Term
An Airman is qualified in two Air Force specialty codes (AFSC). Which type of AFSC identifies the one in which the Airman is currently performing duty?
a. Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC)
b. Duty Air Force Specialty Code (DAFSC)
c. Primary Air Force specialty code (PAFSC)
d. Control Air Force specialty code (CAFSC) |
|
Definition
| b. Duty Air Force specialty code |
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Term
An Air Force specialty (AFS) is a group of:
a. people requiring common interests
b. numbers requiring similar knowledges
c. letters requiring common qualifications
d. positions requiring common qualifications |
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Definition
| d. positions requiring common qualifications |
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Term
A duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC) is the AFSC (Air Force specialty code):
a. used to identify a specialty
b. in which an individual is best qualified to perform duty
c. used to identify the position in which an individual is performing duty
d. used for enlisted Airman assignments, training requirements, and promotions |
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Definition
| c. used to identify the position in which an individual is performing duty |
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Term
A group of closely related Air Force specialties (AFS) requiring basically the same knoledge and skills is known as a
a. career field
b. duty
c. position
d. skill level |
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Definition
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Term
A senior Airman may use the title Supervisor when he or she
a. has grduated ALS and supervises the work of others
b. doesn't have a title that accurately reflects his or her day-to-day duties
c. supervises multiple flights or squadrons and has graduated ALS
d. is in charge of a work center and has completed his or her upgrade training |
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Definition
| a. has graduated ALS and supervises the work of others |
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Term
Which specialty is not part of the transportation career field?
a. Air Transportation
b. Air Traffic Control
c. Traffic Management
d. Vehicle Management |
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Definition
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Term
Which is not a component of the Air Force On-the-job Training (AF OJT) Program?
a. Job experience
b. Job knowledge
c. Job proficiency
d. Job requirement |
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Definition
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Term
How many days are trainees given to complete each volume of their career development courses (CDC)?
a. 30 days
b. 45 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days |
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Definition
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Term
Who is responsible for conducting and documenting work center orientations and initial qualification evaluations within 60 days of assignment?
a. Trainee
b. Trainer
c. Certifier
d. Supervisor |
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Definition
|
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Term
Which is not a trainee responsibility in the Air Force On-the-job Training (AF OJT) Program?
a. Understand particular deployment and home station requirements
b. Identify and certify position qualifications and skill level upgrade training requirements.
c. Obtain and maintain knowledge, qualifications, certifications, and appropriate skill levels
d. Budget on- and off-duty time to complete assigned training tasks within established time limits |
|
Definition
| b. Identify and certify position qualifications and skill level upgrade training requirements |
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Term
What is the minimum amount of time a trainee must be in training to be awarded the 7-skill level?
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 15 months
d. 18 months |
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Definition
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Term
Before a trainee can be awarded the 5- or 7- skill levels all core tasks must be identified
a. in the CFETP and other duty position tasks identified by the supervisor
b. by the supervisor and other duty position tasks identified by the CFETP
c. by the commander and other duty position tasks identified by the supervisor
d. by the supervisor and other duty position tasks identified by the commander |
|
Definition
| a. in the CFETP and other duty position tasks identified by the supervisor |
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Term
Which training document is the foundation for ensuring the completion of all work center job requirements?
a. Master Training Plan (MTP)
b. Master Task List (MTL)
c. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
d. Specialty Training Standard (STS) |
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Definition
|
|
Term
The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is a comprehensive
a. core training document that identifies education and training requirements
b. instructional package that supports and standardizes job knowledge training
c. instructional document that lists professional enhancement criteria for a specialty
d. core training package that outlines task evaluation checklists and training assessments |
|
Definition
| a. core training document that identifies education and training requirements |
|
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Term
The scale values on the proficiency code key indicate
a. that training is not required due to limitations in resources.
b. how well a trainee needs to perform a task or understand a task or subject
c. that the task indicated will be taught during wartime and humanitarian operations
d. how much information the trainee will be required to recite back to the supervisor |
|
Definition
| b. how well a trainee needs to perform a task or understand a task or subject |
|
|
Term
Which form is a continuation of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and is used to annotated the same way as the specialty training standard (STS)?
a. AF IMT 797
b. AF IMT 623a
c. AF IMT 2096
d. AETC Form 156 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who is responsible for actively partricipating in all opportunities for training?
a. Trainee
b. Trainer
c. Certifier
d. Supervisor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Protection, and Health (AFOSH) program?
