Letter of Cradit

Which act requires performance and payment bonds for any domestic construction contract expected to exceed the SAT?

Miller Act

Which form of protection guarantees payment to all persons supplying labor or material in performing contract work?

Payment Bond

When clause 52.228-5 is included in a contract, COs request and receive proof of insurance

before the contractor begins work.

When a contractor is required to obtain insurance for work on a government installation, the minimum acceptable insurance coverage for employer’s liability is

$100,000

The SF 1094

establishes that the purchase is being made by the government.

Clauses may be applied

to both solicitations and contracts.

Because of the broad range of items acquired by the government, the variations in commercial practices, and the relative volume of the government’s acquisition in specific markets, contracting officers may

tailor provisions to adapt to the market conditions for each acquisition.

How is tailoring accomplished?

By addenda to the solicitation and contract.

Clauses 52.212-1 and 52.212-4 are incorporated into commercial contracts by reference by checking block

27a of the SF 1449.

Which of the following statements regarding the inclusion of 52.212-2 in solicitations is
true?

Solicitation must state the relative importance of evaluation factors when using SAPs.

When using the streamlined procedures of FAR Part 12

post only a detailed summary describing the requirement to GPE.

It is common practice in the commercial marketplace for

both the buyer and seller to propose terms and conditions written from their particular
perspectives.

The terms and conditions of FAR Part 12

seek to balance the interests of both the buyer and seller.

Oral solicitations must be used to the maximum extent practicable when which condition exists?

The acquisition exceeds the micro-purchase threshold.

Solicitations issued using SAPs are referred to as

request for quotes.

RFQs are issued using the

commercial contract format.

Amendments to RFQs are

issued using the SF 30.

What FAR Part procedures may be followed when issuing RFQs?

FAR Part 15.

Formal solicitations exceeding the SAT and issued in negotiated acquisitions are referred to as

request for proposals.

What part of the uniform contract format contains sections K through M?

Part 4.

Which statement regarding the LPTA source selection technique is true?

Proposals are only evaluated for acceptability.

Which statement best describes oral presentations?

They may be a substitute for written information.

Section L of a solicitation

provides instructions to offerors in preparing their proposals.

When negotiated procedures are used for construction that is expected to exceed the SAT, which form is used?

SF 1442

In terms of physical characteristics and estimated price range, advance notices and
solicitations for a requirement must state

the project magnitude.

What act applies to construction contracts in excess of $2,000?

Davis-Bacon Act

Who decides if a preproposal conference is required and makes the necessary
arrangements?

Contracting Officer

Which of the following best describes a preproposal conference?

May be held after a solicitation is issued but before offers are submitted.

Site visits should allow prospective offerors the opportunity to

examine any government data available that may provide information concerning the
performing of work.

Which of the following best describes a site visit?

Site information must be made available to all offerors.

Which circumstance would justify canceling an RFP before closing?

Changes are so substantial that additional sources likely would have submitted offers.

What happens to unopened offeror proposals after an RFP is cancelled?

Returned to the offeror unopened.

When using sealed bidding, discussions are

not permitted

When the UCF is used for sealed bidding, prepare the IFB on an

SF 33

What additional product information may be requested of offerors to ensure that multiple
products meet the requirements of an IFB?

Descriptive literature

A pre-bid conference

is used in complex acquisitions as a means to explain complicated specifications.

Early exchanges of information when using sealed bidding is

encouraged from the earliest identification of a requirement through receipt of bids.

Amendments to IFBs may change any of the following except

contract type

Contract actions are publicized according to FAR Part

5

Contract actions exceeding $15,000 but less than $25,000 and displayed in a public place must remain posted for how many days?

10

When establishing solicitation response times for the acquisition of commercial items, how many days must a requirement exceeding $25,000 be posted?

A reasonable time

Which of the following is not an exception to synopsizing?

The proposed contract action is an end-of-fiscal year requirement and funds will be lost if the contract is not awarded.

What FedBizOpps template may be used to determine the availability of commercial
sources or conducting market research?

Sources Sought

Which standards are used to determine contractor responsibility before making an award to a contractor?

Resources, performance record, and eligibility.

A contractor excluded from government contracting for a reasonable, specified period of time because of conviction on a criminal offense in connection with obtaining a public contract is

debarred

What action should be taken if legal proceedings are not initiated within 12 months after the date of a suspension notice?

Terminate the suspension

Which of the following systems is not used in making a determination of contractor
responsibility?

Dun and Bradstreet System (D&B).

What action must a contracting officer (CO) take in the absence of information clearly
indicating that a prospective contractor is responsible?

Make a determination of nonresponsibility.

