Term
| What are the 3 branches of V1? |
|
Definition
- nasociliary
- frontal
- lacrimal
(NFL) |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 branches of the frontal nerve? |
|
Definition
- supraorbital
- supratrochlear |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 branches of the trigeminal nerve? |
|
Definition
V1 - ophthalmic
V2 - maxillary
V3 - mandibular |
|
|
Term
| What are the branches of V2? |
|
Definition
- zygomatic
- 2 pterygopalatine trunks
- PSA
- infraorbital
(ZIPP) |
|
|
Term
| What are the 9 branches of the infraorbital nerve? |
|
Definition
- ASA
- MSA
- orbital
- pharyngeal branch
- pterygopalatine trunks
- nasopalatine
- greater palatine
- lesser palatine
- posterior palatine |
|
|
Term
| What does the PSA innervate? |
|
Definition
- 3rd molar
- 2nd molar
- DB and palatal root of 1st molar
- associated BUCCAL gingiva |
|
|
Term
| The MSA is absent in what percent of people? Is this clinically relevant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the MSA innervate? |
|
Definition
- MB root of 1st molar
- 2nd premolar
- 1st premolar
- associated BUCCAL gingiva |
|
|
Term
| When absent, what nerve supplies the region normally supplied by the MSA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the ASA innervate? |
|
Definition
- canine
- incisors to midline
- when MSA absent, premolars and MB root of 1st molar |
|
|
Term
| What does the greater palatine nerve innervate? |
|
Definition
- hard palate posterior to D line angle of canine
(anterior border = D line angle of canine
medial border = midline of hard palate)
|
|
|
Term
| What does the nasopalatine nerve innervate? |
|
Definition
| - hard palate anterior to D line angle of canines |
|
|
Term
| What are the branches of the sensory root of V3? |
|
Definition
-mylohyoid (MOTOR)
- auriculotemporal
- lingual
- inferior alveolar (incisive and mental branches)
(MAIL) |
|
|
Term
| What are the branches of the motor root of V3? |
|
Definition
- buccal (SENSORY)
- lateral pterygoid muscle
- temporal muscle
- masseter muscle
(BLT...Mmmm) |
|
|
Term
| What can be anesthetized by an IAN block? |
|
Definition
- the entire ipsilateral half of the mandible except for B gingiva posterior to 2nd premolar
*lingual area not supplied by IAN, but lingual nerve is so close to IAN that block of IAN also affects lingual |
|
|
Term
| What is innervated by the incisive branch of the IAN? |
|
Definition
- 1st premolar
- canine
- incisors (to midline) |
|
|
Term
| What is innervated by the mental branch of the IAN? |
|
Definition
- lower lip
- gingiva anterior to mental foramen
(SOFT TISSUE) |
|
|
Term
| What nerve must be accounted for when placing an implant in the region of the 1st mandibular premolar? How? |
|
Definition
- mental branch of IAN
- it loops anteriorly before entering mental foramen, so implants must be placed at least 2mm anterior to mental foramen to avoid damage |
|
|
Term
| What is innervated by the buccal nerve? |
|
Definition
- buccal mucosa and gingiva posterior to mental foramen (i.e., the midline of the 2nd premolar)
- the cheek and the corner of the mouth |
|
|
Term
| What is innervated by the lingual nerve? |
|
Definition
- lingual gingiva and mucosa
- tongue |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| - painful sensation to normal touch |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| - complete lack of sensation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| - spontaneous abnormal sensation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| - decreased sensation to normal touch |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| - increased sensation to normal touch |
|
|
Term
| T/F: The mechanism of action of LAs is reversible. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Binding of LA molecule to Na channel decreases rate of depolarization. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which organ is more susceptible to damage from LAs: the brain or the heart? |
|
Definition
| - the brain (must have much larger concentration to affect heart) |
|
|
Term
| What is the special term for the cell membrane surrounding an axon? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The composition of myelin is mostly what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the special term for the cytoplasm within an axon? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Unmyelinated fibers do not have Schwann cells. |
|
Definition
| - false (they do have Schwann cells, but lack the corresponding lipoprotein sheath) |
|
|
