Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| From which cells do B cells arise? |
|
Definition
| stem cells in bone marrow |
|
|
Term
From which cells do plasma
cells differentiate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How can a Nissl stain be used
to differentiate microglia
from oligodendroglia? |
|
Definition
Microglia are not discernable
in a Nissl stain while
oligodendroglia appear as
small dark nuclei with dark
chromatin |
|
|
Term
In what type of CNS tissue
(white or grey) are
oligodendroglia predominant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Into what cell type does a
monocyte differentiate in
tissues? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name 2 substances produced
by an eosinophil. |
|
Definition
| histiminase and arylsulfatase |
|
|
Term
Name the three types of
leukocytic granulocytes. |
|
Definition
basophils, eosinophils, and
neutrophils |
|
|
Term
Name the two types of
mononuclear leukocytes. |
|
Definition
| lymphocytes and monocytes |
|
|
Term
What are 2 functions of T cell
lymphocytes? |
|
Definition
- cellular immune response
-regulation of B lymphocytes
and macrophages |
|
|
Term
What are 2 morphological
features of microglia? |
|
Definition
- small irregular nuclei and
-relatively little cytoplasm |
|
|
Term
What are 3 examples of
peripheral lymphoid tissue? |
|
Definition
- follicles of lymph nodes
-white pulp of spleen
-unencapsulated lymphoid tissue |
|
|
Term
What are 3 functions of a
macrophage? |
|
Definition
- pagocytosis of bacteria,
cell debris, and senescent red cells
- scavenges damaged cells and tissues
-can function as an antigen presenting cell |
|
|
Term
What are 3 morphological
characteristics of monocytes? |
|
Definition
- Large
- Kidney-shaped nucleus
- Extensive 'frosted glass' cytoplasm |
|
|
Term
What are 4 characteristics of
the plasma cell morphology? |
|
Definition
- Off center nucleus
- Clock face chromatin distribution
- Abundant RER
- Well developed Golgi apparatus |
|
|
Term
What are 4 morphologic
characteristics of
lymphocytes? |
|
Definition
- Round
- Small
- Densely staining nucleus
- Small amount of pale cytoplasm |
|
|
Term
What are 4 substances
contained within the
lysosomes of neutrophils? |
|
Definition
- hydrolytic enzymes
- lysozyme
- myeloperoxidase
- lactoferrin |
|
|
Term
What are 4 types of cells into
which T cells differentiate? |
|
Definition
- cytotoxic T cells (MHC I, CD8)
- helper T cells (MHCII, CD4)
- suppressor T cells
- delayed hypersensitivity T cells |
|
|
Term
What are the 5 important
causes for eosinophilia in
humans? |
|
Definition
Neoplastic, Asthma, Allergic
process, Collagen vascular
disease, and Parasites
(pneumonic NAACP) |
|
|
Term
What are the blood cell
diffenentiation names of the
ACTIVE T CELL line beginning
with the pluripotent
hematopoietic stem cell? (4) |
|
Definition
- Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell
- Lymphoblast
- T cell
- Active T cell |
|
|
Term
What are the blood cell
differentiation names of the
ERYTHROCYTE cell line
beginning with pluripotent
hematopoietic stem cell? (4) |
|
Definition
- Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell
- Proerythroblast
- Reticulocyte
- Erythrocyte |
|
|
Term
What are the blood cell
differentiation names of the
MONOCYTE cell lines
beginning with the
pluripotent hematopoietic
stem cell? (3) |
|
Definition
- Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell
- Mono blast
- Monocyte |
|
|
Term
What are the blood cell
differentiation names of the
NEUTROPHIL, EOSINOPHIL,
and BASOPHIL cell lines
beginning with the
myeloblast stage? (6) |
|
Definition
- Myeloblast
- Promyelocyte
- Myelocyte
- Metamyelocyte
- Stab cell
- Neutrophil, eosinophil or basophil |
|
|
Term
What are the blood cell
differentiation names of the
PLASMA CELL line beginning
with the pluripotent
hematopoietic stem cell? (4) |
|
Definition
- Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell
- Lymphoblast
- B cell
- Plasma cell |
|
|
Term
What are the blood cell
differentiation names of the
PLATELET CELL line beginning
with the hematopoietic stem
cell? (4) |
|
Definition
- Pluripotento hematopoietic stem cell
- Megakaryoblast
- Megakaryocyte
- Platelets |
|
|
Term
What are the components of
the air-blood barrier? |
|
Definition
- Type I pneumocyte
- tight junction
- endothelial cell |
|
|
Term
What are the steps of
maturation of a B cell? (2 points) |
|
Definition
- maturation in the marrow
- migration to peripheral lymphoid tissue |
|
|
Term
What are the substances
contained within the densly
basophilic granules of the
basophil? (4) |
|
Definition
- Heparin (anticoagulant)
- histamine (vasodilator)
- vasoactive amines
- Slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis |
|
|
Term
What are two basic
morphological characteristics
of neutrophils? |
|
Definition
- multilobed nucleus
- large, spherical azurophilic primary
granules (lysosomes) |
|
|
Term
What are two important
functions of a neutrophil? |
|
Definition
- acute inflammmatory
response of a cell
- phagocytosis |
|
|
Term
What are two names for an
increased number of red
cells? |
|
Definition
Erythrocytosis and
polycythemia |
|
|
Term
What cell type closely
resembles a mast cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What cranial nerves are
commonly involved in an
acoustic neuroma? |
|
Definition
CN VII, VIII (association with
internal acoustic meatus) |
|
|
Term
What disease is characterized
by destruction of
oligodendroglia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| cluster of differentiation |
|
|
Term
What drug prevents mast cell
degranulation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What immunoglobulin can
bind to the membrane of a
mast cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a baby (developing)
erythrocyte |
|
|
Term
What is an important example
of a Schwannoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is another name for
pulmonary sufractant? |
|
Definition
DPPC
(dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholi
ne) |
|
|
Term
What is percentage of
leukocytes in the blood exist
as basophils? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the 'gap' between the
myelination segment of 2
Schwann cells called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the advantage of the
large surface area:volume
ratio in erythrocytes? |
|
Definition
easy gas exchange (Oxygen
and Carbon dioxide) |
|
|
Term
What is the basic morphologic
structure of an erythrocyte? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the basic morphology
of an eosinophil? (2 things) |
|
Definition
- bilobate nucleus - packed
with large eosinophilic
granules of uniform size |
|
|
Term
What is the embryologic
origin of microglia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the function of
Interferon gamma with
relation to macrophages? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the function of
microglia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the function of
oligodendroglia? |
|
Definition
myelination of multiple CNS
axons |
|
|
Term
What is the function of
pulmonary surfactant? |
|
Definition
lowers alveolar surface
tension and prevents
atelectasis |
|
|
Term
What is the function of
Schwann cells? |
|
Definition
myelination of PNS (a
Schwann cell myelinates only
one PNS axon) |
|
|
Term
What is the importance of the
lecithin:sphingomyelin ratio? |
|
Definition
> 2.0 in fetal lung is
indicative of fetal lung
maturity |
|
|
Term
What is the importance of the
physiologic chloride shift in
erythrocytes? |
|
Definition
Membranes contain the
chloride bicarbonate antiport
allowing the RBC to transport
carbon dioxide from the the
lung periphery for
elimination. |
|
|
Term
What is the last segment of
lung tissue in which ciliated
cells are found? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the last segment of
lung tissue in which goblet
cells are found? |
|
Definition
terminal broncioles
(remember ciliated cells
sweep away mucous
produced by goblet cells and
therefore run deeper) |
|
|
Term
What is the primary function
of a basophil? |
|
Definition
| Mediates allergic reactions |
|
|
Term
What is the primary function
of a leukocyte? |
|
Definition
| Defense against infections |
|
|
Term
What is the primary function
of a mast cell? |
|
Definition
| Mediates allergic reactions |
|
|
Term
What is the primary function
of a plasma cell? |
|
Definition
production of large amounts
of a specific antibody to a
particular antigen |
|
|
Term
What is the primary source of
energy for erythrocytes? |
|
Definition
glucose (90% anaerobically
degraded to lactate, 10% by
HMP shunt) |
|
|
Term
What is the process of
degranulation in mast cells? |
|
Definition
release of histamine, heparin,
and eosinophil chemotactic
factors |
|
|
Term
What is the range of
concentration for leukocytes
in the blood? |
|
Definition
4,000 - 10,000 cells per
microliter |
|
|
Term
What is the response of an
eosiniphil to antigen antibody
complexes? |
|
Definition
| high degree of phagocytosis |
|
|
Term
What is the response of
microglia to tissue dammage? |
|
Definition
transformation into large
ameboid phagocytic cells |
|
|
Term
What is the response to
microglia infected with HIV? |
|
Definition
fusion to form multinucleated
giant cells in CNS |
|
|
Term
What is the survival time for
an erythrocyte? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What pathognomonic change
is seen in neutrophils of a
person who is folate/vitamin
B12 deficient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What percentage of
leukocytes exist as
eosinophils in the blood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What percentage of
leukocytes exist as
neutrophils in the blood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What percentage of
leukocytes in blood are
monocytes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What process occurs when
type I pneumocytes are
damaged? |
|
Definition
Type II pneumocytes develop
into type I |
|
|
Term
What substance in
eosinophilic granules is
primarily responsible for
defense against helminths
and protozoan infections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where is the site of
maturation of T lymphocytes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which cell type constituitively
secretes pulmonary
surfactant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which cell type lines the
alveoli? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which leukemia is the result
of plasma cell neoplasm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of hypersensitivity
reaction is a mast cell
involved in? |
|
Definition
Type I hypersensitivity
reaction |
|
|
Term
Which type of immunity do B
cells exhibit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
After arising from the floor of
the primitive pharynx, where
does the thryoid diverticulum
go? |
|
Definition
It descends down into the
neck |
|
|
Term
After the first breath at birth,
what causes closure of the
ductus arteriosus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
After the first breath at birth,
what causes the closure of
the foramen ovale? |
|
Definition
A decrease resistance in
pulmonary vasculature causes
increased left atrial pressure
vs. right atrial pressure |
|
|
Term
Although the diaphragm
descends during
development, it maintains
innervation from ____? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An easy pneumonic to
remember fetal erythropoiesis
is? |
|
Definition
| Young Liver Synthesizes Blood |
|
|
Term
At what time in the course of
development is the fetus
most susceptible to
teratogens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Deoxygenated blood from the
SVC is expelled into the
pulmonary artery and ____
____ to the lower body of the
fetus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Do the cardiovascular
structures arise from neural
crest (ectoderm), mesoderm,
