Term
Explain the difference between teaching and facilitating learning. |
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Definition
Traditional education uses instructive-style learning sessions" "or lectures to teach participants, while facilitating learning get participants involved and helps adults assume responsibility for their own learning." |
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Term
Learning activities that include behavioral modeling, simulations, role plays, skill drills, and rewards are modeled from which theory? |
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Definition
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Term
In preparation for a learning session, a workplace learning and performance (WLP) professional designs the seating arrangements, arranges for refreshments, determines goals, and identifies expectations for the class. What are all these arrangements attempting to positively affect? |
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Definition
External and environmental influences" |
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Term
Which theory of learning focuses on matching individual needs to appropriate instructional experiences and is particularly useful for helping employees adapt to changes in their work lives? |
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Definition
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Term
What are the five principles of andragogy? |
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Definition
Self-concept of the learner, prior experience of the learner,readiness to learn, orientation to learning, and motivation to learn |
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Term
What is an informal philosophy of teaching that focuses on what the instructor does rather than what the participants learn and usually refers to the teachingof children? |
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Definition
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Term
What does this model represent and how does it relate to adult learning? Physiology>Safety>Belongingness>Esteem> Self-Actualization |
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Definition
Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy of needs explains the foundations of motivation by categorizing people’s needs into a hierarchy that includes physiological, safety, belongness, esteem, and self-actualization needs. It relates to learning because motivation is one of the fundamental challenges of learning and performance improvement. |
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Term
1. Trainers often use knowledge, skills, and attitudes (KSAs) to describe three types of learning. These three categories are the work of __________ and are part of __________. |
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Definition
Benjamin Bloom, Bloom’s taxonomy |
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Term
What guidelines did Carl Rogers describe as a critical element to remember in adult learning situations? |
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Definition
Facilitators establish the initial mood or climate of the class experience and clarify the purpose of the individuals in the class as well as more general purposes of the group. |
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Term
Ways of learning that stress experience and reflection and use an inductive learning process that takes the learner through five stages: experiencing, publishing, processing, generalizing, and applying are also known as __________. |
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Definition
3. Experiential learning activities Because learning objectives are to specify the performance (knowledge or skill) that is desired after learning, Bloom’s taxonomy describes exactly the behavior level the learner will know or be able to do at the end of the training experience. |
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Term
1. Explain the difference between teaching and facilitating learning. |
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Definition
Traditional education uses instructive-style learning sessions or lectures to teach participants, while facilitating learning get participants involved and helps adults assume responsibility for their own learning |
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Term
2. Learning activities that include behavioral modeling, simulations, role plays, skill drills, and rewards are modeled from which theory? |
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Definition
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Term
3. In preparation for a learning session, a workplace learning and performance (WLP) professional designs the seating arrangements, arranges for (WLP) professional designs the seating arrangements, arranges for refreshments, determines goals, and identifies expectations for the class. What are all these arrangements attempting to positively affect? |
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Definition
External and environmental influences |
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Term
1. Examples of behaviorism techniques |
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Definition
prompting, cueing, behavioral modeling, simulations, role play, skill drills and positive reinforcement. |
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Term
1. Which theory of learning focuses on matching individual needs to appropriate instructional experiences and is particularly useful for helping employees adapt to changes in their work lives? |
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Definition
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Term
2. What are the five principles of andragogy? |
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Definition
self-concept, prior experience, readiness to learn, orientation to learning, and motivation to learn |
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Term
3. What is an informal philosophy of teaching that focuses on what the instructor does rather than what the participants learn and usually refers to the teaching of children? |
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Definition
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Term
1. What does this model represent and how does it relate to adult learning? Physiology > Safety > Belongingness, Esteem> Self-Actualization |
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Definition
Maslov's Heirarchy of needs explains the foundations of motivation by categorizing people's needs. Motivation is a fundamental challenge for learning and performance improvement. Establishing a safe climate for learning helps fulfill lower-level needs of adult learners |
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Term
1. Trainers often use knowledge, skills, and attitudes (KSAs) to describe three types of learning. These three categories are the work of __________and are part of __________. |
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Definition
Benjamin Bloom, Bloom’s taxonomy |
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Term
2. What guidelines did Carl Rogers describe as a critical element to remember in adult learning situations? |
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Definition
Facilitators establish the initial mood or climate of the class |
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Term
3. Ways of learning that stress experience and reflection, and use an inductive learning process that takes the learner through five stages: experiencing, publishing, processing, generalizing, and applying are also known as __________. |
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Definition
Experiential learning activities |
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Term
1. The tell approach to learning, based on the theory that learning occurs through exposure to logically presented information, usually involving lecture, is also known as __________. |
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Definition
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Term
2. Which learning theory seeks to involve the right and left hemispheres of the brain and the cortex and the limbic systems of the brain in learning—and by involving the different functions makes learning more natural? |
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Definition
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Term
List the four quadrants in W.E. (Ned) Herrmann’s learning brain model. |