Term
| T/F: The AP threshold is reached by increasing the negative membrane potential by 15mV. |
|
Definition
| - false (it is reached by DECREASING the negative membrane potential by 15mV (from -70mV to -55mV) |
|
|
Term
| Which takes longer, depolarization or repolarization? |
|
Definition
- repolarization (.7 ms)
(depolarization takes .3 ms) |
|
|
Term
| To which ion(s) is a nerve freely permeable at rest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: A nerve membrane is impermeable to Na at rest. |
|
Definition
| - FALSE (it's slightly permeable to Na) |
|
|
Term
| What materials contribute to the negative charge of the intracellular membrane of a nerve at rest? |
|
Definition
| - proteins and amino acids |
|
|
Term
| Which ion has the largest extracellular concentration? Intracellular? (Cl, K, or Na) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is greater, the ratio of intra- to extracellular K, or the ratio of extra- to intracellular Na? |
|
Definition
| - intra- to extracellular K |
|
|
Term
| Are newer LAs esters or amides? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do biotoxins act by blocking Na channels internally or externally? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The mechanism of action of benzocaine is receptor-dependent. |
|
Definition
| - false (it acts by expanding the nerve membrane) |
|
|
Term
| According to the specific receptor theory, LAs act by binding to channel receptors on which surface(s) (internal, external)? |
|
Definition
| - either internal or external |
|
|
Term
| Why might infection make an LA ineffective? |
|
Definition
| - the acidic environment will lead to a higher ratio of protonated to deprotonated LA, meaning that more of it will be charged and unable to penetrate the cell membrane |
|
|
Term
| Typically, are LAs with a higher pKa more likely to be protonated (charged) or deprotonated (uncharged) at physiological pH? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is considered the gold standard for LAs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| - increasing tolerance to drug that is given repeatedly |
|
|
Term
| Increased protein binding = __ duration and potency. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Increased pKa = __ onset and __ duration. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Increased lipid solubility = __ potency. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Increased (nonnervous) tissue diffusibility = __ onset. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Increased vasodilator activity = __ potency and duration. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the uppermost limit of a safe dose of a typical LA (in mg/Kg) |
|
Definition
| - 5 mg anesthetic / 1 Kg body weight |
|
|
Term
| How many mg of anesthetic are in 1 cc? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the structural characteristics of a catecholamine? |
|
Definition
- OH groups in 3rd and 4th position of aromatic ring
- NH2 attached to aliphatic side chain |
|
|
Term
| Which adrenergic receptor is responsible for vasoconstriction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which adrenergic receptor is associated with increased heart rate, strength of contraction, lipolysis and glycogenolysis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which adrenergic receptor is associated with broncho- and vasodilation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Norepinephrine has the least effect on which adrenergic receptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In a 1:1000 ratio, what do the 2 numbers stand for? |
|
Definition
1 = grams of drug
1000 = mL of solution |
|
|
Term
| In a concentration of 1:25,000, how many mg/mL are there? |
|
Definition
| 1g / 25,000mL = 1000mg / 25,000mL = .04 g/mL |
|
|
Term
| For epinephrine, which adrenergic receptor activity predominates? (a or ß) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which has higher vasopressor potency, epinephrine or NE? |
|
Definition
| - epinephrine (NE is 25% as potent) |
|
|
Term
| Activity in which adrenergic receptor for NE predominates? (a or ß) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the correct dosage of epinephrine for a healthy person? For the CV impaired? |
|
Definition
healthy = .2 mg
CV impaired = .04 mg |
|
|
Term
| What is the correct dosage of NE for a healthy person? For the CV impaired? |
|
Definition
healthy = .34mg
CV impaired = .14mg |
|
|
Term
| Articaine is __x as potent and __x as toxic as lidocaine. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the contraindications for articaine? |