or endoderm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Do the chromaffin cells of the
adrenal medulla arise from
neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Do the lungs arise from
neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Do the lymphatics arise from
neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Do the melanocytes arise
from neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Do the neural crest cells arise
from mesoderm, ectoderm, or
endoderm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Do the odontoblasts arise
from neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Do the parafollicular (C) cells
of the thyroid arise from
neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Do the Schwann cells arise
from neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Do the urogenital structures
arise from neural crest
(ectoderm), mesoderm, or
endoderm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does blood arise from neural
crest (ectoderm), mesoderm,
or endoderm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does bone arise from neural
crest (ectoderm), mesoderm,
or endoderm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does muscle arise from
neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does the thyroid arise from
neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does the adrenal cortex arise
from neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does the ANS arise from
neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does the celiac ganglion arise
from neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does the dorsal root ganglion
arise from neural crest
(ectoderm), mesoderm, or
endoderm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does the dura connective
tissue arise from neural crest
(ectoderm), mesoderm, or
endoderm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does the gut tube epithelium
arise from neural crest
(ectoderm), mesoderm, or
endoderm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does the liver arise from
neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does the pancreas arise from
neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does the parathyroid arise
from neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does the pia arise from
neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does the serous linings of
body cavities arise from
neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does the spleen arise from
neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does the thymus arise from
neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
From what does the
ligamentum teres hepatis
arise? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does a bicornate uterus
form? |
|
Definition
Results from incomplete
fusion of the
paramesonephric ducts |
|
|
Term
| How does a cleft lip form? |
|
Definition
Failure of fusion of the
maxillary and medial nasal
processes |
|
|
Term
| How does a cleft palate form? |
|
Definition
Failure of fusion of the lateral
palatine processes, the nasal
septum, and/or the median
palatine process |
|
|
Term
How does a horseshoe kidney
form? |
|
Definition
Inferior poles of both kidneys
fuse, as they ascend from the
pelvis during development
they get trapped under the
inferior mesenteric artery,
and remain low in the
abdomen |
|
|
Term
How is meckel's diverticulum
different than an
omphalomesenteric cyst? |
|
Definition
Omphalomesenteric cyst is a
cystic dilatation of the
vitelline duct |
|
|
Term
How long does full
development of
spermatogenesis take? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many arteries and veins
does the umbilical cord
contain? |
|
Definition
- 2 umbilical arteries (carries
deoxygenated blood away
from fetus)
- 1 umbilical vein
(oxygenated blood to fetus) |
|
|
Term
Is a primary spermatocyte 2N
or 4N? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is a primary spermatocyte
haploid or diploid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is a secondary spermatocyte
haploid or diploid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is a secondary spermatocyte
N or 2N? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is a speratogonium haploid or
diploid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is a spermatid haploid or
diploid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Meiosis I is arrested in which
phase until ovulation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Meiosis II is arrested in which
phase until fertilization? |
|
Definition
Metaphase (an egg MET a
sperm) |
|
|
Term
Most oxygenated blood
reaching the heart via IVC is
diverted through the ____ ____
and pumped out the aorta to
the head. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The right common cardinal
vein and right anterior
cardinal vein give rise to what
adult heart structure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The stapedius muscle of the
ear is formed by which
branchial arch? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This type of bone formation
consists of ossification of
cartilaginous molds and
forms long bones at primary
and secondary centers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False, blood in the
umbilical vein is 100%
saturated with oxygen? |
|
Definition
| False, it is 80% saturated |
|
|
Term
True or False, there are two
types of spermatogonia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the 1st branchial
arch derivatives innervated
by? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the 2nd branchial
arch derivatives innervated
by? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the 3rd branchial
arch derivatives innervated
by? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the 4th and 6th
branchial arch derivatives
innervated by? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the cartilage
derivatives (5) of the 4th and
6th branchial arches? |
|
Definition
- Thyroid
- Cricoid
- Arytenoids
- Corniculate
- Cuneiform |
|
|
Term
What are the five 2's
associated with meckel's
diverticulum? |
|
Definition
- 2 inches long
- 2 feet from the ileocecal valve
- 2% of the population
- Commonly presents in the first 2 years of life
- May have 2 types of epithelia |
|
|
Term
What are the rule of 2's for
the 2nd week of
development? |
|
Definition
- 2 germ layers: epiblast
& hypoblast
- 2 cavities: amniotic cavity & yolk
sac
- 2 components to the placenta: cytotrophoblast
& syncytiotrophoblast |
|
|
Term
What are the rule of 3's for
the 3rd week of development? |
|
Definition
3 germ layers (gastrula):
ectoderm, mesoderm,
endoderm |
|
|
Term
What can a persistent cervical
sinus lead to? |
|
Definition
| A branchial cyst in the neck |
|
|
Term
What can be found in the
cortex of the thymus? |
|
Definition
It is dense with immature T
cells |
|
|
Term
What can be found in the
medulla of the thymus? |
|
Definition
It is pale with mature T cells,
epithelial reticular cells, and
Hassall's corpuscles |
|
|
Term
What connects the thyroid
diverticulum to the tongue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What devlopmental
contributions does the 5th
branchial arch make? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do the 2nd - 4th
branchial clefts form, which
are obliterated by
proliferation of the 2nd arch
mesenchyme? |
|
Definition
| Temporary cervical sinuses |
|
|
Term
What does aberrant
development of the 3rd and
4th pouches cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the 1st aortic arch
give rise to? |
|
Definition
| Part of the maxillary artery |
|
|
Term
What does the 2nd
pharyngeal pouch develop
into? |
|
Definition
Epithelial lining of the
palantine tonsils |
|
|
Term
What does the 3rd aortic arch
give rise to? |
|
Definition
Common carotid artery and
proximal part of the internal
carotid artery |
|
|
Term
What does the 4th pharyngeal
pouch develop into? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the 5th aortic arch
give rise to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the 5th pharyngeal
pouch develop into? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the 6th aortic arch
give rise to? |
|
Definition
The proximal part of the
pulmonary arteries and (on
left only) ductus arteriosus |
|
|
Term
What does the ductus
arteriosus give rise to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the ductus
venosus shunt blood away
from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the first branchial
cleft develop into? |
|
Definition
| The external auditory meatus |
|
|
Term
What does the foramen ovale
give rise to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the left 4th aortic
arch give rise to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the ligamentum
venosum come from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the notochord give
rise to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the primitive atria
give rise to? |
|
Definition
Trabeculated left and right
atrium |
|
|
Term
What does the primitive
ventricle give rise to? |
|
Definition
Trabeculated parts of the left
and right ventricle |
|
|
Term
What does the right 4th aortic
arch give rise to? |
|
Definition
Proximal part of the right
subclavian artery |
|
|
Term
What does the right horn of
the sinus venosus give rise
to? |
|
Definition
Smooth part of the right
atrium |
|
|
Term
What does the spleen arise
from? |
|
Definition
Dorsal mesentery, but is
supplied by the artery of the
foregut |
|
|
Term
What does the thymus arise
from? |
|
Definition
Epithelium of the 3rd
branchial pouch |
|
|
Term
What does the thyroid
diverticulum arise from? |
|
Definition
The floor of the primitive
pharynx |
|
|
Term
What does the truncus
arteriosus give rise to? |
|
Definition
The ascending aorta and
pulmonary trunk |
|
|
Term
What does the umbilical
arteries give rise to? |
|
Definition
| Medial umbilical ligaments |
|
|
Term
What ear muscle does the 1st
branchial arch form? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What effect does 13-cisretinoic
acid have on the
fetus? |
|
Definition
Extremely high risk for birth
defects |
|
|
Term
What effect does ACE
inhibitors have on the fetus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What effect does iodide have
on the fetus? |
|
Definition
Congenital goiter or
hypothyroidism |
|
|
Term
What effect does warfarin and
x-rays have on the fetus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What effects does cocaine
have on the fetus? |
|
Definition
Abnormal fetal development
and fetal addiction |
|
|
Term
What embryonic structure are
the smooth parts of the left
and right ventricle derived
from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What embryonic structure
does the coronary sinus come
from? |
|
Definition
Left horn of the sinus
venosus |
|
|
Term
What embryonic structure
does the median umbilical
ligament come from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What fetal landmark has
developed within week 2 of
fertilization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What fetal landmark has
occurred within week 1 of
fertilization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What fetal landmark has
occurred within week 3 of
fertilization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What fetal landmarks (2) have
developed within week 3 of
fertilization? |
|
Definition
Primitive streak and neural
plate begin to form |
|
|
Term
What five things arise from
neuroectoderm? |
|
Definition
- Neurohypophysis
- CNS neurons
- Oligodendrocytes
- Astrocytes
- Pineal gland |
|
|
Term
What four structures make up
the diaphragm? |
|
Definition
- Septum transversum
- pleuroperitoneal folds
- body wall
- dorsal mesentery of esophagus |
|
|
Term
What four things arise from
surface ectoderm? |
|
Definition
- Adenohypophysis
- Lens of eye
- Epithelial linings
- Epidermis |
|
|
Term
What four things does
Meckel's cartilage (from the
1st arch) develop into? |
|
Definition