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Definition
Upper-left cerebral, lower-left limbic, upper-right cerebral, and lower-right limbic Most people think with both sides of the brain, but have a strong preference to think with one side or the other. Although the two hemispheres of the brain process information differently, they are complementary rather than competitive. Real power comes from combining the two; when the right and left sides of the brain are combined, long-term learning occurs. |
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Term
Describe three learner preferences as defined by the VAK model. |
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Definition
1. Visual (intake by seeing): learners prefer pictures, diagrams, and other visuals. 2. Auditory (intake by hearing): learners prefer to get information by hearing. 3. Kinesthetic (intake by doing): learners prefer hands-on learning. |
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Term
1. What theory describes how intelligences reflect how people prefer to process information? The theory indicates that most people are comfortable in three to four of these intelligences and avoid the others. |
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Definition
Multiple intelligences theory |
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Term
2. Who popularized multiple intelligences theory? |
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Definition
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Term
1. The workplace learning and performance (WLP) professional is preparing the instructional objectives, the evaluation plan, and sequence of content for a new training program. Which step of the ADDIE model is being performed? |
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Definition
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Term
2. A client wants a designer to develop a training class to improve declining sales of the salesforce. What is the best thing to do first? |
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Definition
Perform a front-end analysis |
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Term
3. Describe the key benefit of Gagne’s nine instructional events. |
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Definition
This theory supports the notion of lesson plan design and an ideal teaching sequence in which learners are more likely to retain the concepts, skills, and procedures taught to them if they are presented in a way that supports how the mind works. |
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Term
1. Which instructional design model is based on the assumption that design happens in a context of project management where a project plan establishes roles, tasks, timelines, budgets, checkpoints, and supervisory procedures? |
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Definition
Seels and Glasgow instructional systems design model |
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Term
2. How is accelerated learning accomplished? |
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Definition
honoring the different learning preferences of each individual learner and using experiential learning exercises (such as role plays, mnemonics, props, and music). |
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Term
A collection of strategies for quickly producing instructional packages to enable a group of learners to achieve a set of specific instructional objectives is also known as __________. |
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Definition
A Rapid instructional design (RID). A client is short on time to get web-based training developed. The developer decides to run the design and development phases in parallel to meet the delivery timeframe. The trade-off is increased risk to meet a tight timeframe. |
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Term
1. What are the key differences between the Smith and Ragan model and ADDIE? |
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Definition
Smith and Ragan recognize that different instructional design strategies are required for different situations. Their model differs in that test items are written within the analysis stage right after tasks are analyzed. In the ADDIE model, test items are typically developed during the development stage. Smith and Ragan also stress the iterative nature of design, which results in constant revision. |
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Term
2. When is training the appropriate solution to a performance problem? |
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Definition
When the cause of a performance problem is due to a lack of knowledge or skills |
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Term
1. Who is credited with the idea that a learning objective should contain a condition statement, a performance statement, and a criterion statement? |
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Definition
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Term
2. What are the final behavioral outcomes of a specific instructional event called? |
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Definition
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Term
3. What kind of objectives, also called supporting objectives, support the final behavioral outcomes of an instructional event by breaking them down into more manageable chunks? |
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Definition
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Term
What are the four components of a learning objective? |
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Definition
1. Audience—who the learning is targeted to 2. Behavior—anticipated outcome that learners should be able to demonstrate 3. Condition—the environment and resources that must be given to ensure that learners have a complete and consistent foundation 4. Degree—indicates what it takes to meet the objective |
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Term
1. How do you best describe Bloom’s taxonomy and its relevance to writing objectives? |
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Definition
Because learning objectives are written to specify the performance (knowledge and skill) that is desired after the learning, the taxonomy specifies exactly what the learner will know or be able to do at the end of the training experience. |
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Term
2. Which objective domain focuses on the skills and knowledge relating to intellectual activity, such as knowing how to change the oil in a car? |
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Definition
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Term
3. During the design phase, learning objectives are often arranged into a logical learning sequence. Sequencing and structuring are very closely related. A __________ is the order in which skills and information are taught, whereas __________ refers to the relationships among skills and topics. |
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Definition
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Term
What does this figure represent and what are its three components? Must Know> Need to Know> Nice to know in concentric circles |
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Definition
A The figure represents a method to grade content. Must-know information is enabling knowledge that the learner needs to know to perform the task or job. Need-to-know information may be needed for the learner to gain a clear understanding of the essential information presented during the session. Nice-to-know information encompasses items that are not necessary to know and might illustrate points covered. |
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Term
1. List six factors an instructional designer must consider before choosing techniques and training materials. |
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Definition
Instructional objectives; cost or budget; lesson content; learners’ background and expectations; time availability; and facilities, equipment, and material |
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Term
2. When designing learning, what does the context refer to? |
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Definition
Learner characteristics, such as age, educational background, cultural background, and expectations and reasons for attending the instruction |
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Term
3. Advice or information given from one person to another about how useful or successful an event, process, or action is is also known as __________. |