a. Minimize loss of Air Force property and money
b. Minimize loss of Air Force resources and protect personnel
c. Increase situational awareness of resources and protect personnel
d. Decrease situational awareness of resources and protect personnel |
|
Definition
| b. Minimize loss of Air Force resources and protect personnel |
|
|
Term
You injured your ankle playing basketball over the weekend. Your responsibility under the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Protection and Health (AFOSH) program is to promptly
a. report the injury to your supervisor
b. quit the basketball team for the season
c. wrap and ice it so you can continue to work
d. write a statement of how the injury occured. |
|
Definition
| a. report the injury to your supervisor |
|
|
Term
Your supervisor just conducted a very thorough safety training with you that included job hazards, personal protective equipment wear, jewelry safety, manual lifting procedures, and many other areas. Which form will you and your supervisor use to document this training?
a. AF Form 55, Employee Safety and Health Record
b. AF IMT 483, Certificate of Competency
c. AF 457, USAF Hazard Report
d. AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard |
|
Definition
| a. AF Form 55, Employee Safety and Health record |
|
|
Term
You must be mindful of bulky uniform items with cords and strings because
a. they can come undone and render you out of dress and appearance regulations
b. they can get caught in conveyor belts or moving parts and machinery
c. they get in the way when you are working at the computer
c. your coworkers can easily yank on them as they walk by |
|
Definition
| b. they can get caught in conveyor belts or moving parts and machinery |
|
|
Term
You are entering the warehouse wearing several items. Which of them must be removed before entering the area?
a. Cold-weather gear
b. Steel-toed boots
c. Reflective gear
d. Jewelry |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
You have finished downloading pallets onto the finger docks. Which is the best way to exit the dock?
a. Jump off the edge
b. Ride the rollers to the end with the pallets
c. use the ladder located at the end of the dock
d. Step onto the K-loader and ask the driver to lower the back end so you can jump off a shorter distance |
|
Definition
| c. Use the ladder located at the end of the dock |
|
|
Term
You have acquired a bad safety habit of walking while spotting. It is important for you to eliminate this poor and unsafe work practice because
a. new people can learn work habits by observing your performance
b. your supervisor will embarrass you in front of your coworkers
c. the K-loader driver doesn't like it
d. it will increase your reputation |
|
Definition
| a. new people can learn work habits by observing your performance |
|
|
Term
Operational risk management (ORM) is a continuous process designed to do what?
a. Detect, assess, and contribute to risks
b. Detect and assess risk and enhance safety capabilities
c. Detect, assess, and control risk while enhancing performance and maximizing combat capabilities
d. Detect and control risk while mitigating performance and enhancing combat assessment |
|
Definition
| c. Detect, assess, and control risk while enhancing performance and maximizing combat capabilities |
|
|
Term
Which form would you use to report hazards that cannot be eliminated immediately?
a. DD Form 457, DOD Hazard Report
b. AF IMT 457, USAF Hazard Report
c. DD Form 1118, Notice of Hazard
d. AF IMT 118, Notice of Hazard |
|
Definition
| b. AF IMT 457, USAF Hazard Report |
|
|
Term
The Base Weather Station has issued a lightning warning for your location. What does this warning mean and what should you do?
a. Lightning is occuring within a 5-nautical mile radius; immediately take shelter in a safe place
b. Lightning is predicted to occur within the next five minutes; immediately take shelter in a safe place
c. Lightning is occuring witin a 5 nautical-mile radius; continue working on the flight line until told to cease operations
d. Lightning is predicted to occur within the next 30 minutes; continue working on the flight line until told to cease operations |
|
Definition
| a. Lightning is occuring within a 5 nautical-mile radius; immediately take shelter in a safe place |
|
|
Term
You are entering the flight line area in a vehicle. What must you do before entering?
a. Stop and show the gate guard your line badge
b. Stop and do a foreign object damage (FOD) check
Slow down and look both ways for oncoming aircraft
d. Stop and collect IDs from all of your passengers to show the gate guard |
|
Definition
| b. Stop and do a foreign object damage (FOD) check |
|
|
Term
You have parked your vehicle on the flight line and need to leave it unattended to board the aircraft. What must you do?