- Mandible - Malleus - Incus
- Sphenomandibular ligament |
|
|
Term
What four things does
Reichert's cartilage (from the
2nd arch) develop into? |
|
Definition
- Stapes - Styloid process
- Stylohyoid ligament
- Lesser horn of hyoid |
|
|
Term
What four things does the
dorsal pancreatic bud
become? |
|
Definition
Body, tail, isthmus, and
accessory pancreatic duct |
|
|
Term
What four things does the
mesonephric (wolffian) duct
develop into? |
|
Definition
- Seminal vesicles -
Epididymis - Ejaculatory duct
- Ductus deferens |
|
|
Term
What induces the ectoderm to
form the neuroectoderm
(neural plate)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Abdominal contents herniate
into the thorax due to
incomplete development of
the diaphragm |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Abnormal opening of penile
urethra on inferior side of
penis due to failure of
urethral folds to close |
|
|
Term
What is a single umbilical
artery associated with? |
|
Definition
Congenital and chromosomal
anomalies |
|
|
Term
What is a urachal cyst or
sinus a remnant of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is an abnormal opening
of penile urethra on superior
side of penis due to faulty
positioning of the genital
tubercle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is associated with an
epispadias? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Meckel's
diverticulum? |
|
Definition
Persistence of the vitelline
duct or yolk sac |
|
|
Term
What is oligohydramnios
associated with? |
|
Definition
Bilateral renal agenesis or
posterior urethral valves (in
males) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| < 0.5 L of amniotic fluid |
|
|
Term
What is polyhydramnios
associated with? |
|
Definition
Esophageal/duodenal atresia,
anencephaly |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| > 1.5-2 L of amniotic fluid |
|
|
Term
| What is Potter's syndrome? |
|
Definition
Bilateral renal agenesis, that
results in ologohydramnios
causing limb and facial
deformities and pulmonary
hypoplasia (Babies with
Potter's can’t pee in utero) |
|
|
Term
What is the acrosome of
sperm derived from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the female
homologue to the corpus
spongiosum in the male? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the female
homologue to the prostate
gland in the male? |
|
Definition
Urethral and paraurethral
glands (of Skene) |
|
|
Term
What is the female
homologue to the scrotum in
the male? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the female
homologue to the ventral
shaft of the penis in the
male? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the flagellum (tail)
derived from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the food supply of
sperm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the male homologue
to the glans clitoris in the
female? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the male homologue
to the greater vestibular
glands (of Bartholin) in the
female? |
|
Definition
Bulbourethral glands (of
Cowper) |
|
|
Term
What is the most common
congenital anomaly of the GI
tract? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common
ectopic thyroid tissue site? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the normal remnant
of the thyroglossal duct? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the postnatal
derivative of the notochord? |
|
Definition
The nucleus pulposus of the
intervertebral disc |
|
|
Term
What is the site of T-cell
maturation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What part of the gut is the
pancreas derived? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What suppresses the
development of the
paramesonephric ducts in
males? |
|
Definition
Mullerian inhibiting substance
(secreted by the testes) |
|
|
Term
What teratogenic agent
causes limb defects ('flipper'
limbs)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What three structures does
the 3rd pharyngeal pouch
develop into? |
|
Definition
- Thymus - Left inferior
parathyroid - Right inferior
parathyroid |
|
|
Term
What three things does the
1st pharyngeal pouch develop
into? |
|
Definition
- Middle ear cavity -
Eustachian tube - Mastoid air
cells |
|
|
Term
What three things does the
paramesonephric (mullerian)
duct develop into? |
|
Definition
- Fallopian tube - Uterus -
Part of the vagina |
|
|
Term
What three things does the
ventral pancreatic bud
become? |
|
Definition
- Pancreatic head - uncinate
process - main pancreatic
duct |
|
|
Term
What two things occur during
week 4 of fetal development? |
|
Definition
Heart begins to beat, upper
and lower limb buds begin to
form |
|
|
Term
What type of bone formation
is spontaneous without
preexisting cartilage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of twins would
have 1 placenta, 2 amniotic
sacs, and 1 chorion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of twins would
have 2 amniotic sacs and 2
placentas |
|
Definition
Monozygotic or dizygotic
twins |
|
|
Term
What will DiGeorge's
syndrome lead to? |
|
Definition
T cell deficiency &
hypocalcemia |
|
|
Term
When do primary oocytes
begin meiosis I? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When do primary oocytes
complete meiosis I? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When does fetal
erythropoiesis occur in the
bone marrow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When does fetal
erythropoiesis occur in the
liver? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When does fetal
erythropoiesis occur in the
spleen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When does organogenesis
occur in the fetus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where does positive and
negative selection occur in
the thymus? |
|
Definition
At the corticomedullary
junction |
|
|
Term
Where does spermatogenesis
take place? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where is the first place fetal
erythropoiesis occurs and
when does this take place? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which aortic arch does the
stapedial artery and the hyoid
artery come from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which branchial arch are the
greater horn of hyoid and the
stylopharyngeus muscle
derived from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which branchial arch does
Meckel's cartilage develop
from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which branchial arch forms
the anterior 2/3 of the
tongue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which branchial arch forms
the incus and malleus of the
ear? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which ear bone(s) does the
2nd branchial arch form? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which embryonic tissue are
branchial clefts derived from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which embryonic tissue are
branchial pouches derived
from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is more common a
hypospadias or epispadias? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which muscles (3) are
derivatives of the 4th
branchial arch? |
|
Definition
- Most pharyngeal
constrictors - Cricothyroid -
Levator veli palatini |
|
|
Term
Which muscles (4) are
derivatives of the 2nd
branchial arch? |
|
Definition
- Muscles of facial expression
- Stapedius - Stylohyoid -
Posterior belly of digastric |
|
|
Term
Which muscles (8) are
derivatives of the 1st
branchial arch? |
|
Definition
- Temporalis - Masseter -
Lateral pterygoid - Medial
pterygoid - Mylohyoid -
Anterior belly of digastric -
Tensor tympani - Tensor veli
palatini |
|
|
Term
Which muscles are derivatives
of the 6th branchial arch? |
|
Definition
All intrinsic muscles of the
larynx, except the
cricothyroid |
|
|
Term
Which pharyngeal arch does
Reichert's cartilage develop
from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which teratogenic agent
causes vaginal clear cell
adenocarcinoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which two branchial arches
form the posterior 1/3 of the
tongue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which two embryonic tissues
are branchial arches derived
from? |
|
Definition
| Mesoderm and neural crests |
|
|
Term
Which week of fetal
development have the
genitalia taken on male/
female characteristics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A common football injury
caused by clipping from the
lateral side will damage what
structures (3 answers)? |
|
Definition
--Medial collateral ligament
--Medial meniscus --Anterior
cruciate ligament |
|
|
Term
A lumbar puncture is
performed at what landmark/ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A positive anterior drawer
sign indicates damage to
what structure? |
|
Definition
Anterior cruciate ligament
(ACL) |
|
|
Term
A pudendal nerve block is
performed at what landmark? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Abnormal passive abduction
of the knee indicates damage
to what structure? |
|
Definition
Medial collateral ligament
(MCL) |
|
|
Term
Anterior' in ACL refers to
what attachment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
At what level is a lumbar
puncture performed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Common peroneal nerve
damage manifests what
deficit? |
|
Definition
Loss of dorsiflexion(Foot
Drop) |
|
|
Term
Common peroneal, Tibial,
Femoral, and Obturator
nerves arise from what spinal
cord segments (4 answers)? |
|
Definition
--'L4-S2 (common peroneal)
--L4-S3 (tibial) --L2-L4
(femoral) and (obturator) |
|
|
Term
Coronary artery occlusion
usually occurs where? |
|
Definition
Left anterior descending
artery (LAD) |
|
|
Term
Do the coronary arteries fill
during systole or diastole? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Erection and sensation of the
penis is in what dermatomes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Femoral nerve damage
manifests what deficit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does the course of the
left recurrent laryngeal nerve
differ from that of the right? |
|
Definition
The left wraps around the
arch of the aorta and the
ligamentum arteriosum while
the right wraps around the
subclavian artery. |
|
|
Term
| How is the appendix located? |
|
Definition
2/3 of the way from the
umbilicus to the anterior
superior iliac spine |
|
|
Term
How many lobes are in the
right and left lungs and what
are their names? |
|
Definition
--Right has three
(superior,middle,inferior) --
Left has two (superior and
inferior) and the lingula |
|
|
Term
Name five portal-systemic
anastomoses. |
|
Definition
1.Left gastric-azygous vv.
2.Superior-Middle/Inferior
rectal vv. 3.Paraumbilicalinferior
epigastric
4.Retroperitoneal-renal vv.
5.Retroperitonealparavertebral
vv. |
|
|
Term
Name the 4 ligaments of the
uterus. |
|
Definition
--Suspensory ligament of
ovaries --Transverse cervical
(cardinal) ligament --Round
ligament of uterus --Broad
ligament |
|
|
Term
Name the hypothenar
muscles. |
|
Definition
--Opponens digiti minimi --
Abductor digiti minimi --
Flexor digiti minimi |
|
|
Term
Name the retroperitoneal
structures (9). |
|
Definition
1.Duodenum(2nd-4th parts)
2.Descending colon
3.Ascending colon 4.Kidney
& ureters 5.Pancreas
6.Aorta 7.Inferior vena cava
8.Adrenal glands 9.Rectum |
|
|
Term
Name the rotator cuff
muscles. |
|
Definition
--Supraspinatus --
Infraspinatus --teres minor
--Subscapularis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
--Opponens pollicis --
Abductor pollicis brevis --
Flexor pollicis brevis |
|
|
Term
Obturator nerve damage
manifests what deficit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pain from the diaphragm is
usually referred where? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name five portal-systemic
anastomoses. |
|
Definition
1.Left gastric-azygous vv.
2.Superior-Middle/Inferior
rectal vv. 3.Paraumbilicalinferior
epigastric
4.Retroperitoneal-renal vv.