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Definition
Feedback Feedback is given to participants after training regarding their progress, which helps with retention and behavior. |
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Term
1. What is described as an approach to training that ensures that participants are involved in the process and is based on the cooperative learning approach in which participants learn from each other in pairs or small groups? |
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Definition
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Term
Exercises that include a form of real-life situation so participants can practice making decisions and analyze the results of those decisions are also known as __________. |
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Definition
Simulations - Simulations can greatly reduce average learning time, and therefore, the cost associated with learning. Simulation exposes the participant to a broad array of scenarios in a short period of time, and shows him or her the results of decisions quickly, so it’s easier to relate to outcomes. |
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Term
Which e-learning technique enables learners to personally assess what can be learned, how valuable the content will be, and how difficult it will be? |
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Definition
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Term
A training facilitator demonstrates how to effectively negotiate a contract with a client. This instructional strategy is most beneficial to what type of learner? |
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Definition
Adult who gather information passively |
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Term
1. E-learning is outstanding for teaching __________; it has the infinite patience needed to do so. |
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Definition
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Term
2. E-learning is also an excellent tool for teaching __________. |
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Definition
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Term
3. When is classroom training the most effective mode of training? |
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Definition
For psychomotor skills training |
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Term
What is used to identify all duties and responsibilities and the respective tasks performed on a daily, weekly, monthly, or yearly basis that make up a single job function or role? |
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Definition
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Term
What are the key deliverables of a Job Analysis? |
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Definition
A validated task list. This task list is a critical deliverable because it can be used as the foundation to create multiple derivative products, including curriculum design, behavioral interview guides, self assessment tools, organizational assessments, job descriptions, and competency models. |
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Term
1. What does the primary role of a subject matter expert (SME) on a project include? |
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Definition
He or she works with the team to supply or build the content, checks the accuracy of the content developed, and works with the designer to ensure that the design and content are compatible. |
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Term
2. SMEs may not be aware of __________ and __________. For this reason, the designer needs to take responsibility for __________. |
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Definition
Adult learning theories, instructional design techniques, ensuring instructional integrity of the materials |
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Term
1. Describe training needs assessment, which is often also referred to as training needs analysis. |
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Definition
Training needs assessment is the process of collecting and synthesizing data to identify how training can help an organization reach its goals. |
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Term
2. What are the six steps in conducting a training needs assessment? |
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Definition
Defining the objectives, identifying the necessary data, selecting the data collection method, collecting the data, analyzing and confirming the data, and preparing the final report |
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Term
3. List four areas that are measured during training needs assessment. |
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Definition
Business needs, performance needs, learning needs, and learner needs |
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Term
1. What is used to identify the efficiency and effectiveness of employees? |
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Definition
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Term
2. Features of __________ are occupational analysis of competencies required for successful performance, validation of competencies, learner awareness of criteria and conditions for adequate or excellent performance, and planning for individual instruction and evaluation for each competency. |
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Definition
Competency-based learning |
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Term
3. What describes training that relates to actual job circumstances because training is successful only when learners can carry out learned tasks at their actual workstations? |
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Definition
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Term
1. In what two circumstances is observation a good needs assessment technique? |
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Definition
When assessing the need for skill-based training and when conducting a program that changes behavior |
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Term
2. What are three advantages of using interviews as a data-gathering technique? |
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Definition
They provide rich data; careful construction of the interview protocol can yield comparable data across interviews; and they can be used to flesh out data from quantitative methods of gathering data. |
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Term
What are three disadvantages of focus groups? |
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Definition
1. They are time and resource intensive. 2. Sometimes a focus group can fall under the influence of particularly verbal members and give the impression of unanimity. 3. They are difficult to facilitate with just a single facilitator both encouraging participation and taking notes. |
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Term
1. Which instrument has participants rate two contrasting ideas or words that are separated by a graduated line, either numbered or unnumbered? Participants indicate frequency of behavior or depth of opinion by circling points on the line. |
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Definition
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Term
2. What do quantitative methods of collecting data result in? |
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Definition
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Term
3. The __________ is a linear scale used to rate statements and attitudes. |
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Definition
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Term
1. Why is keeping up-to-date on learning technologies so important for workplace learning and performance (WLP) professionals? |
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Definition
To truly add value to their organizations, they need to provide current or updated programs, use appropriate technology for delivery and communication, understand the current business climate and anticipated changes, and respond to changing workforce demographics and future training needs. |
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Term
2. A __________ consists of software that automates the administration of training. It registers users, tracks courses in a catalog, records data from learners, and provides reports to management. |