a. Leave the keys in the ignition and lock the vehicle; turn off the engine; place it in neutral; and chock the front driver's side wheel, in front and behind
b. Leave the keys in the ignition and the vehicle unlocked; turn off the engine; place it in park or reverse; and chock one rear wheel, in front and behind
c. Leave the vehicle on and unlocked; the keys in the ignition; place it in park or reverse and chock one rear wheel, in front and behind
d. Leave the vehicle unlocked; turn off the ignition; take the keys with you; place it in park or reverse; and chock one rear wheel |
|
Definition
| b. Leave the keys in the ignition and the vehicle unlocked; turn off the ignition; place it in park or reverse; and chock one rear wheel, in front and behind |
|
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Term
You are stopped on the flight line at night with your vehicle and its headlights on and an aircraft is approaching your direction. You are not in the aircraft's path. What is your best course of action?
a. Exit the flight line area and return when the aircraft has safely blocked
b. Flash your high beams at the aircraft to let the pilot know your location
c. Turn your headlights off and turn your parking lights/emergency flashers on until the aircraft is out of range
d. Turn your vehicle around so you are facing away from the aircraft, turn the ignition off, and set the parking brake until the aircraft is out of range |
|
Definition
| c. Turn your headlights off and turn your parking lights/emergency flashers on until the aircraft is out of range |
|
|
Term
You are crossing hte active runway and see a red and green light coming from the control tower. What should you do?
a. Clear the active runway
b. Return to your starting point
c. Stop! Your vehicle will not be moved
d. General warning. exercise extreme caution |
|
Definition
| d. General warning. Exercise extreme caution |
|
|
Term
You are crossing the active runway and see a flashing white light coming from the control tower. What should you do?
a. Clear the active runway
b. Return to your starting point
c. Stop! Your vehicle will not be moved
d. General Warning. Exercise extreme caution |
|
Definition
| b. Return to your starting point |
|
|
Term
What is the focus of the Pollution Prevention Program?
a. Disposing the waste Air Force personnel create before it becaomes a problem
b. recycling and treating hte waste Air Force personnel create before it ends up in landfills
c. Preventing or reducing the amount of waste Air Force personnel create before it becomes a problem
d. Reducing hte costs of recycling solid waste that Air Foce personnel create in the course of tehir duties |
|
Definition
| c. Preventing or reducing the amount of waste Air Force personnel create before it becomes a problem |
|
|
Term
A solid waste is any discarded material,
a. including solids, liquids, and containerized gases only, which is abandoned, recycled, or considered inherently waste-like
b. including solids, liquids, and containerized gases onlyh, which is acquired, treated, or considered inherently waste-like
c. including solids and liquids only, which is purchased, stored, abandoned, or considered inherently solid-like
d. including liquids and containerized gases only, which is stored, abandoned, or considered inherently solid-like |
|
Definition
| a. including solids, liquids, and containerized gases only, which is abandoned, recycled, or considered inherently waste-like |
|
|
Term
What are the two main elements of minimizing waste?
a. prevention and control
b. management and control
c. Reduction and management
d. Prevention and management |
|
Definition
| a. Prevention and control |
|
|
Term
Pollution control consists of which three activities?
a. Recycling, treatment, and disposal
b. Storage, acquisition, and recycling
c. Prevention, purchase, and participation
d. prevention and management |
|
Definition
| a. Prevention and control |
|
|
Term
Which is not a benefit of pollution prevention?
a. It reduces impact on public health and the environment
b. It reduces the need for federal standards and regulations
c. It reduces costs, manpower and equipment requirements
d. It boosts the Air Force's image as responsible members of society |
|
Definition
| b. It reduces the Air Force's image as responsible members of society |
|
|
Term
What can you do each and every day to reduce air emissions at work?
a. Incinerate, scrub, or treat solid wastes in accordance with Air Force instructions and local policies
b. Neutralize, evaporate, or reduce hazardous waste products in accordance with federal and state statues
c. Inspect, operate, refuel and maintain vehicles in accordance with their applicable TOs and other authorized guidance
d. Reduce, reuse, recycleand manage your use of solid wastes, ensuring no waste is dumped in any bodies of water, including storm drains |
|
Definition
| c. Inspect, operate, refuel and maintain vehicles in accordance with their applicable TOs and other authorized guidance |
|
|
Term
You have knowledge of some North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) SECRET information in which one of your coworkers has asked about. Which United States security clearance level must your coworker possess for access to this information?
a. For official use only (FOUO)
b. NATO Confidential
c. TOP SECRET
d. SECRET |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Your work center is storing some classified material in the vault and you have been asked to let a lighting technician to fix the lighting. He doesn't have the required "need-to-know" but must have access to the room to properly complete his job. What is your best course of action?