5.Retroperitonealparavertebral
vv. |
|
|
Term
Name the 4 ligaments of the
uterus. |
|
Definition
--Suspensory ligament of
ovaries --Transverse cervical
(cardinal) ligament --Round
ligament of uterus --Broad
ligament |
|
|
Term
Name the hypothenar
muscles. |
|
Definition
--Opponens digiti minimi --
Abductor digiti minimi --
Flexor digiti minimi |
|
|
Term
Name the retroperitoneal
structures (9). |
|
Definition
1.Duodenum(2nd-4th parts)
2.Descending colon
3.Ascending colon 4.Kidney
& ureters 5.Pancreas
6.Aorta 7.Inferior vena cava
8.Adrenal glands 9.Rectum |
|
|
Term
Name the rotator cuff
muscles. |
|
Definition
--Supraspinatus --
Infraspinatus --teres minor
--Subscapularis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
--Opponens pollicis --
Abductor pollicis brevis --
Flexor pollicis brevis |
|
|
Term
Obturator nerve damage
manifests what deficit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pain from the diaphragm is
usually referred where? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Subarachnoid space extends
to what spinal level? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The area of the body that
contains the appendix is
known as what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The femoral triangle contains
what structures from lateral
to medial? |
|
Definition
--Femoral nerve --Femoral
artery --Femoral vein --
Femoral Canal (lymphatics) |
|
|
Term
The inguinal ligament exists
in what dermatome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The kneecaps exist in what
dermatome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The male sexual response of
ejaculation is mediated by
what part of the nervous
system? |
|
Definition
| Visceral and somatic nerves |
|
|
Term
The male sexual response of
emission is mediated by what
part of the nervous system? |
|
Definition
| Sympathetic nervous system |
|
|
Term
The male sexual response of
erection is mediated by what
part of the nervous system? |
|
Definition
Parasympathetic nervous
system |
|
|
Term
The nipple exists in what
dermatome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The recurrent laryngeal nerve
arises from what cranial nerve
and supplies what muscles? |
|
Definition
1.CN X 2.All intrinsic muscles
of the larynx except the
cricothyroid muscle. |
|
|
Term
The SA and AV nodes are
usually supplied by what
artery? |
|
Definition
| Right Coronary Artery (RCA) |
|
|
Term
The spinal cord ends at what
level in adults? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The umbilicus exists in what
dermatome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The xiphoid process exists in
what dermatome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Tibial nerve damage
manifests what deficit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Protrusions of peritoneum
through an opening, usually
sites of weakness. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Modified smooth muscle of
afferent arteriole in the
juxtaglomerular apparatus of
the kidney |
|
|
Term
What are the boundaries of
the inguinal (Hesselbach)
triangle? |
|
Definition
--Inferior epigastric artery --
Lateral border of the rectus
abdominus --Inguinal
ligament |
|
|
Term
What are the layers
encountered from the
outsided down to the brain? |
|
Definition
--Skin --Connective tissue
--Aponeurosis --Loose
connective tissue --
Pericranium --Dura mater --
Subdural space --Arachnoid
--Subarachnoid space --Pia
mater --Brain |
|
|
Term
What are the manifestations
of portal hypertension? |
|
Definition
--Esophageal varices --
Hemorrhoids --Caput
medusae |
|
|
Term
What condition is usually
associated with portal
hypertension? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What defect may predispose
an infant for a diaphragmatic
hernia? |
|
Definition
Defective development of the
pleuroperitoneal membrane |
|
|
Term
What gut regions and
structures does the celiac
artery supply? |
|
Definition
1.Foregut 2.--Stomach to
duodenum --liver --
gallbladder --pancreas |
|
|
Term
What gut regions and
structures does the IMA
supply? |
|
Definition
1.Hindgut 2.--Distal 1/3 of
transverse colon to upper
portion of rectum |
|
|
Term
What gut regions and
structures does the SMA
supply? |
|
Definition
1.Midgut 2.--Duodenum to
proximal 2/3 of transverse
colon |
|
|
Term
What is a diaphragmatic
hernia? |
|
Definition
Abdominal retroperitoneal
structures enter the thorax |
|
|
Term
| What is a femoral hernia? |
|
Definition
entrance of abdominal
contents through the femoral
canal. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Stomach contents herniate
upward through the
esophageal hiatus of the
diaphragm |
|
|
Term
What is the arterial blood
supply difference above and
below the pectinate line? |
|
Definition
--Superior rectal a. (Above)
--Inferior rectal a. (Below) |
|
|
Term
What is the course of a direct
inguinal hernia? |
|
Definition
Through weak abdominal
wall, into the inguinal
triangle, medial to the inferior
epigastric artery, through the
external inguinal ring only. |
|
|
Term
What is the course of an
indirect inguinal hernia? |
|
Definition
Through the internal (deep)
inguinal ring and the external
(superficial) inguinal ring
lateral to the inferior
epigastric artery and into the
scrotum |
|
|
Term
What is the course of the
ureters? |
|
Definition
Pass under uterine artery and
under the ductus deferens |
|
|
Term
What is the function of
Myenteric plexus?
Submucosal plexus? |
|
Definition
1.Coordinates motility along
entire gut wall 2.Regulates
local secretions, blood flow,
and absorption |
|
|
Term
What is the function of the JG
cells? |
|
Definition
--secrete renin and
erythropoietin |
|
|
Term
What is the innervation
difference above and below
the pectinate line? |
|
Definition
--Visceral innervation
(Above) --Somatic
innervation (Below) |
|
|
Term
What is the innervation of the
diaphram? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the macula densa? |
|
Definition
Sodium sensor in part of the
distal convoluted distal
tubule in the juxtaglomerular
apparatus of the kidney |
|
|
Term
What is the Myenteric plexus
also known as? Submucosal
plexus? |
|
Definition
1. Auerbach's plexus 2.
Meissner's plexus |
|
|
Term
What is the pectinate line of
the rectum? |
|
Definition
Where the hindgut meets
ectoderm in the rectum |
|
|
Term
What is the relationship of the
two pulmonary arteries in the
lung hilus? |
|
Definition
| Right anterior Left superior |
|
|
Term
What is the usual pathology
above the pectinate line of
the rectum? |
|
Definition
Internal hemorrhoids (not
painful) Adenocarcinoma |
|
|
Term
What is the usual pathology
below the pectinate line of
the rectum? |
|
Definition
External hemorrhoids
(painful) Squamous cell
carcinoma |
|
|
Term
What is the venous drainage
difference above and below
the pectinate line? |
|
Definition
--Superior rectal v. to IMV to
portal system (Above) --
Inferior rectal v. to internal
pudendal v. to internal iliac v.
to IVC (Below) |
|
|
Term
What layers of the gut wall
contribute to motility (4)? |
|
Definition
--Muscularis mucosae --
Inner circular muscle layer --
Myenteric plexus --Outer
longitudinal muscle layer |
|
|
Term
What layers of the gut wall
contribute to support (3)? |
|
Definition
--Serosa --Lamina propria --
Submucosa |
|
|
Term
| What muscle opens the jaw? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What nerve innervates most
of the 'glossus' muscles and
which is the exception? |
|
Definition
1.Vagus Nerve (CNX)
2.Palatoglossus (innervated
by hypoglossal n.) |
|
|
Term
What nerve innervates most
of the 'palat' muscles and
which is the exception? |
|
Definition
1.Trigeminal Nerve,
Mandibular branch 2.Tensor
veli palatini (innervated by
vagus n) |
|
|
Term
What nerve innervates the
muscles that close and open
the jaw? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What neurons do the GI
enteric plexus contain? |
|
Definition
Cell bodies of
parasympathetic terminal
effector neurons |
|
|
Term
What part of the heart does
the LAD supply? |
|
Definition
anterior interventricular
septum |
|
|
Term
What spinal cord levels are
vertebral disk herniation most
likely to occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What structure is in the
femoral triangle but not in
the femoral sheath? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What structures are in the
carotid sheath? |
|
Definition
1.Internal Jugular Vein
(lateral) --2.Common Carotid
Artery (medial) --3.Vagus
Nerve (posterior) |
|
|
Term
What structures are pierced
when doing an LP? |
|
Definition
1.Skin/superficial fascia
2.Ligaments
(supraspinatous,interspinous,
ligamentum flavum)
3.Epidural space 4.Dura
mater 5.Subdural space
6.Arachnoid 7.Subarachnoid
space--CSF |
|
|
Term
What structures do the broad
ligament contain (4)? |
|
Definition
--Round ligaments of the
uterus --Ovaries --Uterine
tubules --Uterine vessels |
|
|
Term
What structures make up the
bronchopulmonary segment? |
|
Definition
--Tertiary bronchus --
Bronchial artery --Pulmonary
artery |
|
|
Term
What structures perforate the
diaphragm at what vertebral
levels? |
|
Definition
--IVC at T8 --esophagus,
vagal trunks at T10 --aorta,
thoracic duct, axygous vein at
T12 |
|
|
Term
What three muscles close the
jaw? |
|
Definition
--Masseter --Temporalis --
Medial pterygoid |
|
|
Term
What usually provides the
blood supply for the inferior
left ventricle? |
|
Definition
Posterior descending artery
(PD) of the RCA |
|
|
Term
When do the JG cells secrete
renin? |
|
Definition
in response to decreased
renal BP, decreased sodium
delivery to distal tubule, and
increased sympathetic tone |
|
|
Term
When is damage to the
recurrent laryngeal nerve
most likely to happen and
what are its results(2
answers)? |
|
Definition
1.Thyroid surgery
2.Hoarseness |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where is the Myenteric plexus
located? Submucosal plexus? |
|
Definition
1.Between the inner and outer
layers of smooth muscle in GI
tract wall 2.Between mucosa
and inner layer of smooth
muscle in GI tract wall. |
|
|
Term
Which ligament contains the
ovarian vessels? |
|
Definition
Suspensory ligament of the
ovary |
|
|
Term
Which ligament contains the
uterine vessels? |
|
Definition
Transverse cervical (cardinal)
ligament |
|
|
Term
Which lung is the usual site of
an inhaled foreign body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which lung provides a space
for the heart to occupy? |
|
Definition
Left lung (in the place of the
middle lobe) |
|
|
Term
Which meningeal layer is not
pierced during an LP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who usually gets a direct
inguinal hernia? indirect
hernia (and why)? |
|
Definition
1.Older men 2.Infants (failure
of processus vaginalis to
close) |
|
|
Term
What are the 3 layers of
peripheral nerves? (inner to
outer) |
|
Definition
1) Endoneurium 2)
Perineurium 3) Epineurium |
|
|
Term
Where is type I collagen
found?(7) |
|
Definition
1. bone 2. tendon 3. skin 4.
dentin 5. fascia 6. cornea 7.
late wound repair |
|
|
Term
Where is type II collagen
found? (3) |
|
Definition
1. cartilage (including hyaline)
2. vitreous body 3. nucleus
pulposus. |
|
|
Term
What are the functions of the
major structures of the inner
ear bony labyrinth? |
|
Definition
1. Cochlea- hearing 2.
vestibule- linear acceleration
3. semicircular canalsangular
acceleration. |
|
|
Term
What are the major structures
of the inner ear bony
labyrinth? |
|
Definition
1. Cochlea 2. vestibule 3.
semicircular canals |
|
|
Term
What are the major structures
of the inner ear membranous
labyrinth? |
|
Definition
1. Cochlear duct 2. utricle. 3.
saccule 4. semicircular
canals. |
|
|
Term
Name two proteins involved
in the structure of macula
adherens. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name 6 functions of Golgi
apparatus. |
|
Definition
1. Distribution center of proteins and
lipids from ER to plasma membrane,
lysosomes, secretory vessicles 2.