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Definition
Learning management system (LMS) |
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Term
3. Electronic technologies that deliver information and facilitate the development of skills and knowledge are also known as __________. |
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Definition
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Term
Why is it so important to understand the business drivers and needs that give rise to an identified need prior to designing instruction? |
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Definition
Because the learning function cannot be a valued and effective business partner unless the WLP professional understands the business model, business objectives, growth factors, and strategic drivers for an organization. |
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Term
What is the purpose of conducting a SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats) analysis? |
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Definition
A SWOT analysis, which is also known as an internal and external environmental analysis, helps workplace learning and performance (WLP) professionals determine their strengths and weaknesses (internal) and their opportunities and threats (external). Another purpose of this analysis is to identify the contingencies that aid or prevent achieving the department’s mission. |
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Term
1. What is frequently thought of as the “outcome,” or treatment variable? |
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Definition
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Term
2. What variable influences the treatment variable? |
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Definition
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Term
3. What are undesirable variables that influence the relationship between variables an evaluator is examining? |
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Definition
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Term
Understanding what motivates employees varies by generation; however, __________ is perhaps the most critical element to consider while implementing organizational change. |
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Definition
Understanding motivating factors |
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Term
1. List seven things that cannot be copyrighted. |
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Definition
Ideas, processes, procedures, methods of operation, concepts, principles, and discoveries |
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Term
2. State what can be copyrighted. |
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Definition
A tangible description, explanation, or illustration of an idea, process, procedure, and so forth |
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Term
1. E-learning requires excellent __________. |
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Definition
Instructional design and production |
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Term
2. Give two examples of types of subjects that classroom learning is more appropriate for. |
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Definition
Motor skills and soft skills |
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Term
3. List four things for the instructional designer to consider when determining whether to use e-learning or classroom instruction. |
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Definition
Context of the learning, the needs of adult learners, the needs of the content, and other factors related to instructional design |
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Term
The practice of using several media in one curriculum is also known as __________. It typically refers to the combination of classroom instruction and any type of training that includes self-directed use of online capabilities. |
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Definition
A Blended learning Some learners have difficulty with online material, even though it might have been tested extensively with prospective learners. Others need gentle reminders to motivate them to complete courses. Using classroom training or coaching can address these difficulties. |
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Term
What are the two guiding principles for displaying quantitative data in charts and graphs? |
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Definition
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Term
1. What are the seven principles of adult learning? |
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Definition
Andragogy, not pedagogy; time pressures; goal orientation; previous knowledge and experience; interest limited to directly relevant content; different levels of motivation; and different learning styles |
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Term
2. The way a person prefers to pick up new content is referred to as a __________. |
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Definition
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Term
3. With instructional systems design, Malcolm Knowles’s work tipped the scale toward a __________ as opposed to a __________. |
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Definition
Learner-centered approach, content-centered approach |
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Term
1. Before beginning the facility selection process, the workplace learning and performance (WLP) professional should identify participants’ __________ and plan the __________ that matches them. |
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Definition
Learning goals, physical settingTheater or auditorium seating is used when the planner wants to maximize the number of participants in one room. It’s not a good arrangement for stimulating group |
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Term
2. Which seating arrangement is the least conducive to stimulating group discussion? |
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Definition
discussion or participants. Circle, broken circle, and circle- discussions. |
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Term
Name two characteristics of distance learning. |
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Definition
A1. There is a separation of place, time, or both among learners, instructors, and learning resources.2. Interaction among learners, instructors, and learning resources is conducted through one or more media (use of electronic media isn’t necessarily required). |
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Term
Name this style of seating arrangement and when to use it. |
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Definition
A Circle. A plain circle of chairs is often used to foster an intimate relationship between participants in which they can interact in a more friendly setting. This arrangement has no physical setting for a trainer and creates an equality of participation. |
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Term
1. A trainer is preparing for a class that will have 12 participants. The class will involve full group interaction, several small group discussions, and pair activities. In this situation, which room set up would best accommodate the class activities? |
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Definition
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Term
2. Distinguish between a distribution method and a presentation method. |
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Definition
The distribution method is the means of transmitting the material, while the presentation method is the format of the material. |
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Term
List four benefits of web-based training (WBT). |
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Definition
A 1. Cost-effectiveness 2. Accessibility and application 3. Access for learners 4. Self-direction for learners Expecting dispersed employees to coordinate their schedules for group training is often not practical. Technology can help bridge this gap by offering learners access to more resources, which adds to their body of knowledge in a given topic. |
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Term
1. Web-based training (WBT) in which instruction is provided in a self-directed format and is available at times other than when a facilitator is online is known as __________. |
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Definition