a. Let him in. He's got a job to do
b. Check his for official use only (FOUO) file
c. Escort him into and stay with him in the vault at all times until his work is complete
d. Verify his security clearance and make him sign a non-disclosure agreement (NDA) |
|
Definition
| c. Escort him into and stay with him in the vault at all times until his work is complete |
|
|
Term
An aircraft diverted into your station with classified material on it and will remain overnight (RON) for repairs. The material is too large to be placed in an approved container. What is the best course of action?
a. Have the aircraft commander lock the aircraft
b. Have the armed courier stay on board until the aircrew returns
c. Dowload the classified material and store it in an authorized US facility
d. Have the aircraft commander lock the aircraft and sign a release of liability letter |
|
Definition
| c. Download the classified material and store it in an authorized US facility |
|
|
Term
Which of the following represents an operational security (OPSEC) vulnerability?
a. An adversary with possession of a fake military identification card and knowledge of the base
b. Taking pictures of the helicopters you loaded on the C-5 and posting them on the internet
c. Blending in with the local crowd while off-base in your deployed location
d. Varying your routine and driving routes to work |
|
Definition
| b. Taking pictures of the helicopters you loaded on the C-5 and posting them on te internet |
|
|
Term
Which type of cargo consists of highly classified national security material and requires an escort?
a. Gold bullion
b. Human remains
c. Diplomatic clearance cargo
Defense Courier Service (DCS) material |
|
Definition
| d. Defense Courier Service (DCS) material |
|
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Term
Which type of cargo must you always protect, safeguard, and handle as if it were classified?
a. Gold bullion
b. Registered mail
c. Human remains
d. Diplomatic clearance cargo |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which term refers to the movement of personnel, units, supplies and equipment to reinforce or resupply already deployed or employed forces?
a. Deployment
b. Sustainment
c. Employment
d. Redeployment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which command provides common-user and commercial air, land and sea transportation?
a. Air Mobility Command (AMC)
b. Military Sealift Command (MSC)
c. US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
d. Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC) |
|
Definition
| c. US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) |
|
|
Term
Which command is the link between Department of Defense (DOD) shippers and the commercial transportation carrier industry?
a. Air Mobility Command (AMC)
b. Military Sealift Command (MSC)
c. US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
d. Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC) |
|
Definition
| d. Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC) |
|
|
Term
Which command is the US Transportation Command's (USTRANSCOM) single component command for air mobility and provides airlift, air refueling, special air mission and aeromedical evacuation services?
a. Air Mobility Command (AMC)
b. Mobility Airlift Command (MAC)
c. Air Transportation Mobility Command (ATMC)
d. Air Deployment and Mobility Command (ADMC) |
|
Definition
| a. Air Mobility Command (AMC) |
|
|
Term
Which agency serves as Air Mobility Command's (AMC) strategic air operations huyb and plans, directs, schedules, and tracks aircraft operations worldwide?
a. Wing Operations Center (WOC)
b. Wing Airlift Control Center (WACC)
c. Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC)
d. Aerial Port Operations Center (APOC) |
|
Definition
| c. Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) |
|
|
Term
Through which system does the Air Force provide rapid global mobility to the defense transportation system (DTS)?
a. Sustainment Mobility System (SMS)
b. National Air Mobility System (NAMS)
c. Mobility Traffic Management System (MTMS)
d. Global Deployement & Mobility System (GDMS) |
|
Definition
| b. National Air Mobility System (NAMS) |
|
|
Term
Which is a station that servies as an authorized port to process and clear aircraft and traffic for entrance into the country in which it is located?
a. Aerial Port of Inspection (APOI)
b. Aerial Port of Mobility (APOM)
c. Aerial Port of Debarkation (APOD)
d. Aerial Port of Embarkation (APOE) |
|
Definition
| c. Aerial Port of Debarkation (APOD) |
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|
Term
Which area is an air terminal located on a prepared airfield that is designated for the sustained air movement of cargo and passengers?
a. Drop zone
b. Aerial port
c. Airland field
d. Landing Zone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Joint forces can be organized on which basis?
a. Summetrical or logical
b. Geographical or logical
c. Symmetrical or functional
d. Geographical or functional |
|
Definition
| d. Geographical or functional |
|
|
Term
Which aircraft can hold up to 36 standard pallets and 73 passengers?
a. C-5
b. C-17
c. KC-10
d. B-747 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which aircraft is used for both strategic and theater airlift as well as airdrops and aeromedical evacuations?