Modifies N-oligosaccharides on
asparagine 3. Adds O-oligosaccharides
to Ser and Thr residues 4. Proteoglycan
assembly from proteoglycan core
proteins 5. Sulfation of sugars in
proteoglycans and of selected tyrosine
on proteins
6. Addition of mannose-6-
phosphate to specific
lysosomal proteins, which
targets the protein to the
lysosome |
|
|
Term
Name two proteins involved
in the structure of zona
adherens? |
|
Definition
1. E-cadherins
2. actin filaments |
|
|
Term
Which cells are rich in smooth
ER? |
|
Definition
1. liver hepatocytes, 2.
steroid hormone-producing
cells of adrenal cortex. |
|
|
Term
Describe the immune
response stimulated via
Peyer's patches. |
|
Definition
1. M cells take up antigen. 2.
stimulated B cells leave Peyer's patch
and travel through lymph and blood to
lamina propria of intestine. 3. In
lamina propria B cells differentiate into
IgA-secreting plasma cells. 4. IgA
receives protective secretory
component. 5. IgA is transported
across epithelium to gut to deal with
intraluminal Ag. |
|
|
Term
Which cells are rich in rough
ER? |
|
Definition
1. Mucus-secreting goblet
cells of small intestine, 2.
antibody-secreting plasma
cells. |
|
|
Term
What are the functions of the
lymph node? |
|
Definition
1. Nonspecific filtration by
macrophages. 2. storage/
proliferation of B and T cells
3. Ab production. |
|
|
Term
Where is type III collagen
found? (5) |
|
Definition
1. skin 2.blood vessels
3.uterus 4.fetal tissue
5.granulation tissue |
|
|
Term
Name five types of epithelial
cell junctions. |
|
Definition
1. zona occludens 2.zona
adherens 3.macula adherens
4.gap junction
5.hemidesmosome |
|
|
Term
Describe microtubule
arrangement of cilia. |
|
Definition
9+2 arrangement of
microtubules. |
|
|
Term
Describe the outer structure
of a Peyer's patch. |
|
Definition
A Peyer's patch is 'covered' by
single layer of cuboidal
enterocytes, interspersed with
specialized M cells (no goblet
cells). |
|
|
Term
What is a lymph node?
Include information on
structural components. |
|
Definition
A secondary lymphoid organ.
Has many afferents, one or
more efferents. With
trabeculae. Major histological
regions = Follicle, Medulla,
Paracortex |
|
|
Term
What is the primary
regulatory control of zona
fasciculata secretion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the primary
regulatory control of zona
reticularis secretion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are/is the primary
secretory product of the zona
glomerulosa? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do Brunner's glands
secrete? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the function of liver
sinusoids? |
|
Definition
Allow macromolecules of
plasma full access to surface
of liver cells through space of
Disse. |
|
|
Term
What is the function of a gap
junction? |
|
Definition
Allows adjacent cells to
communicate for electric and
metabolic functions. |
|
|
Term
What is produced by alpha
cells of the Islets of
Langerhans? |
|
Definition
| alpha cells produce glucagon |
|
|
Term
What three cell types are
found in Islets of Langerhans? |
|
Definition
| alpha, beta, and gamma cells |
|
|
Term
What type of cells are Nissl
bodies found? In what parts
of the cell? |
|
Definition
Are found in neurons. Are not
found in axon or axon
hillock. |
|
|
Term
IN what area of the spleen are
B cells found? |
|
Definition
B cells are found within the
white pulp of the spleen. |
|
|
Term
What is type IV collagen
found? (1) |
|
Definition
basement membrane or basal
lamina |
|
|
Term
What is produced by beta
cells of the Islets of
Langerhans? |
|
Definition
| beta cells produce insulin |
|
|
Term
What is the only GI
submucosal gland? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe the histological
layers of the adrenal glands
(outside to in) |
|
Definition
Capsule, Zona glomerulosa,
Zona fasciculata, Zona
reticularis, Medulla. |
|
|
Term
What are/is the primary
secretory product of the
adrenal medulla? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Check out the picture in the
book. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Check out the picture in the
book. p. 105 |
|
|
Term
What do the medullary cords
consist of? |
|
Definition
Closely packed lymphocytes
and plasma cells. |
|
|
Term
What is the most common
type of collagen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most abundant
protein in the human body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define Islets of Langerhans. |
|
Definition
| Collections of endocrine cells. |
|
|
Term
What is the function of
hemidesmosomes? |
|
Definition
Connect cells to underlying
extracellular matrix. |
|
|
Term
What are/is the primary
secretory product of the zona
fasciculata? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is another name for
macula adherens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the effect of duodenal
ulcers on Brunner's gland
histology? |
|
Definition
Duodenal ulcers cause
hypertrophy of Brunner's
glands. |
|
|
Term
How does dynein function in
cilia function? |
|
Definition
Dynein causes the bending of
cilium by differential sliding
of doublets. |
|
|
Term
What kind of protein is
dynein? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe the role of dynein in
cilia structure. |
|
Definition
Dynein links peripheral 9
doublets of microtubules. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Endolymph is made by the
stria vascularis. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Endoneurium invests single
nerve fiber of the peripheral
nerve. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Epineurium (dense connective
tissue) surrounds entire never
(fascicles and blood vessels) |
|
|
Term
What is type X collagen
found? (1) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Plasma is filtered on the basis
of what properties? |
|
Definition
Filtration of plasma occurs
according to net charge and
size. |
|
|
Term
How is the glomerular
basement membrane formed? |
|
Definition
From the fusion of
endothelial and podocyte
basement membranes. |
|
|
Term
What is produced by gamma
cells of the Islets of
Langerhans? |
|
Definition
gamma cells produce
somatostatin. |
|
|
Term
What is the mnemonic to
remember layers and
products of adrenal cortex? |
|
Definition
GFR (Glomerulosa,
Fasciculata, Reticularis)
corresponds to Salt (Na+),
Sugar (glucocorticoids) and
Sex (androgens) The deeper
you go, the sweeter it gets. |
|
|
Term
What is the function of hair
cells? |
|
Definition
Hair cells are the sensory
elements in both the cochlear
and vestibular apparatus. |
|
|
Term
Name a protein involved in
the structure of
hemidesmosomes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is another name for
zona adherens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe the histological
structure of sinusoids of the
liver. |
|
Definition
Irregular 'capillaries' with
round pores 100-200 nm in
diameter and no basement
membrane. |
|
|
Term
What is the function of
smooth ER? |
|
Definition
Is the site of steroid synthesis
and detoxification of drugs
and poisons |
|
|
Term
What is the function of rough
ER? |
|
Definition
Is the site of synthesis of
secretory (exported proteins
and of N-linked
oligosaccharide addition to
many proteins. |
|
|
Term
What part of pancreas are the
Islets of Langerhans
concentrated? |
|
Definition
Islets of Langerhans are most
numerous in the tail of
pancreas. |
|
|
Term
What structural defect causes
Kartagener's syndrome? What
is the consequence? |
|
Definition
Kartagener's syndrome is due
to dynein arm defect. Results
in immotile cilia. |
|
|
Term
| Define Pacinian corpuscles. |
|
Definition
Large, encapsulated sensory
receptors found in deeper
layers of skin at ligaments,
joint capsules, serous
membranes, mesenteries. |
|
|
Term
Where are Brunner's glands
located? |
|
Definition
Located in submucosa of
duodenum |
|
|
Term
Describe the histologic
structure of sinusoids of the
spleen. |
|
Definition
Long, vascular channels in
red pulp. With fenestrated
'barrel hoop' basement
membrane. |
|
|
Term
What is the histologic change
in lymph nodes during an
extreme cellular immune
response? |
|
Definition
Lymph node paracortex
becomes enlarged during
extreme cellular immune
response. |
|
|
Term
What is the histologic
presentation of DiGeorge's
syndrome? |
|
Definition
Lymph node paracortex is not
well developed in patients
with DiGeorge's syndrome. |
|
|
Term
What kind of cells are found
nearby the sinusoids of the
spleen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the major structures
of the lymph node medulla? |
|
Definition
Medulla consists of medullary
cords and medullary sinuses. |
|
|
Term
What do medullary sinuses
communicate with? |
|
Definition
Medullary sinuses
communicate with efferent
lymphatics. |
|
|
Term
What do medullary sinuses
consist of? |
|
Definition
Medullary sinuses contain
reticular cells and
macrophages. |
|
|
Term
What is the function of
Meissner's corpuscles? |
|
Definition
Meissner's corpuscles are
involved in light
discriminatory touch of
glabrous skin. |
|
|
Term
What is the histologic change
in nephrotic syndrome? What
is the consequence of this
change? |
|
Definition
Negative charge is lost.
Plasma protein is lost in urine |
|
|
Term
What is the glomerular
basement membrane coated
with? (provides negative
charge to filter). |
|
Definition
Negatively charged heparan
sulfate. |
|
|
Term
What is the most common
tumor the adrenal medulla in
children? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the function of
Pacinian corpuscles? |
|
Definition
Pacinian corpuscles are
involved in pressure, coarse
touch, vibration, and tension. |
|
|
Term
What do the Islets of
Langerhans arise from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What specialized vascular
structure is found in the
lymph node paracortex?
What is the function of this
structure? |
|
Definition
Paracortex contains high
endothelial venules (HEV). T
and B cells enter from the
blood through the HEV. |
|
|
Term
What cells are found in the
lymph node paracortex? |
|
Definition
| Paracortex houses T cells. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Perineurium (permeability
barrier) surrounds a fascicle
of nerve fibers. |
|
|
Term
What is the most common
tumor the adrenal medulla in
adults? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Compare the consequences
of pheochromocytoma vs.
neuroblastoma on blood
pressure |
|
Definition
Pheochromocytoma causes
episodic hypertension
Neuroblastoma does NOT
cause episodic hypertension |
|
|
Term
| What is the space of Disse? |
|
Definition
Pores in liver sinusoids
allowing plasma
macromolecules access to
liver cell surfaces. |
|
|
Term
What is the primary
regulatory control of adrenal
medulla secretion? |
|
Definition
Preganglionic sympathetic
fibers |
|
|
Term
What is the function of zona
occludens? |
|
Definition
Prevents diffusion across
intracellular space. |
|
|
Term
Describe the appearance and
status of primary vs.
secondary follicles. |
|
Definition
Primary follicles are dense
and dormant. Secondary
follicles have pale central
germinal centers and are
active. |
|
|
Term
Describe the location of the
lymph node paracortex. |
|
Definition
Region of cortex between
follicles and medulla. |
|
|
Term
What is the primary
regulatory control of zona
glomerulosa secretion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the glomerular
basement membrane
responsible for? |
|
Definition
Responsible for the actual
filtration of plasma. |
|
|
Term
What is another name for
type III collagen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where in the inner ear are the
ampullae found? What is the
function of this structure? |
|
Definition
Semicircular canals contain
ampullae Functions in
detecting angular
acceleration. |
|
|
Term
What are/is the primary
secretory product of the zona
reticularis? |
|
Definition
sex hormones (e.g.
androgens) |
|
|
Term
What is the function of lymph
node follicles? |
|
Definition
Site of B-cell localization and
proliferation. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Small, discrete sites of
attachment of epithelial cells. |
|
|
Term
| Define Meissner's corpuscles. |
|
Definition
Small, encapsulated sensory
receptors found in dermis of
palm, soles and digits of skin. |
|
|
Term
What is an M cell? What is it's
function. |
|
Definition
Specialized cell interspersed
between the cuboidal
enterocytes covering a Peyer's
patch. M cells take up
antigens. |
|
|
Term
Name the layers of epidermis
from surface to base. |
|
Definition
stratum Corneum, stratum
Lucidum, stratum
Granulosum, stratum
Spinosum, stratum Basalis. |
|
|
Term
What is the location of zona
adherens? |
|
Definition
Surrounds the perimeter just
below zona occludens. |
|
|
Term
What is the function of Nissl
bodies? |
|
Definition
Synthesize enzymes (e.g.