Asynchronous web-based training (WBT) |
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Term
2. What is a message board? |
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Definition
Message boards (also called electronic bulletin boards and threaded discussions) are asynchronous websites where learners communicate by posting their questions, thoughts, and observations about the training content. |
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Term
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Definition
Chat rooms are similar to message boards, but they are synchronous, which means the learners and trainer are online communicating in real time. |
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Term
1. An __________ is a computer application that’s linked directly to another application to train or guide workers through completing a task in the target application. |
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Definition
Electronic performance support system (EPSS) |
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Term
2. In what two circumstances is e-learning a particularly useful tool? |
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Definition
For teaching rote skills and for teaching prerequisite material |
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Term
3. List three drawbacks of classroom training. |
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Definition
High cost, difficult to schedule, and temporary (learners don’t retain knowledge or skills unless they have an opportunity to practice) If possible, a trainer should consider a blended approach to help provide learners with all the skills and knowledge needed to perform effectively on the job. |
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Term
1. What typically refers to the combination of classroom instruction and any type of training that includes self-directed use of online capabilities? |
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Definition
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Term
2. What are two examples of performance support systems? |
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Definition
Job aids and electronic performance support systems (EPSS) |
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Term
3. What are four characteristics of tasks that are perfect for job aids? |
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Definition
Low frequency, high complexity, high consequence of error, and high probability of change in the future Technology capabilities drive at least some portion of a blended-learning solution, but it’s important to consider the learners’ characteristics (time available, level of motivation, learning style) and the characteristics of the content. |
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Term
1. When should self-directed learning not be used? |
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Definition
When the learner’s skill, motivation, or ability to be selfdirected is low and when a program with a self-directed design is not in place |
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Term
2. Why should a workplace learning and performance professional know what new technologies can do? |
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Definition
Because technology can be a hindrance or an enhancement to learning |
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Term
3. What is necessary to make learning technologies efficient and effective? |
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Definition
Partnerships with members of the technical community (for example, information systems and information technology professionals) |
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Term
1. List four ways to create a learning climate based on Malcolm Knowles’s work. |
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Definition
Create a safe haven for learning, create a comfortable environment, encourage participation, and facilitate more than lecture |
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Term
2. List four steps to prepare for training delivery. |
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Definition
Gain an understanding of the learning objectives, learn the material, practice the delivery, and prepare questions to stimulate learning |
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Term
3. Why is it important to understand the learning objectives prior to delivery? |
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Definition
Learning objectives specify the performance (knowledge or skill) that is desired at the completion of the training. |
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Term
1. What is the primary difference between an icebreaker and an opening exercise? |
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Definition
A 1. Icebreakers may or may not introduce or tie to the session content. Opening exercises introduce the subject matter that will be taught. |
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Term
2. What are four elements of an effective oral presentation? |
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Definition
2. Opener, bridge, main body, and close |
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Term
List four characteristics of effective openers. |
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Definition
A 1. They capture participants’ attention. 2. They reveal the trainer’s style. 3. They raise the participants’ comfort level. 4. They introduce the topic of the presentation. Games and brainteasers are effective openers that can function as introductions to problem-solving, competition, team-building, and consensus-seeking activities. |
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Term
1. How can a trainer handle a participant who brings up personal or irrelevant issues? |
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Definition
Ask the participant how his or her comments fit with the issue under discussion |
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Term
2. List three examples of active training techniques. |
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Definition
2. Brainstorming, case studies, and role plays |
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Term
3. What is best described as activities conducted at the beginning of training programs that introduce participants to one another; may introduce content; and, in general, help participants ease into the program? |
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Definition
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Term
List four activities to consider when closing a presentation. |
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Definition
A 1. Do a quick review of the learning objectives and all key points. 2. Do a quick review of the benefits participants got from the presentation. 3. Ask for a call to action of some kind, if appropriate. 4. Ask participants whether they have any questions. |
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Term
1. Trainers should be aware of sounding __________ and losing participants’ attention, and they should avoid the use of __________. |
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Definition
Monotonous, repetitive fillers |
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Term
2. Instructors can also leverage some tools available in web-based training (WBT), such as __________, to immediately determine the group’s understanding of the material and their ability to answer knowledge-check questions correctly. |
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Definition
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Term
3. What are some good guidelines for dressing to facilitate a training session? |
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Definition
Good guidelines include wearing the most formal outfit that might be seen on participants. Make sure it’s comfortable, practical, and predictable (for example, you’ve worn it before and know that it won’t suddenly develop static cling or show perspiration). |
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Term
1. How can a trainer encourage a participant to continue speaking? |
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Definition
By walking toward participants as they answer questions |
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Term
2. How can a trainer recognize signs of boredom, disinterest, or lack of understanding? |
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Definition