What does the Small Business Administration issue as assurance that a small business has been determined responsible for the purpose of receiving and performing a specific government contract?

Certificate of Competency (COC)

When an offeror proposes more than one product that will meet the government’s need, how are the offers evaluated?

Evaluate each product as a separate offer.

Prepare the award of commercial items on the

SF 1449

To the maximum extent possible, purchase orders for commercial items should include only those clauses required to implement provisions of law, or executive order, and

those clauses that are determined to be consistent with prevailing commercial practice.

The simplified acquisition procedures of FAR Part 13 may be combined with

FAR Part 12, Commercial Procedures, for

acquisitions up to the simplified acquisition threshold.

Requirements solicited using simplified acquisition procedures (SAP) are typically
evaluated on

price alone

Options are evaluated by

adding the total price for all options to the total price for the basic requirement.

What may be used in lieu of obtaining individual quotations each time a purchase for the same item is contemplated?

Standing price quotation

A purchase order must

provide for inspection terms.

When only one reply is received in response to a solicitation estimated at less than the
simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), what action must the contracting officer take before making the award?

Include a statement in the contract file giving the basis of the determination of fair and reasonable price.

What clause must be included in an unpriced purchase order?

Notice to supplier

Which section of a blanket purchase agreement contains accounting and appropriation data?

Accounting and appropriation data are not cited.

In order to cancel a blanket purchasing agreement a contractor must give how many days written notice to the government?

30 Days

Calls placed against a prepriced blanket purchase agreement

must be placed by an authorized caller.

The cover page and each page containing source selection information must be marked

Source Selection Information—See FAR 2.101 and 3.104.

All personnel involved in source selections must

sign a non-disclosure agreement.

What action must a contracting officer (CO) take when a late proposal is received?

Provide a notice of late receipt and indicate whether or not the offer will be considered.

Can a proposal be withdrawn at any time before award?

Yes, by written notice at any time before award.

One indicator of an offeror’s ability to perform the contract is

by evaluating past performance.

Relevancy may be used in a past performance evaluation to

measure similarities in contract efforts.

When determining which offerors to include in the competitive range, the contracting
officer

includes all of the most highly rated proposals.

What action is appropriate when the contracting officer decides that a proposal should not be included in the competitive range?

Eliminate it from award consideration and notify the offeror.

When may an offeror be permitted to revise its proposal?

At the conclusion of discussions.

Price analysis is preferred over cost analysis because it

is less time-consuming.

When analyzing price which of the following is not a condition for using previously
proposed prices?

The reasonableness of the price is not uncertain.

Which price analysis technique makes comparisons based on factors such as price per square foot?

Cost estimating affiliation.

When using an independent government estimate (IGE) to conduct price analysis, the IGE must

include a basis for the estimate using validated data.

Cost analysis provides the basis for

negotiating contract pricing arrangements.

What factors are considered in determining whether a cost is allowable?

Standards established by Cost Accounting Standard Board.

Which is a direct cost?

The cost of doors for the building being constructed.

An example of overhead costs is

payroll insurance

What type of indirect cost is over and above allowable costs?

Profit

An offeror is required to submit and certify cost or pricing data for a

$750,000 non-commercial item acquisition.

Certified cost or pricing data is required

for termination settlements exceeding the Truth In Negotiations Act (TINA) threshold.

When requesting price information other than cost or pricing data

use the data for cost realism analysis.

Which of the following regarding other than cost or pricing data is true?

It may only be used to the extent necessary to determine price reasonableness.

Which of the following exchanges allow for negotiating with offerors and allows for
revising proposals?

Discussions

A contracting officer must use discussions to

allow offerors to respond to adverse past performance information.

What helps the contracting officer negotiate a fair and reasonable price when information at the buying office is inadequate?

Field pricing support

When developing prenegotiation positions in noncompetitive acquisitions

establish minimum, objective, and maximum price positions.

How should the physical environment enhance win/win outcomes?

Gives other side the perception of being treated fairly.

Many negotiators are unable to make material concessions because

their opening position is too close to their expectation level.

How should you handle weaknesses in your negotiation position during negotiations?

Do not volunteer weaknesses.

Deadlocks in negotiations

are not always avoidable.

What is the best sequence for negotiating areas of disagreement?

No one approach is better than another.

A certificate of current cost or pricing data must be submitted

using the exact wording prescribed by the FAR.

When using lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA), the Source Selection Decision Document (SSDD) must contain all of the following elements except

a comparative analysis of factors.

What contract award form is used for construction, alterations, or repair?

SF 1442

The contracting officer provides written notice of award to the unsuccessful offerors within how many days?