ChAT) and peptide
neurotransmitters. |
|
|
Term
In what area of the spleen are
T cells found? |
|
Definition
T cells are found in the PALS
and the red pulp of the
spleen. |
|
|
Term
Which part of the cochlea
picks up high frequency
sound? Which picks up low
frequency? |
|
Definition
The base of the cochlea picks
up high frequency sound the
apex picks up low frequency
sound |
|
|
Term
What is the bony labyrinth
filled with? Describe its
composition. |
|
Definition
The bony labyrinth is filled
with perilymph. Perilymph is
Na+ rich, similar to ECF |
|
|
Term
What is the cause of I cell
disease? What is the
consequence? |
|
Definition
The failure of addition of
mannose-6-phosphate to
lysosome proteins. These
enzymes are secreted outside
the cell instead of being
targeted to the lysosome. |
|
|
Term
What is the membranous
labyrinth filled with? Describe
its composition. |
|
Definition
The membranous labyrinth is
filled with endolymph.
Endolymph is K+ rich, similar
to ICF. |
|
|
Term
What layer of the peripheral
nerve must be rejoined in
microsurgery for limb
reattachment? |
|
Definition
The perineurium must be
rejoined in microsurgery for
limb reattachment. |
|
|
Term
Where in the inner ear are the
maculae found? What is the
function of this structure? |
|
Definition
The utricle and saccule
contain maculae Functions in
detecting linear acceleration. |
|
|
Term
How is the function of gap
junctions accomplished? |
|
Definition
Through a connection with
central channels. |
|
|
Term
What is another name for
zona occludens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are mnemonics for
remembering locations for
type I, II and IV collagen? |
|
Definition
Type ONE: bONE Type TWO:
carTWOlage Type FOUR:
under the FLOOR (basement
membrane) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Unencapsulated lymphoid
tissue found in lamina propria
and submucosa of small
intestine. |
|
|
Term
What type of infection may
induce an extreme cellular
immune response? What
happens to the lymph node
during such an immune
response? |
|
Definition
Viral response is an example.
The paracortex enlarges. |
|
|
Term
According to the
Homunculus man, place the
following in order (from
medial to lateral). hand, foot,
tongue, face, trunk |
|
Definition
foot, trunk, hand, face,
tongue |
|
|
Term
Can Bell's palsy occur
idiopathically? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Can fasiculations be
present in a LMN lesion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is the anterior nucleus
of the thalamus part of the
limbic system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is the cingulate gyrus
part of the limbic system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is the Entrorhinal
cortex part of the limbic
system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is the hippocampal
formation part of the limbic
system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is the mammillary
body part of the limbic
system?Is the mammillary
body part of the limbic
system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is the septal area part
of the limbic system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Thoracic outlet
syndrome results in atrophy
of the interosseous muscles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Thoracic outlet
syndrome results in atrophy
of the thenar and hypothenar
eminences? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Thoracic outlet
syndrome results in
disappearance of the radial
pulse upon moving the head
to the opposite side? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Thoracic outlet
syndrome results in sensory
deficits on the medial side of
the forearm and hand? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A lesion of the globus
pallidus causes what disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A lesion of the mammillary
bodies (bilateraly) produces
what? |
|
Definition
Wernicke-Korsakoff's
encephalopathy
(confabulations, anterograde
amnesia) |
|
|
Term
A lesion of the optic chiasm
produces? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A lesion of the right dorsal
optic radiation (parietal
lesion) produces? |
|
Definition
left lower quadrantic anopsia
(a temporal lesion) |
|
|
Term
A lesion of the right Meyer's
loop (temporal lobe)
produces? |
|
Definition
left upper quadrantic anopsia
(a temporal lesion) |
|
|
Term
A lesion of the right optic
nerve produces? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A lesion of the right optic
tract produces? |
|
Definition
left homonymous
hemianopsia |
|
|
Term
A lesion of the right visual
fibers just prior to the visual
cortex produces? |
|
Definition
left hemianopsia with macular
sparing |
|
|
Term
A lesion of the Striatum can
cause which 2 diseases? |
|
Definition
Huntington's and Wilson's
disease |
|
|
Term
A positive Babinski is an
indicator for a (UMN or LMN)
lesion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A rupture of the middle
menigeal artery causes what
type of hematoma? (epidural
or subdural) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A rupture of the superior
cerebral veins causes what
type of hematoma? (epidural
or subdural) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An aneurysm of the anterior
communicating artery may
cause what type of defects? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An aneurysm of what artery
may cause CN III palsy? |
|
Definition
posterior communicating
artery |
|
|
Term
Are D1 neurons in the basal
ganglia inhibitory or
excitatory? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Are D2 neurons in the basal
ganglia inhibitory or
excitatory? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Beginning with anterior
communicating artery
describe the path around the
circle of Willis. |
|
Definition
ant. comm. - ACA - ICA -
post. comm. - PCA - PCA -
post. comm. - ICA - ACA -
ant. comm. |
|
|
Term
Bell's Palsy is seen as a
complication in what 5
things? |
|
Definition
AIDS, Lyme disease,
Sarcoidosis, Tumors,
Diabetes (ALexander Bell with
STD) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Wernicke's area (associative
auditory cortex) |
|
|
Term
| Brodmann's area 3,1,2 is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Brodmann's area 41, 42 is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Brodmann's area 44, 45 is? |
|
Definition
| Broca's area (motor speech) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
frontal eye movement and
pupilary change area |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
CN I passes through what
'hole'? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
CN II passes through what
'hole'? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| CN III has what 4 functions? |
|
Definition
eye movement, pupil
constriction, accommodation,
eyelid opening |
|
|
Term
CN III inervates what 5
muscles. |
|
Definition
medial rectus, superior
rectus, inferior rectus, inferior
oblique, levator palpebrae
superioris |
|
|
Term
CN III passes through what
'hole'? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| CN IV inervates what muscle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
CN IV passes through what
'hole'? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
CN IX passes through what
'hole'? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| CN V has what 2 functions? |
|
Definition
| mastication, facial sensation |
|
|
Term
CN V1 passes through what
'hole'? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
CN V2 passes through what
'hole'? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
CN V3 passes through what
'hole'? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| CN VI inervates what muscle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
CN VI passes through what
'hole'? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| CN VII has what 4 functions? |
|
Definition
facial movement, anterior 2/3
taste, lacrimation, salivation
(SL, SM glands) |
|
|
Term
CN VII passes through what
'hole'? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| CN VIII has what 2 functions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
CN VIII passes through what
'hole'? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| CN X has what 5 functions? |
|
Definition
taste, swallowing, palate
elevation, talking,
thoracoabdominal viscera |
|
|
Term
CN X passes through what
'hole'? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| CN XI has what 2 functions? |
|
Definition
head turning, shoulder
shrugging |
|
|
Term
CN XI passes through what
'hole'? |
|
Definition
jugular foramen (descending)
-- foramen magnum
(ascending) |
|
|
Term
| CN XII has what function? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
CN XII passes through what
'hole'? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Complete the muscle spindle
reflex arc by placing the
following in order: alpha
motor, Ia afferent, muscle
stretch, extrafusal
contraction, intrafusal
stretch. |
|
Definition
muscle stretch - intrafusal
stretch - Ia afferent - alpha
motor - extrafusal
contraction |
|
|
Term
Extrafusal fibers are
innervated by what motor
neuron? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
From which 3 spinal roots
does long thoracic nerve
arises? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
General sensory/motor
dysfunction and aphasia are
caused by stroke of the? (ant.
circle or post. circle) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Give 3 characteristics of a
LMN lesion. |
|
Definition
atrophy, flaccid paralysis,
absent deep tendon reflexes |
|
|
Term
Give 3 charateristics of
internuclear ophthalmoplegia
(INO) |
|
Definition
medial rectus palsy on lateral
gaze, nystagmus in abducted
eye, normal convergence. |
|
|
Term
Give 4 characteristics of an
UMN lesion. |
|
Definition
spastic paralysis, increased
deep tendon reflexes, +
Babinski, minor to no atrophy |
|
|
Term
Golgi tendon organs send
their signal via what nerve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Horner's Syndrome is present
if the lesion in Brown-
Sequard is above what level? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How are the fibers of the
corticospinal tract laminated?
(legs/arms medial or lateral?) |
|
Definition
| arms- medial, legs-lateral |
|
|
Term
How are the fibers of the
dorsal column laminated?
(legs/arms medial or lateral?) |
|
Definition
| legs-medial, arms-lateral |
|
|
Term
How are the fibers of the
spinothalmic tract laminated?
(sacral/cervical medial or
lateral?) |
|
Definition
| cervical-medial, sacral-lateral |
|
|
Term
How do glucose and amino
acids cross the blood-brain
barrier? |
|
Definition
carrier-mediated transport
mechanism |
|
|
Term
How does the hypothalamus
control the adenohypophysis? |
|
Definition
via releasing factors (ie. TRH,
CRF, GnRF, etc.) |
|
|
Term
Huntington's patients
typically have what type of
movements? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If the radial nerve is lesioned,
what 2 reflexes are lost? |
|
Definition
triceps reflex and
brachioradialis reflex |
|
|
Term
If you break your humerus
mid-shaft, which nerve would
likely injure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If you break your medial
epicondyle of the humerus,
which nerve would likely
injure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If you break your
supracondyle of the humerus,
which nerve would likely
injure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If you break your surgical
neck of the humerus, which
nerve would likely injure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In a lesion of the radial nerve,
what muscle is associated
with wrist drop? |
|
Definition
| extensor carpi radialis longus |
|
|
Term
Intrafusal fibers are
encapsulated and make up
muscle spindles that send
their signal via what nerve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Intrafusal fibers are
innervated by what motor
neuron? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is Bell's palsy an UMN or a
LMN lesion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is the Babinski reflex (positive
or negative) when the big toe
dorsiflexes and the other toes
fan-out? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name 2 locations for lesions
in Syringomyelia? |
|
Definition
ventral white commissure and
ventral horns |
|
|
Term
Name 3 locations for lesions
in Vit.B12 neuropathy
(Friedreich's ataxia)? |
|
Definition
dorsal columns, lateral
corticospinal tracts, and
spinocerebellar tracts |
|
|
Term
Name 7 functions of the
hypothalamus? |
|
Definition
Thirst/waterbalance,
Adenohypophysis control,
Neurohypophysis control,
Hunger/satiety, Autonomic
regulation, Temperature
regulation, Sexual emotions.