By observing participants’ body language (down-turned eyes, fidgeting, and slouching often signal boredom) |
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Term
3. How does facilitation differ from training? |
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Definition
Facilitation is used to involve participants, engaging learners and helping members of a group learn from one another. Becoming an effective facilitator requires practice, although good facilitators possess a certain intuition. They know when to ask a question and when to be silent; when to challenge a statement and when to remain neutral. |
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Term
1. Which type of question, often starting with the words “what if . . .,” is used to get learners to think freely in situations where many answers may be valid? |
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Definition
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Term
2. What can be an excellent facilitation tool because it creates just enough tension to get people thinking? |
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Definition
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Term
3. Being aware of the __________, or what else is going on in and around the discussion, helps the trainer direct the flow of the discussion and “referee.” |
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Definition
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Term
1. What adjustment will an instructor need to make when moving from a classroom session on return-on-investment (ROI) strategies to an online presentation of the material? |
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Definition
Schedule more time for interactions |
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Term
2. Because sometimes trainers do not know the specific training needs of the target group, they may need to give the training attendees an impromptu test during the training session. What is the name of this strategy? |
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Definition
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Term
3. What are the four characteristics of online communication? |
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Definition
Image oriented, interactive, immediate, and intimate |
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Term
1. As in the classroom, active engagement increases attention to, and comprehension of, content in online learning programs, but the interaction should be appropriate. What is an appropriate interaction? |
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Definition
Appropriate interaction is an exchange between the learner and the online learning program that’s relevant to the content. |
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Term
2. When a trainer provides feedback to a learner answering a question, what three things should that feedback do? |
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Definition
Indicate whether the response was correct, explain why the response was not correct or give some clarification on the correct content, and give instructions on how to proceed |
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Term
3. List four cases when a trainer should not use a chart pack. |
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Definition
When the size of the room or the number of participants is too large, when the trainer wants to appear more formal or professional, when the trainer has illegible handwriting, and when the trainer presents the same program regularly |
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Term
1. Trainers should use __________ when a presentation is formal and should present a professional image. |
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Definition
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Term
2. Trainers should use __________ when they want to use the revelation technique—meaning the ability to build a slide, starting with one line and, with a click of the remote, adding lines one by one. |
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Definition
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Term
3. A training program can’t be successful unless the workplace learning and performance (WLP) professional takes into account the __________ and the __________. |
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Definition
Current organizational climate, available resources |
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Term
1. An instructional designer reviewing Herrmann’s brain-based approach to learning would characterize a person who is logical, analytical, quantitative, factual, and critical as what type of learner? |
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Definition
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Term
2. Summarize the VAK model. |
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Definition
There are three categories of learner preference: auditory, kinesthetic, and visual. People vary in their orientation toward these three styles. |
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Term
What are David Kolb’s four learning styles? |
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Definition
A Convergers, divergers, assimilators, and accommodators According to Kolb’s model, learning occurs when individuals engage in some activity, reflect upon the activity critically, derive some useful insight from the analysis, and incorporate the result through a change in understanding and/or behavior. Therefore, learning does not require a teacher to be a part of the experience. |
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Term
1. A trainer observes a learner consistently struggling to follow directions that have been given verbally to the class. According to neurolinguistic programming and the VAK model, what is one way for the trainer try to help the learner start and complete the activity? |
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Definition
Write the directions on a flipchart |
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Term
2. Describe Howard Gardner’s philosophy. |
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Definition
He believes that intelligence is multifaceted and traditional measures, such as IQ tests and SATs, don’t accurately measure all its facets. He defined intelligence as a measurable aptitude, an aptitude that can be used to create and solve problems, and an aptitude valued by the culture. |
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Term
3. A learner’s primary __________, and the attendant preferred mode of learning, may be one of the following: print, visual, aural, interactive, tactile, kinesthetic, or olfactory |
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Definition
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Term
1. Patricia Cross developed the __________ to describe some differencesbetween adults and children so that alternative teaching strategies can be developed |
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Definition
Characteristics of adults as learners (CAL) conceptual framework |
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Term
2. What results in learners’ long-term retention by honoring the different learning preferences of each learner and using experiential learning exercises? |
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Definition
Accelerated learning - Trainers can add a number of items to create a multisensory environment: upbeat music, posters posing questions about the importance of learning, colored paper and pens, sample training designs enlarged and posted on walls of the training facility, and hats to represent different brain functions. |
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Term
3. What technique, developed by Georgi Lazanov, is the instructional application of stimulating the body and mind at peak efficiency to develop super-learning capabilities? |
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Definition
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Term
What are the four stages of accelerated learning? |
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Definition
A 1. Preparation for learning by engaging the learner’s attention 2. Presentation of material as input to the brain 3. Practice with ideas and skills 4. Review of input to strengthen new connections and apply them outside the classroom. |
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Term
1. According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, what are the four dimensions of personality? |