a. C-5
b. C-17
c. KC-10
d. B-747 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which organic aircraft can hold up to six standard pallets and is capable of landing on dirt strips?
a. C-5
b. C-17
c. C-130
d. C-141 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which program is where United States commercial airlines augment Department of Defense's (DOD) airlift capability in time of war or during a President-declared emergency?
a. Defense Transportation Program (DTP)
b. National Air Mobility Program (NAMP)
c. Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF)program
d. Operations and Maintenance (O&M) program |
|
Definition
| c. Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) program |
|
|
Term
Which stage of Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) activation supports minor regional crises or small-scale contingencies?
a. Stage I, Committed Expansion
b. Stage II, Defense Airlift Emergency
c. Stage III, National Emergency
d. Stage IV, Global Expansion |
|
Definition
| a. Stage I, Committed Expansion |
|
|
Term
Improperly constructed mission numbers
a. duplicate the efforts of the organizations who fly the missions
b. interfere with automated data updates between the various C2 systems
c. make it harder to deploy, employ, sustain, and redeploy the war fighter
d. enable the service to double-bill the cargo's user based on weight and cube |
|
Definition
| b. interfere with automated data updates between the various C2 systems |
|
|
Term
Which type of mission moves mostly airlift sustainment cargo in which users reimburse the Transportation Working Capital Fund (TWCF)?
a. Channel mission
b. Contingency mission
c. Air refueling mission (AR)
d. Special airlift mission (SAM) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The last three digits of a mission number represents the
a. geographical point where the mission will turn around
b. operational or tactical agency that has control of the mission
c. Julian date on which the mission originated in Zulu or GMT
d. air carrier that is operating the mission and what the load consists of |
|
Definition
| c. Julian date on which the mission originated in Zulu or GMT |
|
|
Term
Intransit visibility (ITV) provides commanders the
a. ability to connect and replicate
b. ability to enter data into feeder systems accurately
c. capability to interface with X-MAN, Logistics (LOGMOD), and MANPER-B systems
d. capability to determine if a force has reached its destination and is ready to perform its mission |
|
Definition
| d. capability to determine if a force has reached its destination and is ready to perform its mission |
|
|
Term
The Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) allows users to
a. prepare freight warrants
b. prepare commercial bills of lading
c. create airlift schedules and mission numbers
d. process, manifest and track passengers and cargo |
|
Definition
| d. process manifest and track passengers and cargo |
|
|
Term
At a minimum, aerial port personnel should verify in the Global Transportation Network (GTN) the
a. transportation account code, project code and mission number
b. presence of bill of lading data, project code, and mission number
c. presence of cargo and passenger data, mission number, and aerial port code
d. presence of document identifier codes, mission number and aerial port code |
|
Definition
| c. presence of cargo and passenger data, mission number, and aerial port code |
|
|
Term
Who has a responsibility to provide accurate data to the aerial port or agencies that enter data into the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)?
a. Truck drivers
b. Individual units
c. Superintendents
d. Ramp supervisors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which disk system is not used to import cargo or passenger information into the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)?
a. X-MAN
b. Logistics Module (LOGMOD)
c. Manpower and Personnel Module-Base (MANPER-B)
d. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES) |
|
Definition
| d. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES) |
|
|
Term
Radio frequency identification (RFID) technology consists of which three parts?
a. Tag, interrogator, and data server
b. Tag, transponder, and data server
c. Tag, interrogator and optical memory card
d. Transponder, optical memory card, data server |
|
Definition
| a. Tag, interrogator, and data srever |
|
|
Term
The Deployed Global Air Transportation Execution System (DGATES) is set up and used until the
a. capability is outdaed and needs to be replaced by a more advanced capability
b. deploying unit replicates and provides HQ AMC ITV cell email ITV capability
c. capability is no longer necessary or until fixed R/GATES systems have been set up in its place
d. deploying unit requires more capability than DGATES provides or prefers to use another system |
|
Definition
| c. capability is no longer necessary or until fixed R/GATES systems have been set up in its place |
|
|
Term
You are working int he Cargo Deployment Function (CDF) for a mobility movement and want to locate information about mobility movements. In which part of the Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR) would you look?
a. Part I
b. Part II
c. Part III
d. Part IV |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
You are helping a customer determine if he and his family are eligible for Department of Defense (DOD) air travel. In which publication would you look?