|
Definition
- methemoglobinemia (idiopathic or congenital)
- sulfur allergy |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| - eutectic mixture of local anesthesia oil in water solution w/ high concentrations of prilocaine and lidocaine |
|
|
Term
| T/F: An EMLA is ineffective on intact skin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The presence of a vasoconstrictor lowers the pH of an LA solution. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What compound is added to an LA solution to maintain its pH near physiological norms? |
|
Definition
| - sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO2) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| - tonic contraction of muscles of mastication (various causes) |
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 advantages of a reusable syringe? |
|
Definition
- long-lasting
- autoclavable
- rust resistant
- visible cartridge
- easy aspiration |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 disadvantages of a reusable syringe? |
|
Definition
- large
- heavy
- disease transmission w/ improper care |
|
|
Term
| What is a pressure type syringe used for? |
|
Definition
| - PDL (periodontal ligament) injections |
|
|
Term
| What is the main disadvantage of a pressure type syringe? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 main advantages of a pressure type syringe? |
|
Definition
- enclosed barrel
- ease of administration |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 advantages of a jet injector? |
|
Definition
- no needles
- can be used instead of topical |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 disadvantages of a jet injector? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is caused by an off-center perforation (of the cartridge by the needle)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the lengths of a long and short dental needle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 typical gauges of dental needles? |
|
Definition
| - 25 (largest, red), 27 (yellow) and 30 (smallest, blue) |
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 advantages of a larger gauged needle? |
|
Definition
- less deflection
- easier aspiration
- no difference in comfort
- less breakage
- greater accuracy |
|
|
Term
| What is the volume of a typical dental anesthetic cartridge? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A 1% solution is how many mg drug / mL solution |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 2 ingredients do vasopressor-containing LAs have that plain LAs don't? |
|
Definition
- vasopressor (usually epinephrine)
- sodium metabisulfite (antioxidant) |
|
|
Term
| What 3 ingredients to all LA solutions contain? |
|
Definition
- anesthetic drug
- HCL
- sterile water |
|
|
Term
| What causes an extruded rubber plunger? |
|
Definition
- freezing
- storing too long in disinfectant |
|
|
Term
| What gas forms bubbles in LA cartridges? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 causes of burning on injection? |
|
Definition
- high temperature of LA
- contamination with disinfectant
- vasoconstrictor
- low pH
- rapid injection |
|
|
Term
| T/F: Used needles should be stored with used cartridges. |
|
Definition
| - fasle (stored in separate containers) |
|
|
Term
| T/F: At low doses, LAs have anticonvulsant properties because they block epileptic foci. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The first CNS effect of LAs is on which impulse (inhibitory or facilitory)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 causes of failure to achieve anesthesia? |
|
Definition
- pt variation (anatomic or metabolic)
- too much delay b/w injection and procedure
- intravascular injection
- intramuscular injection
- injection in infected area |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 most common anatomical variations that cause anesthetic failure? |
|
Definition
- mylohyoid
- multiple canals
- lingual nerve
- cervical plexus |
|
|
Term
| For an infiltration, how long does it take for anesthetic depth? For a block? |
|
Definition
infiltration = 2 min
block = 5 min |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of a brief seizure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common complication in the dental office? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are 4 strategies to overcome anesthesia failure in an infected area? |
|
Definition
- give more anesthetic
- do a block
- do a PDL injection