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Definition
Extroversion (E) or introversion (I), perception by sensing (S) or intuition (N), judgment by thinking (T) or feeling (F), and attitude of judgment (J) or perception (P) |
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Term
2. According to Silver and Hanson, what are the four distinct learning styles? |
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Definition
Sensing-thinking (ST), intuitive-thinking (NT), sensing-feeling (SF), and intuitive-feeling (NF) |
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Term
3. List three tools for determining learner preferences. |
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Definition
The Productivity Environmental Preference Survey (PEPS), the Canfield Learning Style Inventory, and the Learning Style Questionnaire |
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Term
1. Why is it important for instructors and trainers to know their preferred teaching or presentation style? |
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Definition
To adjust their presentation style to gain the attention of the learners |
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Term
2. List four barriers to communication during training delivery. |
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Definition
Language, speech, environmental, and psychological factors |
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Term
3. Two parties who don’t have a similar command of a language may experience mild distinctions in meanings that lead to misunderstandings. What is this type of barrier to communication referred to as? |
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Definition
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Term
1. An American manager is relocated to the company’s Japanese office and is offended when not provided a private office. This is an example of what common barrier to communication? |
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Definition
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Term
2. A training specialist gives instructions to a worker about an exercise that needs to be completed. The worker smiles agreeably and nods. When the trainer checks back with the worker later, she discovers that the worker has not completed the exercise. This is an example of what common barrier to communication? |
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Definition
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Term
3. What four variables have an effect on how members of a culture think and express themselves? |
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Definition
3. Social contexting, contexting, authority, and concept of time Most North Americans and northern Europeans see time as a tool—something to be divided, used, or wasted. Throughout Latin America, Central Africa, and the Arab states, time is viewed as fluid. People from these areas put personal involvement and completion of projects above schedules. |
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Term
1. What is the term that describes the relationships of people’s positions in space? |
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Definition
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Term
2. When examining models in communication theory, noise is often defined as __________. |
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Definition
Something that hinders the flow of information between a source and a receiver |
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Term
3. To address the changing dynamics of the U.S. workforce, what will workplace learning and performance (WLP) professionals need to do as they plan their training interventions for the next year? |
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Definition
Adopt diversity and multiculturalism programs |
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Term
1. What allows a workplace learning and performance (WLP) professional to present material in a professional manner and keeps the focus of training on the correct topic |
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Definition
Being prepared for training |
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Term
2. What should half of preparation for a presentation be? |
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Definition
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Term
3. Before the session, a trainer should find out as much as possible about ____. |
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Definition
The participants who will be attending the training session Trainers may want to practice some portions of the session including activities with a small group to determine timing and find out whether the directions are as clear as they need to be. Questions sometimes come up that a trainer cannot answer. A practice run helps uncover critical flaws or omissions. |
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Term
1. What are the factors that affect human performance? |
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Definition
Knowledge, skills, desire, environment, and opportunity |
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Term
2. What are the factors that need to be defined during the performance gap analysis |
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Definition
Driving and restraining forces and current state vs desired state |
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Term
What is the first component of the ASTD human performance improvement (HPI) model? |
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Definition
The business analysis phase to identify organizational goalsA client might claim that the highest priority is to increase sales. should push for more details regarding this goal by asking questions. How much of an increase in sales? Is the sales increase to be overall or to a specific part of the market? Does Therefore, when clients say the goal is to increase sales, it’s business goal is specific and tied to a timeframe. |
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Term
1. Describe Gilbert’s behavior engineering model. |
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Definition
A1. The model identifies six major sets of factors that affect workplace performance, including information, resources, incentives or consequences, knowledge and skills, capacity, and motivation. |
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Term
2. Describe Rummler and Brache’s model. |
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Definition
the model indicates that optimak performance is obtained when three levels (organization, process, and job or performer) work in hamrony |
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Term
1. A diagnostic model that is designed to identify the cause of a performance problem, based on the belief that the cause should drive the solution, is also known as __________. |
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Definition
Harless’s front-end analysis model |
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Term
2. This model involves determining the importance of the problem and the results of either solving or ignoring it. If the problem is deemed important, the next step is to determine if a skill deficiency is involved. What is the name of the model? |
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Definition
Mager and Pipe’s human performance model |
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Term
What are the three principles fundamental to human performance improvement (HPI) practice? |
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Definition
1. Human performance improvement (HPI) uses a results-based, systematic approach. 2. HPI focuses on accomplishments before behavior. 3. Organizations are systems. |
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Term
Name the three tasks of a business analysis. |
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Definition
1. Identify the business goals 2. Clarify that they are appropriate goals 3. Determine how specific and measurable the goals are |
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Term
1. What are six external factors that may affect organizations? |
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Definition
Economic, social, political and legislative, workforce, technological, and competitive |
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Term
2. Define performance analysis. |