a. DOD 4515.13-R, Air Transportation Eligibility
b. DOD 4500.54-M, Foreign Clearance Manual (FCM)
c. DTR, 4500.9, Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR)
d. DOD 4515.13-R, Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR) |
|
Definition
| a. DOD 4515.13, Air Transportation eligibility |
|
|
Term
You want to find out if two pieces of hazardous cargo are compatible with each other. In which publication would you look?
a. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 24-101
b. Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-204(I)
c. Air Mobility Command Instruction (AMCI) 24-101
d. Air Mobility Command Pamphlet (AMCPAM) 24-204 |
|
Definition
| b. Air Force Manual (AFMAN 24-204(I) |
|
|
Term
A cargo user has received verified approval to ship its equipment via tactical, contingency, or emergency airlift and you need to look up the hazardous cargo restrictions and requirements for this type of airlift. Which chapter in Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-204(I), Preparing Hazardous Materials for Military Air Shipment, would you go to find this information?
a. Chapter 1
b. Chapter 2
c. Chapter 3
d. Chapter 4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
You are load planning cargo for a Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) aircraft and want to look up the aircraft specificatoions to safely plan the load. In which publication series would you look to find the infomation?
a. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 24-101
b. Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-204(I)
c. Air Mobility Command Instruction (AMCI) 24-101
d. Air Mobility Command Pamphlet (AMCPAM) 24-2 |
|
Definition
| d. Air Mobility Command Pamphlet (AMCPAM) 24-2 |
|
|
Term
You are loading helicopters on a C-17 aircraft and want to find infomation on specific procedures for loading the items. Which section number of the 1C-17B-9 technical order (TO) contains that infomation
a. Section II
b. Section IV
c. Section V
d. Section VI |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Joint Operations Planning and execution System (JOPES) is both a process and a collection of automated computer systems used to develop
a. joint inspection standards and Global Air Mobility Support System (GAMSS) taskings
b. operational plans (OPLANS) and time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDDs)
c. installation deployment officers (IDOs) and air expeditionary force (AEF) tempo bands
d. joint planning and execution community (JPEC) regulations and deployment work centers |
|
Definition
| b. operational plans (OPLANS) and time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDDs) |
|
|
Term
The time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) is
a. the process within unit type codes (UTCs) required to activate deployment work centers
b. a situation that involves military forces in response to natural and man-made disasters, terrorists, or foreign military operations
c. a situation that involves a significatn threat to the US, its territories, citizens, military forces, possessions or vital interests.
d. the electronic data that exists within the Joing Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) to help execute deployments in phases |
|
Definition
| d. the electronic data that exists within the Joint Operation Planning and execution System (JOPES) to help execute deployments in phases |
|
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Term
Which volume of the USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) documents the aircraft activity for each geographical location in support of all regional OPLANs (Operation plans) and certain CONPLANS (concept plans)?
a. WMP-2, Plans and Listing Summary
b. WMP-3, Combat and support forces
c. WMP-4, Wartime Aircraft Activity
d. WMP-5, AF Industrial Mobilization Planning |
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Definition
| c. WMP-4, Wartime Aircraft Activity |
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Term
Which war reserve material (WRM) support is sourced using Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES)?
a. Small scale contingencies
b. Training events and competitions
c. Joing, Air Force, and unit exercises
d. Air Expeditionary Force (AEF) taskings |
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Definition
| a. Small scale contingencies |
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Term
Which automated system schedules, controls, and monitors the movement of passengers and cargo via air or surface transportation using tasking information?
a. Logistics Module (LOGMOD)
b. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES)
c. Global Air Transportation and Execution System (GATES)
d. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES) |
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Definition
| a. Logistics Module (LOGMOD) |
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Term
Which deployment work center is the hub of deployment operations and is responsible for the overall control and supervision of deployments?
a. Deployment Control Center (DCC)
b. Transportation Control Unit (TCU)
c. Control Deployment Function (CDF)
d. Deployment Vehicle Opeations (DVO) |
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Definition
| a. Deployment Control Center (DCC) |
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Term
Which deployment work center processes all deploying personnel through stations such as legal and finance and is responsible for processing and manifesting passengers and processing their baggage?
a. Passenger Control Unit (PCU)
b. Passenger Control Center (PCC)
c. Passenger Operations Function (POF)
d. Passenger Deployment Function (PDF) |
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Definition
| d. Passenger Deployment Function (PDF) |
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Term
In which area of the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF) do units ahve sole responsibility?