- use bicarbonate in LA solution (to maintain more neutral pH, which preserves vasoconstrictor) |
|
|
Term
| What are the advantages of a PDL injection in an infected area? |
|
Definition
- it's direct acting
- it's under pressure |
|
|
Term
| What injections can be used in ALL pts w/ bleeding disorders? |
|
Definition
- infiltration
- PDL
- intraosseous |
|
|
Term
| A pt's anticoagulant can be witheld if they are not at high risk. An example of high risk is __, and an example of low risk is __. |
|
Definition
high = valve replacement or clotting disorder
low = deep vein thrombosis |
|
|
Term
| What vitamin deficiency leads to increased clotting time? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If platelet count is greater than __, you can proceed w/ Tx. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: You can do a procedure on a pt with a moderate clotting factor deficiency. |
|
Definition
| - true (mild-mod, but not high) |
|
|
Term
| What are the solutions to a -caine "allergy"? |
|
Definition
- use amide
- use antihistamine
- get allergy testing |
|
|
Term
| What are the LA-associated chemicals that most commonly cause allergic reactions? |
|
Definition
- PABA (from ester metabolism)
- methylparaben (perservative used in multi-dose vials)
- sodium metabisulfate (anti-oxidant used in LAs with vasoconstrictors) |
|
|
Term
| Which 2 LAs can be used in epinephrine-sensitive pts (b/c they cause least amount of vasodilation w/o a vasoconstrictor)? |
|
Definition
- prilocaine
- bupivicaine |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 indications for an intraosseous injection? |
|
Definition
- failed block
- short procedure
- bleeding disorder
- more profound anesthesia required |
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 advantages of an intraosseous injection? |
|
Definition
- profound anesthesia
- no need for block
- safe in those w/ bleeding disorders
- immediate onset
- minimal complications |
|
|
Term
| Why is there more profound anesthesia from an intraosseous injection? |
|
Definition
| - higher concentration of nerve endings |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 disadvantages of an intraosseous injection? |
|
Definition
- technique sensitive
- difficult to access in posterior mandible
- short duration |
|
|
Term
| Why is the duration of an intraosseous injection short? |
|
Definition
| - bone is highly vascularized and has large surface area |
|
|
Term
| T/F: An intraosseous injection is administered in conjunction with a local infiltration. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 causes of common bleeding abnormalities? |
|
Definition
- hemophilia (missing clotting factor)
- thrombocytopenia (low platelets)
- anticoagulant medication |
|
|
Term
| For pts with liver disorders, which type of LA should be avoided (amide or ester)? |
|
Definition
| - amide (it's metabolized in liver by CYP450) |
|
|
Term
| For pts with renal disorders, what strategy should be used? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What precautions should be taken with ASA II pts? ASA III? |
|
Definition
II - exercise caution
III - limit epi to .04 |
|
|
Term
| What are 3 the causes of needle breakage? |
|
Definition
- small (gauged) needle
- bent needle
- manufacturer defect |
|
|
Term
| How do you prevent needle breakage? |
|
Definition
- don't bend needle
- use higher gauge
- don't insert into tissue all the way to the hub |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 causes of pain on injection? |
|
Definition
- dull needle
- rapid deposition |
|
|
Term
| How do you avoid pain on injection? |
|
Definition
- proper technique
- sharp needle
- use topical
- correct temp |
|
|
Term
| How do you avoid burning on injection? |
|
Definition
- proper technique
- do not warm solution
- do not store in solution |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 causes of persistent anesthesia? |
|
Definition
- direct nerve trauma
- contaminated solution
- neurotoxicity |
|
|
Term
| What can you do to prevent persistent anesthesia? |
|
Definition
- proper technique
- do not store/soak in solution |
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 causes of trismus? |
|
Definition
- muscle trauma
- hemotoma
- infection
- excess volume
- contaminated solution |
|
|
Term
| How do you avoid trismus? |
|
Definition
- proper technique
- do not store in solution |
|
|
Term
| How do you clinically manage trismus? |
|
Definition
- heat
- exercise
- analgesics / NSAIDS
- muscle relaxants