3

Post-award debriefings should be conducted

within 5 days after the request is received.

Which of the following regarding post award debriefings is true?

Must be requested by unsuccessful offerors within 5 days after notification of award.

Who can postpone a bid opening (even after the time scheduled) when there is reason to
believe that causes beyond the bidders’ control and without their fault or negligence caused a delay?

Contracting Officer

A bidder may modify or withdraw its bid

not later than the exact time set for the opening of bids.

To be considered for award, a bid

must comply with the instructions of the invitation.

Which is not an example of an apparent clerical mistake?

Representation error with respect to Affirmative Action Programs.

In order to get an advanced decision before award determination, queries concerning
doubtful cases of mistakes in bids are submitted to the

Comptroller General

If two or more bidders still remain equally eligible after ranking in order of priority, the
award is made by

drawing lots with only the equal bidders participating.

The contracting officer examines the situation to determine why there was a small number of responses to the invitation for bids when

three or fewer bids are received.

Contract awards resulting from sealed bidding are generally made using

SF 26, SF 33, or SF 1447.

A government action may be protested by

an interested party.

Which system is used to report contract actions?

Federal Procurement Data System-Next Generation (FPDS-NG).

Which has responsibility for the accuracy and the submission of individual contract action reports?

Contracting Officer

Which contract action is not reportable?

Purchases made at AbilityOne service stores.

After execution by all parties, copies of contracts or modifications must be distributed within

10 Days

In-process inspection of commercial items by the government

must be conducted in a manner consistent with commercial practice.

Acceptance may not take place

after payment is made.

Acceptance of noncomplex commercial items is prescribed in

52.212–4, Contract Terms and Conditions—Commercial Items.

Ordinarily, what option is given to the contractor because of a notice of rejection for nonconformance?

Correct or replace any nonconforming supplies at no additional cost to the government.

When delivery is late on a commodities contract, the government may take any of the actions except

terminate the contract for default in accordance with Part 12 of the FAR.

Which Web-based system provides for electronic invoicing, receipt, and acceptance?

Wide Area Workflow (WAWF).

To adhere to prompt payment guidelines, payment is due within how many days after
government acceptance of supplies?

30 days

Records of contractor performance are managed in the

Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS).

Which types of copies of contractual instruments can become part of the official contract file?

Original, authenticated copies, or conformed copies.

Which action must be taken prior to providing a contractor with preliminary notice of the government’s intent to exercise an option?

Validate the requirement

Unless otherwise specified, the government typically must provide how many days notice of its intent to exercise an option period?

60

What option does the government have if it fails to provide the necessary notifications
required by the contract and still desires to exercise an option period?

Issue a bilateral modification and obtain contractor concurrence.

Which is not required to be accomplished by the contracting officer (CO) to exercise an
option?

Obtain Representations and Certifications.

The authority to make changes to an existing contract is not extended to

qualified contracting officer representatives to make constructive changes to contracts.

A modification in which all adjustments regarding cost, time, scope, and other consideration have been decided and required no further modification to complete contract change is known as

a definitized modification.

What modification authority must be cited when making administrative changes to a
contract using the SF 30?

No further authority must be cited.

What modification authority must be used when no specific clause can be cited?

Mutual Agreement of the Parties.

Unilateral modifications may be used for all except

make changes authorized by the Changes clause.

When you are processing administrative changes, all may be processed as administrative changes except

correcting errors in unit price.

When you are processing an administrative change, which is required?

Check block 13B of the SF 30.

A change order

may be issued unilaterally.

Changes authorized in fixed-price contracts for supplies include all except

directed acceleration in performance of work.

The contracting officer has grounds to terminate a contractor for default when

there is an actual failure or fails to progress to perform contractual obligations.

The contracting officer shall issue a no-cost settlement instead of a termination notice when

it is known that the contractor will accept one.

A notice for termination can be rescinded if it is determined that the items had been
completed or shipped before the contractor’s receipt of notice by

amendment of the notice.

How can a termination for convenience of a fixed-price contract be settled?

Inventory basis or total-cost basis.

If a contractor’s failure to perform is due to actions of a subcontractor, will the contractor remain liable for excess costs of repurchase?

Yes, if supplies or services were available from other sources and sufficient time remained for the contractor to meet the required delivery schedule.

Which termination consideration is not considered when determining whether to terminate a contract for default?

Value of contractor assets.

A cure notice is issued when

a specific condition exists that endangers contract performance.

What amount of time is the contractor normally given to correct a failure?

Ten days from the receipt of the cure notice.

What actions will the contracting officer take if the contractor fails to respond to a show
cause notice?

Proceed under the premise that no valid explanation exists.