a. Marshalling area
b. Call forward are
c. Alert holding area
d. Ready line/loading ramp area |
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Definition
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Term
Mobility forces will not start a joint inspection (JI) until
a. all the cargo for the chalk is present and available
b. the first piece of cargo arrives in the call forward area
c. the first deployed schedule of events (DSOE) is published
d. the Arrival/Departure Airfield Control Group (A.DACG) directs them |
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Definition
| a. all the cargo for the chalk is present and available |
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Term
To whom does a copy of the Department of Defense (DD) Form 2133 not go?
a. The deploying unit representative
b. Retained by the mobility force for inclusion in the station file
c. The troop commander with the consolidated flight package and manifest
d. The aircraft loadmaster with the cargo manifest and other documentation |
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Definition
| c. The troop commander with the consolidated flight package and manifest |
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Term
Satisfactory items are identified on the DD Form 2133 by
a. an "*"
b. an "X"
c. a check mark
d. leaving the block blank |
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Definition
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Term
Which hazardous materials certifications allow personnel to sign the Shipper's Declaration for Dangerous Goods (SDDG)?
a. Hazardous materials handler and inspector
b. Hazardous materials inspector and preparer
c. Hazardous materials handler and technical specialist
d. Hazardous materials preparer and technical specialist |
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Definition
| d. Hazardous materials preparer and technical specialist |
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Term
Which type of airdrop is used to feed stranded animals in a winter storm?
a. High-velocity drop
b. Freedrop
c. Low-velocity drop
d. Gravity method |
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Definition
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Term
which type of airdrop requires large, clear drop zones, because they usually consist of large complex loads?
a. Freedrop
b. Gravity method
c. Low-velocity drop
d. High-velocity drop |
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Definition
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Term
What is the capacity of the A-21 cargo bag?
a. 300 pounds
b. 400 pounds
c. 500 pounds
d. 1,000 pounds |
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Definition
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Term
For what type of drop is the Type V platform used?
a. Freedrop
b. High-velocity drop
c. Low-velocity drop
d. All three types of airdrop |
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Definition
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Term
Which parachute is the largest?
a. G-11
b. G-12
c. G-13
d. Extraction |
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Definition
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Term
How much weight will the G-12 parachute support?
a. 3,500 pounds
b. 2,200 pounds
c. 1,500 pounds
d. 500 pounds |
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Definition
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Term
When operating the lavatory service truck (LST), how will you know when the waste tank is full?
a. Open the tank and look inside
b. Look through the sight window
c. Wait until the flow meter zeroes out
d. Look at the gauge in the control panel |
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Definition
| b. Look through the sight window |
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Term
On the AMC Form 249, Fleet Service Equipment Record, to conduct an inventory, which form will be used as a source document to annotate the total number of items out on a mission aircraft?
a. AF IMT 129, Tally In/Out
b. AF IMT 4128, Fleet Service Checklist
c. AMC Form 268, Passenger Service Kit/Inventory List
d. AF IMT 3516, Food Service Inventory Transfer Receipt |
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Definition
| b. AF IMT 4128, Fleet Service Checklist |
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Term
You have been taksed to load non-expendable supplies on an Air Mobility Command (AMC) C-5. Which form should you use?
a. AF IMT 4128, Fleet Service Checklist
b. AF IMT 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt
c. AFTO Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record
d. AMC Form 12-1, Confort Pallet/Portable Lavatory Unit Checklist |
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Definition
| a. AF IMT 4128, Fleet Service Checklist |
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Term
You are servicing an arriving aircraft and notice a personal item left behind by a passenger, what action must you take?
a. Turn it into the passenger terminal's lost and found or Security Forces
b. Turn it into the Customer Service Branch (CSB) so it can be shipped to the passenger
c. Drive the article to the passenger who will be waiting at the baggage pick-up conveyor
d. Annotate the article in the statement block of the AF IMT 4128 and describe the action you took to recover it |
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Definition
| a. Turn it into the passenger terminal's lost and found or Security Forces |
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Term
Which describes the proper way to clean and service an oven?
a. Wipe down the oven racks and oven interior and ensure the oven is operational
b. Remove the dirty racks, clean the oven interior, install clean racks and ensure the oven is operational
c. Take the oven racks to Fleet supply for cleaning and use a 5% sodium hupochlorite solution to wipe down the oven interior
d. Take the oven racks to the flight kitchen for cleaning and use a 5% sodium hypochlorite solution to wipe down te oven interior |
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Definition
| b. Remove the dirty racks, clean the oven interior and ensure the oven is operational |
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Term
You are picking up clean and filled 5-gallon igloos and coffee jugs from the flight kitchen to take to an aircraft. How much they be when you pick them up so they will stay clean?