TAN HATS |
|
|
Term
Name the 4 foramina that are
in the posterior cranial fossa? |
|
Definition
internal auditory meatus,
jugular foramen, hypoglossal
canal, and foramen magnum. |
|
|
Term
Name the 5 foramina that are
in the middle cranial fossa? |
|
Definition
optic canal, superior orbital
fissure, foramen rotundum,
foramen ovale, and foramen
spinosum. |
|
|
Term
Name the 5 functions of the
Limbic system? |
|
Definition
Feeding, Fighting, Feeling,
Flight, sex (F--K) [the
famous 5 F's] |
|
|
Term
Name the 5 segments of the
brachial plexus in order from
proximal to distal. |
|
Definition
roots - trunks - divisions -
cords - branches |
|
|
Term
Name the type of movement
with slow writhing
movements (esp. the fingers)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the type of movement
with sudden, jerky,
purposeless movements? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the type of movement
with sudden, wild flailing of
one arm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Neurons from the globus
pallidus have what action on
the ventral anterior nucleus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Neurons from the striatum
have what action on the
globus pallidus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Place the following in order
(from light entering the eye to
reflex). Pretectal nuclei,
pupillary constrictor muscle,
retina, ciliary ganglion,
Edinger-Westphal nuclei, CN
II, CN III. |
|
Definition
retina, CN II, pretectal nuclei,
Edinger-Westphal nuclei, CN
III, ciliary ganglion, pupillary
constrictor muscle |
|
|
Term
Stimulation from the
paraventricular nucleus cause
the release of what hormone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Stimulation from the
supraoptic nucleus cause the
release of what hormone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Blood-Brain Barrier is
formed by what 3 structures? |
|
Definition
choriod plexus epithelium,
intracerebral capillary
endothelium, astrocytes.
(First Aid says Arachnoid but
the brains say that’s a typo) |
|
|
Term
The central retinal artery is a
branch off what larger artery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The embryologic defect of
having a cervical rib can
compress what 2 structures? |
|
Definition
subclavian artery and inferior
trunk of the brachial plexus |
|
|
Term
The fasciculus cuneatus
contains fibers from the
upper or lower body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The fasciculus gracilis
contains fibers from the
upper or lower body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The hippocampal formation is
connected to the mammillary
body and septal area via what
structure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The hippocampus has input
from what two areas? |
|
Definition
| entorhinal cortex, septal area |
|
|
Term
The hippocampus has output
to what two areas? |
|
Definition
| mammillary body, septal area |
|
|
Term
The infraorbital nerve is a
branch off what larger nerve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Nucleus Ambiguus has
fibers from what 3 CNs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Nucleus Solitarius has
fibers from what 3 CNs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Traction or tear of the
superior trunk of the brachial
plexus causes what
syndrome? |
|
Definition
Erb-Duchenne palsy (waiter's
tip) |
|
|
Term
Vertigo, ataxia, visual deficits,
and coma are caused by
stroke of the? (ant. circle or
post. circle) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Visual fibers from the lateral
geniculate body terminate on
the upper and lower banks of
what fissure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What 1 nerve root is assoc.
with the achilles reflex? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What 1 nerve root is assoc.
with the biceps reflex? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What 1 nerve root is assoc.
with the patella reflex? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What 1 nerve root is assoc.
with the triceps reflex? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What 2 areas have sensation
deficit in a lesion of the
median nerve? |
|
Definition
lateral palm/thumb and the
radial 2 1/2 fingers |
|
|
Term
What 2 areas have sensation
deficit in a lesion of the ulnar
nerve? |
|
Definition
medial palm and the ulnar 1
1/2 fingers |
|
|
Term
What 2 cutaneus nerves are
lost in a lesion of the radial
nerve? |
|
Definition
posterior brachial cutaneous
and posterior antebrachial
cutaneous |
|
|
Term
What 2 spinal roots make up
the inferior trunk of the
brachial plexus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What 2 spinal roots make up
the superior trunk of the
brachial plexus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What 2 structures pass
through the internal auditory
meatus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What 2 symptoms are seen
with a lesion of the
musculocutaneus nerve? |
|
Definition
difficulty flexing the arm,
variable sensory loss |
|
|
Term
What 2 symptoms are seen
with a lesion of the ulnar
nerve? |
|
Definition
weak intrinsic muscles of the
hand, Pope's blessing |
|
|
Term
What 3 blood barriers does
the body have? |
|
Definition
blood-brain, blood-gas,
blood-testis |
|
|
Term
What 3 muscles are lost in a
lesion of the
musculocutaneous nerve? |
|
Definition
coracobrachialis, biceps
brachii, and brachialis |
|
|
Term
What 3 muscles are lost in a
lesion of the radial nerve? |
|
Definition
triceps brachii,
brachioradialis, and extensor
carpi radialis longus |
|
|
Term
What 3 structures pass
through the foramen
magnum? |
|
Definition
spinal roots of CN XI
(ascending), brainstem,
vertebral arteries |
|
|
Term
What 3 structures pass
through the optic canal? |
|
Definition
CN II, ophthalmic artery,
central retinal vein |
|
|
Term
What 4 'muscles' does the
radial nerve innervate? |
|
Definition
Brachioradialis, Extensors of
the wrist and fingers,
Supinator, Triceps. (BEST) |
|
|
Term
What 4 areas is there
decreased output in
Parkinson's? |
|
Definition
substantia nigra pars
compacta, globus pallidus,
ventral anterior nucleus,
cortex |
|
|
Term
What 4 movements are
limpaired in a lesion of the
ulnar nerve? |
|
Definition
wrist flextion, wrist
addduction, thumb
adduction, and adductiont of
the 2 ulnar fingers |
|
|
Term
What 4 movements are
limpaired in a lesion of the
ulnar nerve? |
|
Definition
wrist flextion, wrist
addduction, thumb
adduction, and adductiont of
the 2 ulnar fingers |
|
|
Term
What 4 movements are lost in
a lesion of the median nerve? |
|
Definition
forearm pronation, wrist
flexion, finger flexion, and
several thumb movements |
|
|
Term
What 4 structures pass
through the jugular foramen? |
|
Definition
CN IX, X, XI(descending),
jugular vein |
|
|
Term
What 4 things do the lateral
striate arteries supply? |
|
Definition
internal capsule, caudate,
putamen, globus pallidus |
|
|
Term
What 5 spinal nerves that
make up the brachial plexus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What 5 structures pass
through the supperior orbital
fissure? |
|
Definition
CN III, IV, V1, VI, ophthalmic
vein |
|
|
Term
What 5 types of cells make up
the suportive cells of the
CNS/PNS? |
|
Definition
Astrocytes, Microglia,
Oligodendroglia, Schwann
cells, Ependymal cells. |
|
|
Term
What are 2 characteristics of
Tabes Dorsalis? |
|
Definition
impaired proprioception and
locomotor ataxia |
|
|
Term
What are 3 clinical findings of
the arm in Erb-Duchenne
palsy? |
|
Definition
arm hangs by the side,
medially rotated, forearm is
pronated |
|
|
Term
What are the 2 classic causes
of Erb-Duchenne palsy? |
|
Definition
blow to the shoulder and
trauma during birth |
|
|
Term
What are the 3 classic
symptoms of Horner's
syndrome? |
|
Definition
| ptosis, miosis, anhydrosis |
|
|
Term
What are the 4 classic
findings of Brown-Sequard
syndrome? |
|
Definition
ipsi motor paralysis(spastic),
ipsi loss of dorsal column,
contra loss of spinothalamic,
ipsi loss of ALL sensation at
the level of the lesion |
|
|
Term
What are the input and output
of the anterior nucleus of the
thalamus? |
|
Definition
input - mammillary body,
output - cingulate gyrus |
|
|
Term
What are the input and output
of the cingulate gyrus? |
|
Definition
input - anterior nucleus of
the thalamus, output -
entorhinal cortex |
|
|
Term
What are the input and output
of the entorhinal cortex? |
|
Definition
input - cingulate gyrus,
output - hippocampal
formation |
|
|
Term
What are the input and output
of the mammillary body? |
|
Definition
input - hippocampal
formation, output - anterior
nucleus of the thalamus |
|
|
Term
What are the input and output
of the septal area? |
|
Definition
input - hippocampal
formation, output -
hippocampal formation |
|
|
Term
What artery do the lateral
striate branch off of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What artery does the anterior
inferior cerebellar artery
branch off of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What artery does the anterior
spinal artery branch off of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What artery does the
posterior inferior cerebellar
artery branch off of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What artery does the superior
cerebellar artery branch off
of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What artery supplies Broca's
and Wernicke's speech areas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What artery supplies the
medial surface of the brain
(foot-leg area)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bone do all the
foramina of the middle
cranial fossa pass through? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What CN is the afferent limb
of the pupillary light reflex? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What CN is the efferent limb
of the pupillary light reflex? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What CNs lie medially at the
brain stem? |
|
Definition
| CN III, VI, XIII (3 - 6 - 12) |
|
|
Term
What CNS/ PNS supportive
cell has the following
functions: central myelin
production? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What CNS/ PNS supportive
cell has the following
functions: inner lining of the
ventricles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What CNS/ PNS supportive
cell has the following
functions: peripheral myelin
production? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What CNS/ PNS supportive
cell has the following
functions: phagocytosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What CNS/ PNS supportive
cell has the following
functions: physical support,
repair, K+ metabolism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What disease does Tabes
Dorsalis result from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What disorder results from a
lesion in the medial
longitudinal fasciculus (MLF). |
|
Definition
Internuclear ophthalmoplegia
(INO) |
|
|
Term
What embryologic defect is
thoracic outlet syndrome
caused by |
|
Definition
| by having a cervical rib. |
|
|
Term
What happens if a swinging
light test is performed on a
Marcus Gann pupil (afferent
pupil defect)? |
|
Definition
results in pupil dialation of
the defective eye as the light
is swung from the normal eye
to the defective eye |
|
|
Term
What happens if you
illuminate one pupil in a
normal patient? |
|
Definition
both eyes constrict
(consensual reflex) |
|
|
Term
What hypo/hyper-kinetic
disorder is marked by
decreased serum ceruloplasm
and Keyser-Fleischer rings in
the eyes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a Argyll Robertson
pupil? |
|
Definition
the eyes DO NOT constrict to
light, but DO accommodate
to near objects |
|
|
Term
What is affected in a central
VII lesion (lesion above the
facial nucleus - UMN)? |
|
Definition
paralysis of the contralateral
lower quadrant |
|
|
Term
What is affected in a
peripheral VII lesion (lesion at
or below the facial nucleus -
LMN)? |
|
Definition
paralysis of the ipsilateral
face both upper and lower. |
|
|
Term
What is the common name for
a peripheral VII lesion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the consequence
when your CNS stimulates the
gamma motor neuron and the
intrafusal fibers contract? |
|
Definition
increased sensitivity of the
reflex arc |
|
|
Term
What is the direct pathway
from the striatum to the
cortex? |
|
Definition
The striatum to the
substantia nigra pars
reticularis /medial globus
pallidus to the thalamus to
the cortex (excitatory path) |
|
|
Term
What is the embryologic
tissue origin of Microglia
(ecto/meso/edo)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the indirect pathway