The show cause notice

is used to notify the contractor of the possibility of termination.

When is the contractor’s right to proceed further under the contract terminated?

Upon receipt of the notice of termination.

When supplies or services are still required after termination for default, the contracting
officer should

repurchase the same or similar supplies or services against the contractor’s account as soon as possible.

The contracting officer should exercise the government’s right to terminate a contract for commercial items only when such a termination

would be in the best interest of the government.

When termination is for the government’s convenience, what may a contractor use to
demonstrate charges resulting from the termination for which the contractor is entitled to be paid?

Records from the contractor’s standard record keeping system.

Under the Contract Terms and Conditions–Commercial Items clause, the contractor is
required to notify the contracting officer of an excusable delay

as soon as possible after commencement of an excusable delay.

A contractor has notified the contracting officer of the intent not to accept a unilateral
purchase order. In this situation, the contracting officer must

proceed with cancellation of the order.

Contract files using simplified acquisition procedures are considered closed when the
contracting officer receives

evidence of receipt of property and final payment.

The DD Form 1597, Contract Closeout Checklist, is used when closing out

contracts valued above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).

Who needs to be notified when a contract containing classified material is complete and ready to be closed?

Defense Security Service.

How would you close a contract if the contractor becomes bankrupt?

Coordinate with the Office of General Counsel.

Data transfer, storage, and retrieval procedures must record and reproduce the original document completely, accurately, and clearly. In addition, the procedures must

protect the original data from alteration.

The retention period for contracts at or below the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) is

three years after final payment.

Follow-up in simplified acquisitions is

done by exception

When delivery is late on a commodities contract, the government may take any actions except

terminate the contract for default in accordance with Part 12 of the FAR.

delivered to a carrier, if transportation is free of board (FOB).

In a commodity contract that has a Variations in Quantity clause, the variations that are allowed by the government are those.

caused by loading, shipping, packing, or allowances within manufacturing processes.

What document is used to guide discussions during a contract post-award conference?

DD Form 1484, Post-Award Conference Record.

A contracting officer (CO) might use a post-award letter in lieu of a conference when

an incumbent contractor is awarded a new contract and the terms have not changed.

A new wage determination must be incorporated into service contracts

when extending the contract pursuant to an option clause.

Which statement regarding wage determinations is correct?

Wage determinations must be incorporated at the time of award or by modification.

Items that must be addressed in a preconstruction conference include all except

termination procedures.

When the government takes possession prior to completion of construction, and without final acceptance, the one-year warranty period begins

at the time the government takes possession.

When bonds are required on a construction contract, the contractor’s notice to proceed is
issued after the

contracting officer has received all executed bonds.

What requires that all work under a construction contract be performed in a skillful manner?

Material and Workmanship clause.

All are corrective actions that may be taken by the contracting officer (CO) if a contractor falls behind the approved schedule except

retain a maximum of 20 percent of the amount of a progress payment.

Which labor standards provisions require all laborers and mechanics employed or working upon the site of construction to be paid unconditionally and not less often than once a week?

Davis-Bacon Act

What type of labor interview is used after detecting errors in labor checks or receipt of a complaint alleging violations?

Special compliance check.

Which labor standards provisions require the contractor to submit weekly copies of all payrolls to the contracting officer and maintain payroll and basic records for a period of three years?

Payrolls and Basic Records

Blanket purchase agreement ordering officer responsibilities include all except

delegating authority to authorized users within their unit.

Contingency

What determines the appropriate certification level and training that contracting personnel should have prior to selection as a contingency contracting officer (CCO)?

The particular tasking

Lead Service Theater Contracting Organization.

A declared contingency may be designated by the

Secretary of Defense

Responsiveness to basic life support requirements (i.e. food services, potable water, etc.) is the main focus of what deployment phase?

Initial Deployment

Which task is not considered a key task in setting up a work center?

Establishing a cutoff date for end-of-year purchases.

All are examples of existing authorities that may be used to provide flexibility in expediting requirements for contingency except

using written solicitations for Requests for Proposal (RFP).

Who determines the priority of purchase requests in a contingency?

Deployed Commander

What document is typically used to initially fund a contingency operation?

AF IMT 616, Fund Cite Authorization.

Which member of a US Embassy essentially operates a contracting office in the host nation and can provide information on local purchasing conditions?

Government Services Officer

Brief deployed commander on support requirements and contract capabilities.

When connectivity issues prevent the reporting of contract actions during a contingency, what action must a contingency contracting officer (CCO) take?

Report the actions upon redeployment.

Which individual has overall responsibility for overseeing the management of decentralized blanket purchase agreements (BPA)?

Contracting Officer

After-action Report