a. Wiped down with a 5% sodium hypochlorite solution
b. Wiped down with spray cleaner and a soft cloth
c. The spouts will be bundled in lots of five
c. The spouts will be covered in plastic |
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Definition
| d. The spouts will be covered in plastic |
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Term
A flight is leaving with a departure time of 0800. What is the latest time passenger service personnel can call in a firm meal order for that flight?
a. 0600
b. 0645
c. 0700
d. 0715 |
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Definition
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Term
What must you do before you print and sign your name on the AF IMT 3516, Food Service Inventory Transfer,when picking up meals from the flight kitchen?
a. Notify the dispatcher of your start time
b. Verify you have every item listed on the form
c. Call in the meal numbers to the passenger terminal
d. Help the aircrew members stow the meals in the proper storage areas |
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Definition
| b. Verify you have every item listed on the form |
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Term
You have performed final fleet service on a C-17 that blocks out at 0800. Within what timeframe are aircrews required to pick up their own meals?
a. 0650
b. 0700
c. 0710
d. 0720 |
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Definition
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Term
You have delivered 73 meals to a C-5. Who will stow these meals in the galley or air transportable galley lavatory (ATGL) storage areas?
a. The aircrew members only
b. Fleet Service and maintenance personnel
c. The aircrew members and maintenance personnel
d. The aircrew members and Fleet Service personnel |
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Definition
| d. the aircrew members and Fleet Service personnel |
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Term
You are stationed at McChord AFB, WA, and a flight just arrived from Kadena AB, Japan, that has unused meals onboard. What must you do with these meals?
a. Turn them into the flight kitchen using the AF IMT 3516 or AF IMT 129
b. After USDA inspection and approval, they are free to consume during one of your breaks
c. After USDA inspection and approval, place them in two plastic bags and incinerate or sterilize them at an approved facility
d. After U.S. Department of Argiculture (USDA0 inspection and approval, turn them into the flight kitchen using the AF IMT 3516 or AF IMT 129. |
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Definition
| c. After USDA inspection and approval, place them in two plastic bags and incinerate or sterilize them at an approved facility |
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Term
When servicing the aircraft with potable water you should fill the aircraft water tank until
a. the flow meter reads 11 gallons
b. water discharges from the overflow fitting or to the requested capacity
c. water reaches the requested capacity or 11 gallons, whichever comes first
d. the flow meter zeroes out or until water discharges from the overflow fitting |
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Definition
| b. water discharges from the overflow fitting or to the requested capacity |
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Term
When servicing the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) water tank you should fill it with potable water until
a. the flow meter reads 11 gallons
b. water discharges from the overflow fitting or to the requested capacity
c. the gauge indicates that it is full or 39 gallons, whichever comes first
d. the flow meter zeroes out or until water discharges from the overflow fitting |
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Definition
| c. the gauge indicates that it is full or 39 gallons, whichever comes first. |
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Term
You serviced the C-17 with the lavatory service truck (LST): the doughnut seal was faulty, and you came into direct contact with waste from the aircraft. you were wearing all required personal protective equipement (PPE). What actions do you take?
a. Wash immediately and change clothes
b. change clothes only; your PPE protected you
c. Call the ambulance to treat you for contamination
d. Change clothes and discontinue latrine service until the doughnut gets fixed |
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Definition
| a. Wash immediately and change clothes |
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Term
How much water or solution do you use to rinse and fill the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) waste tak?
a. 11 liters
b. 39 liters
c. 11 gallons
d. 39 gallons |
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Definition
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Term
When recording the various Fleet Service activities on an AMC Form 244, wuch as "latrine serviced by," you should include the initials of the
a. person who serviced the latrine, the Julian date, and start and complete times
b. person recording the information, the Julien date, and start and complete times
c. person who serviced the latrine and the start and complete times
d. dispatcher and the start and complete times |
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Definition
| a. person who serviced the latrine, the Julian date, and start and complete times |
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Term
As a Fleet Service dispatcher, you have just completed and signed an AMC Form 244, Fleet Service Arrival/Departure Worksheet. Who else needs to sign it before it can be turned into records?
a. An aircrew member
b. The air terminal manager
c. A flight kitchen representative
d. The Fleet Service shift supervisor |
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Definition
| d. The Fleet Service shift supervisor |
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