- antibiotics |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of a hematoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for a hematoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 causes of edema? |
|
Definition
- traumatic injection
- hemorrhage
- allergy
- irritation
- infection
(HAITI) |
|
|
Term
| How do you prevent edema? |
|
Definition
- atraumatic injection
- proper handling of armamentarium
- complete medical Hx |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 causes of localized sloughing? |
|
Definition
- epithelial desquamation
- sterile abscess |
|
|
Term
| How do you prevent sloughing? |
|
Definition
| - proper injection technique |
|
|
Term
| What do you do if you inadvertently paralyze the facial nerve? |
|
Definition
- reassure pt
- manually close eye (tape shut at night)
- avoid contacts |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 causes of intraoral lesions? |
|
Definition
- aphthous ulcers
- herpes |
|
|
Term
| What drugs can be used to treat intraoral lesions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| LA overdose is usually caused by what? |
|
Definition
| - an excessive total dose |
|
|
Term
| How do you prevent vascular injection? |
|
Definition
- aspirate
- inject slowly |
|
|
Term
| In methemoglobinemia, iron is not changed from its __ state to its __ state (which it has to be in to bind oxygen). |
|
Definition
| - oxidized (F3+) to reduced (F2+) |
|
|
Term
| Which LAs can cause methemoglobinemia? |
|
Definition
| - benzocaine, xylocaine (lidocaine) |
|
|
Term
| Methemoglobinemia can be caused by a deficiency of what enzyme? |
|
Definition
| - cytochrome b5 reductase |
|
|
Term
| How is methemoglobinemia treated? |
|
Definition
- methylene blue
- supplemental oxygen |
|
|
Term
| When methemoglobin levels rise above __%, pts become cyanotic. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When methemoglobin levels rise above __%, pts have dyspnea and weakness. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Methemoglobin levels above __% are incompatible with life. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the signs of an anaphylactic allergic reaction? |
|
Definition
- erythematous rash
- dyspnea
- tachycardia
- hypotension |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- coronoid notch
- occlusal plane
- pterygomandibular raphe
- opposite corner of mouth
- target = superior to mand. foramen, 3/4 distance from coronoid notch to pterygomandibular raphe
NUMBS - entire half of mandible EXCEPT B tissue D to 2nd premolar
|
|
|
Term
| What are the complications from an IAN? |
|
Definition
- VII block
- hematoma
- trismus
- failed anesthesia (mylohyoid n?) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Target = mucobuccal fold / ant. ramus near 3rd molar
- given directly following IAN
NUMBS - B tissue D to 2nd premolar |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- lingual vestibule near 3rd molar
- target = posterior mylohyoid ridge |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- target = mandibular condyle
- bite block for 1-2 min
- success > 95%
NUMBS - entire half of mandible (including cheek and temporal area) |
|
|
Term
| What are the complications of a V3-Gow Gates? |
|
Definition
- hematoma
-trismus
- III, IV, VI paralysis (avoid by not injecting unless contacting bone) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- mucogingival junction of max. 3rd molar
- maxillary tuberosity
- coronoid notch
- target = soft tissue medial to ramus, behind max. tuberosity
NUMBS - entire half of mandible EXCEPT B tissue D to 2nd premolar (same as IAN)
- success rate = 80% |
|
|
Term
| What are the complications of a V3-Closed? |
|
Definition
- hematoma
- trismus
- VII palsy |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- mucobuccal fold of mand. premolar
- target = mental foramen
- apply digital pressure for 1-2 min
NUMBS - ipsilateral anteriors, associated tissue, skin of lip and chin |
|
|
Term
| What is the complication from a mental block? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- gingival crevice of any tooth
- inject under pressure
- consider 30 gauge needle |
|
|
Term
| For which mandibular injections do you use an entire carpule? |
|
Definition
- IAN
- all V3s (gow-gates, closed) |
|
|
Term
| Which mandibular block has the greatest chance of a positive aspirate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which has a higher success rate, V3 open or closed? |
|
Definition
- open > 95%
- closed = 80% |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- max. vestibule of tooth