from the striatum to the
cortex? |
|
Definition
The striatum to the lateral
globus pallidus to the
subthalamic nucleus to the
substantia nigra/medial
globus pallidus to the
thalamus to the cortex
(inhibitory pathway but still
increases the thalamic drive) |
|
|
Term
What is the lesion in Brown-
Sequard syndrome? |
|
Definition
hemisection of the spinal
cord |
|
|
Term
What is the most common
circle of Willis aneurysm? |
|
Definition
anterior communicating
artery |
|
|
Term
What is the name for the
small muscle fiber type that
regulates muscle length? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What lesion produces coma? |
|
Definition
| reticular activating system |
|
|
Term
What lesion produces
conduction aphasia, poor
repetition w/ poor
comprehension, and fluent
speech? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What lesion produces Kluver-
Bucy syndrome (hyperorality,
hypersexuality, disinhibited
behavior)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What lesion produces motor
(expressive) aphasia with
good comprehension? |
|
Definition
| Broca's area (motor speech) |
|
|
Term
What lesion produces
personality changes and
deficits in concentration,
orientation, judgement? |
|
Definition
frontal lobe - these are
frontal release signs |
|
|
Term
What lesion produces sensory
(fluent/receptive) aphasia
with poor comprehension? |
|
Definition
Wernicke's area (associative
auditory cortex) |
|
|
Term
What lesion produces spatial
neglect syndrome? |
|
Definition
right parietal lobe --
contralateral neglect. |
|
|
Term
What lobe of the brain is the
Broca's area in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What lobe of the brain is the
frontal eye movement and
pupillary change area in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What lobe of the brain is the
premotor area in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What lobe of the brain is the
primary auditory cortex area
in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What lobe of the brain is the
principal motor area in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What lobe of the brain is the
principal sensory area in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What lobe of the brain is the
principal visual cortex area
in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What lobe of the brain is the
Wernicke's area in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What midbrain structure is
important in mitigating
voluntary movements and
making postural adjustments? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What mineral causes the
pathology of Wilson's disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What muscle depresses and
extorts the eye? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What muscle elevates and
intorts the eye? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What muscle extorts,
elevates, and adducts the
eye? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What muscle fiber type makes
up the muscle bulk and
provides the force for
contraction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What muscle intorts,
depresses, and abducts the
eye? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What muscle sensor senses
tension and provides
inhibitory feedback to alpha
motor neurons? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What muscular disorder is a
medial longitudinal fasciculus
syndrome associated with? |
|
Definition
| Multiple Sclerosis (MLF=MS) |
|
|
Term
What nerve is known as the
great extensor nerve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What neurotransmitter is
decrease in Parkinson's
disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What nucleus if typically
lesioned in hemiballismus? |
|
Definition
contralateral subthalamic
nucleus |
|
|
Term
What nucleus of the
hypothalamus controls
circadian rhythms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What nucleus of the
hypothalamus controls
hunger? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What nucleus of the
hypothalamus controls
satiety? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What nucleus of the
hypothalamus controls sexual
emotions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What nucleus of the
hypothalamus controls thirst
and water balance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What part of the
hypothalamus (ant./post.)
controls autonomic
regulation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What part of the
hypothalamus (ant./post.)
controls cooling when hot? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What part of the
hypothalamus (ant./post.)
controls heat conservation
when cold? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What part of the ventral
spinal cord is spared with
complete occlusion of the
ventral artery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What passes through the
cavernous sinus? (nerves and
artery |
|
Definition
CN III, IV, V1, V2, VI, postganglionic
SNS and the
Internal carotid artery |
|
|
Term
What reflex is lost in a lesion
of the musculocutaneous
nerve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What structure passes
through the foramen ovale? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What structure passes
through the foramen
rotundum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What structure passes
through the foramen
spinosum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What structure passes
through the hypoglossal
canal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What symptom is seen with a
lesion of the axillary nerve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What symptom is seen with a
lesion of the median nerve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What syndrome is seen with a
lesion of the long thoracic
nerve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What syndrome is seen with a
lesion of the lower trunk of
the brachial plexus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What syndrome is seen with a
lesion of the posterior cord of
the brachial plexus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What syndrome is seen with a
lesion of the radial nerve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What syndrome is seen with a
lesion of the upper trunk of
the brachial plexus? |
|
Definition
Waiter's tip (Erb-Duchenne
palsy) |
|
|
Term
What two bones do all the
foramina of the posterior
cranial fossa pass through? |
|
Definition
| temporal and occipital bones |
|
|
Term
What two hypothalamic nuclei
does the posterior pituitary
(neurohypophysis) receive
neuronal projections from? |
|
Definition
supraoptic nucleus and
paraventricular nucleus. |
|
|
Term
What type of fibers do the
corticospinal tracts carry? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of fibers do the
dorsal columns carry? |
|
Definition
sensory - pressure, vibration,
touch, proprioception |
|
|
Term
What type of fibers do the
spinothalmic tracts carry? |
|
Definition
sensory - pain and
temperature |
|
|
Term
What type of function does
CN I have? (sensory, motor, or
both) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of function does
CN II have? (sensory, motor,
or both) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of function does
CN III have? (sensory, motor,
or both) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of function does
CN IV have? (sensory, motor,
or both) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of function does
CN IX have? (sensory, motor,
or both) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of function does
CN V have? (sensory, motor,
or both) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of function does
CN VI have? (sensory, motor,
or both) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of function does
CN VII have? (sensory, motor,
or both) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of function does
CN VIII have? (sensory, motor,
or both) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of function does
CN X have? (sensory, motor,
or both) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of function does
CN XI have? (sensory, motor,
or both) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of function does
CN XII have? (sensory, motor,
or both) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of lesion is seen in
Amyotrophic Lateral
Sclerosis? |
|
Definition
combo of UMN and LMN
lesions with no sensory
deficit |
|
|
Term
What type of lesion is seen in
Multiple Sclerosis? |
|
Definition
random asymmetric lesions in
mostly white matter of the
cervical region |
|
|
Term
What type of lesion is seen in
Poliomyelitis and is it genetic
or acquired? |
|
Definition
acquired LMN lesion causing
flaccid paralysis |
|
|
Term
What type of lesion is seen in
Werdnig-Hoffmann disease
and is it genetic or acquired? |
|
Definition
genetic LMN lesion causing
flaccid paralysis (aka. Floppy
infant disease) |
|
|
Term
What type of molecule can
cross the blood-brain barrier
most easily? (lipid/nonlipid,
polar/nonpolar) |
|
Definition
Lipid-soluable/nonpolar
molecules |
|
|
Term
What vagal nuclei controls
motor innervation to the
pharynx, larynx, and upper
esophagus? |
|
Definition
Nucleus Ambiguus
(Motor=aMbiguus) |
|
|
Term
What vagal nuclei controls
visceral sensory in formation
like taste and gut distention? |
|
Definition
Nucleus Solitarius
(Sensory=Solitarius) |
|
|
Term
What vagal nuclei sends
parasympathetic fibers to the
heart, lungs, and upper GI? |
|
Definition
| dorsal motor nucleus of CN X |
|
|
Term
What would happen
temperature regulation if you
lesioned your posterior
hypothalamus? |
|
Definition
lose the ability to conserve
heat |
|
|
Term
What would happen
temperature regulation if you
lesioned your ventromedial
nucleus of the hypothalamus? |
|
Definition
have hyperphagia and
become obese |
|
|
Term
When is a positive Babinski a
normal reflex? |
|
Definition
| during the first year of life |
|
|
Term
Where is the lesion in a
patient with hemiballismus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where is the lesion in
Parkinson's? |
|
Definition
Substantia nigra pars
compacta |
|
|
Term
Which CN is the only nerve
that does not abut the wall in
the cavernous sinus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which CNs pass through the
middle cranial fossa? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which CNs pass through the
posterior cranial fossa? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which division of the facial
motor nucleus has duel
innervation? (upper or lower) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which thalamic nucleus has a
visual function? |
|
Definition
Lateral Geniculate Nucleus
(LGB) |
|
|
Term
Which thalamic nucleus has
an auditory function? |
|
Definition
Medial Geniculate Nucleus
(MGB) |
|
|
Term
Which thalamic nucleus has
pre-motor function? |
|
Definition
| Ventral Anterior Nucleus (VA) |
|
|
Term
Which thalamic nucleus has
the function of body senses
(proprioception, pressure,
pain, touch, vibration)? |
|
Definition
Ventral Posterior Lateral
Nucleus (VPL) |
|
|
Term
Which thalamic nucleus has
the function of facial
sensation and pain? |
|
Definition
Ventral Posterior Medial
Nucleus (VPM) |
|
|
Term
Which thalamic nucleus is the
primary motor cortex? |
|
Definition
| Ventral Lateral Nucleus (VL) |
|
|
Term
Which way does the head
deviate in a unilateral lesion
(LMN) of CN XI? (toward or
away) |
|
Definition
toward the lesion -- note:
First-Aid is wrong in the
book) |
|
|
Term
Which way does the jaw
deviate in a unilateral lesion
(LMN) of CN V? (toward or
away) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which way does the patient
tend to fall in a unilateral
lesion (LMN) of the
cerebellum? (toward or away) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which way does the tongue
deviate in a unilateral lesion
(LMN) of CN XII? (toward or
away) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which way does the uvula
deviate in a unilateral lesion
(LMN) of CN X? (toward or
away) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why does the arm hang by
the side in Erb-Duchenne
palsy? |
|
Definition
paralysis of shoulder
abductors |
|
|
Term
Why is L-dopa use for
parkinsonism instead of
dopamine? |
|
Definition
L-dopa crosses the bloodbrain
barrier while dopamine
does not. |
|
|
Term
Why is the arm medially
rotated in Erb-Duchenne
palsy? |
|
Definition
paralysis of the lateral
rotators |
|
|
Term
Why is the forearm pronated
in Erb-Duchenne palsy? |
|
Definition
| loss of the biceps brachii |
|
|