- target = apex of tooth
NUMBS - pulp of 1 or 2 teeth |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- mucobuccal fold over 2nd molar
- maxillary tuberosity
- zygomatic process
- target = above 3rd molar
- 45˚ to O plane, midline, and axis of 2nd molar
NUMBS - molars EXCEPT MB root of 1st
|
|
|
Term
| What are the complications from a PSA? |
|
Definition
- hematoma
- mand. anesthesia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- mucobuccal fold over 2nd premolar
- target = apex of 2nd premolar
NUMBS - MB root of 1st molar, premolars
*BUT, absent in 30-54% of pts, in which case this area is supplied by ASA nerve |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- mucobuccal fold over 1st premolar
- infraorbital depression
- target = infraorbital rim
- apply digital pressure
NUMBS - anteriors and associated B tissue, skin between lip and eye |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- junction of max. process and palate
- around 1st molar
- target = greater palatine foramen
- cotton swab pressure for 30s
NUMBS - ispilateral palate distal to canine, lateral to midline |
|
|
Term
| What is the complication for a greater palatine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- central incisor
- incisive papilla
- target = nasopalatine canal
- cotton swab pressure
NUMBS - anterior palate to M of 1st premolars |
|
|
Term
| What is the complication for a nasopalatine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| V2 - High Tuberosity Approach |
|
Definition
- (like PSA, but inserted farther)
- mucobuccal fold over 2nd molar
- maxillary tuberosity
- zygomatic process
- target = pterygopalatine fossa
- 45˚ to O plane, midline, and axis of 2nd molar
NUMBS - entire ipsilateral half of maxilla, skin between lip and eye |
|
|
Term
| What are the complications from a V2 block - high tuberosity approach? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| V2 - Greater Palatine Approach |
|
Definition
- (same as greater palatine, but inserted farther)
- junction of max. process and palate
- around 1st molar
- greater palatine foramen
- target = pterygopalatine fossa
NUMBS - entire ipsilateral half of maxilla, skin between lip and eye
|
|
|
Term
| What are the complications of a V2 greater palatine approach? |
|
Definition
- hematoma
- penetration into orbit or nose |
|
|
Term
| What LAs have the longest duration (90+ min)? |
|
Definition
- bupivicaine
- etidocaine |
|
|
Term
| What LAs have the shortest duration (30 min)? |
|
Definition
- chloroprocaine
- prilocaine
- lidocaine
- mepivicaine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- procaine
- propoxycaine
- tetracaine
- cocaine |
|
|
Term
| What is the only LA that is a ketone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which injectable LA cannot be used for pulpal anesthesia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which 2 LAs are the only ones that have a max dosage NOT between 6 and 7 mg/Kg? |
|
Definition
- bupivicaine = 1.3
- etidocaine = 8 |
|
|
Term
| Which LA has the greatest vasodilation? Least? |
|
Definition
greatest = procaine
least = mepivacaine |
|
|
Term
| Which LA is not suitable for injection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which are the topical LAs? |
|
Definition
- benzocaine
- butacaine
- cocaine
- tetracaine
- duclonine
- lidocaine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
procaine 9.1
bupivacaine 8.1
lidocaine 7.9
prilocaine 7.9
articaine 7.8
etidocaine 7.7
mepivacaine 7.6
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
procaine 1/1
prilocaine 2/1
lidocaine 2/2
mepivicaine 2/2
articaine 2/2
etidocaine 4/2-4
bupivacaine 4/4
propoxycaine 7/7 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- bupivicaine - 1.3
- prilocaine - 6.0
- procaine - 6.6
- mepivicaine - 6.6
- lidocaine - 6.6
- lidocaine w/ epi - 7.0
- articaine - 7.0
- etidocaine - 8.0
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- greatest - procaine
- more than lidocaine - bupivicaine, etidicaine
- less than lidocaine - prilocaine
- least - mepivicaine
|
|
|
Term
| Which receptor is responsible for vasoconstriction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Tx of choice for an acute anaphylactic reaction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which anesthetic block should always be done with a long needle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which anesthetic has the strongest protein binding? |
|
Definition
|
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