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Definition
It is the process of identifying the organization’s current state and the desired state. |
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Term
1. What determines if the real root cause has been identified, determines if solutions are properly designed and selected, ensures that the clients’ and stakeholders’ expectations are being met, checks to see if the solution is working, and identifies lessons learned for the next human performance improvement (HPI) project? |
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Definition
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Term
2. What measures the solution’s effect on business goals and performance goals, the costs of the solution, stakeholders’ expectations, participants’ reactions, and return-on-investment? |
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Definition
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Term
1. A __________ serves as a reality check to identify the project’s limiting factors, which may include budget, time available, timing, space, resource availability, resource expertise to conduct the analysis, and other organizational priorities. |
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Definition
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Term
2. What kind of analysis identifies the forces that maintain the status quo and clarifies approaches needed to facilitate change? |
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Definition
Kurt Lewin’s forcefield analysis |
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Term
3. What tool is used to help individuals and groups mentally walk through discrete tasks in the sequence of an activity? |
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Definition
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Term
1. What analysis tool is used to refine a list of brainstormed ideas into something that makes more sense and can be dealt with more easily? |
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Definition
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Term
2. Practitioners use ____________ most often to collect data for current performance analysis and learner analysis and to gather business needs infromation from a client |
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Definition
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Term
3. Practitioners can use _____________ to gather both qualitative and quantitative data. |
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Definition
Surveys - Practitioners can use surveys to gather both qualitative and quantitative data and gain support by providing people with an input mechanism. They also help employees and management team members understand that the organization wants them to succeed. |
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Term
List 10 types of root causes. |
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Definition
A Lack of knowledge or skills, lack of proper physical resources, a problem or weak link in a process, a need for more information, a lack of leadership, a lack of information about consequences, a problem with motives and expectations, inadequate feedback, inadequate incentives or rewards, and performer’s lack of capacity to do the job |
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Term
During what phase of the ASTD human performance improvement (HPI) model are knowledge, motives, physical resources, structure, and information analyzed? |
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Definition
A The root cause analysis phase A company experiencing poor sales decides to revamp the sales training program. But the underlying cause has more to do with the competitor’s underpricing strategy than with a need to train salespeople. In this case, a training intervention would be inappropriate and a waste of resources and staff. |
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Term
1. Which root cause analysis tool involves asking why a problem persists and continuing to ask why for each response for five iterations? |
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Definition
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Term
2. Which root cause analysis tool uses the 80/20 rule, which states that 80 percent of the effects come from 20 percent of the causes? |
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Definition
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Term
3. Collecting hard data is critical to the success of a root cause analysis to ensure that the human performance improvement (HPI) practitioner ____. |
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Definition
Has all the background information to make objective, appropriate recommendations. |
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Term
1. Which performance solution (also known as intervention) category uses coaching, accelerated learning, job aids, or electronic performance support systems (EPSSs)? |
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Definition
Improving knowledge and skills |
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Term
2. A practitioner is trying to implement a performance solution strategy and is aware of the need to facilitate change during this process. He is unsure of when to analyze and begin planning for the change initiative. __________ is the most appropriate place in the human performance improvement (HPI) process to begin planning for change. |
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Definition
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Term
3. What is important to any HPI solution to identify barriers and difficulties that interfere with employee performance and organizational results? |
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Definition
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Term
1. After a workplace learning and performance (WLP) professional identifies a performance gap, she must then select and implement a solution to bridge the gap. When in this process should she conduct a resource analysis? |
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Definition
A 1. Before considering appropriate solutions |
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Term
2. List six categories of solutions. |
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Definition
2. Structure and process, resources, information, knowledge and skills, motives, and wellness |
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Term
3. Name a structured method a team can use to brainstorm a wide range of responses to an issue, clarify each of the responses, and rank the responses from most to least important. |
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Definition
3. Nominal group technique |
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Term
1. Name a form of decision-making matrix that enables the human performance improvement (HPI) practitioner and stakeholders to identify appropriate countermeasures for root causes of issues as well as identify and rank one to three potential solutions. |
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Definition
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Term
2. When planning a change management process, a workplace learning and performance (WLP) professional must analyze all interventions in terms of their __________ and __________. |
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Definition
Cost and expected returns. |
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Term
List four common mistakes consultants and practitioners make when they select, design, and implement interventions. |
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Definition
A Failure to partner, failure to consider culture, failure to manage change, and failure to adapt to the client Regardless of how good the implementation plan is, it will require adaptation as the process unfolds. The practitioner will always run into unanticipated barriers and hidden opportunities. |
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Term
1. When proposing a change management solution, it is the responsibility of the workplace learning and performance (WLP) professional to __________. |
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Definition
Articulate the features, advantages, and benefits of solutions to stakeholders and decision makers |
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Term
2. List three reasons that networking and developing partnerships is important in human performance improvement (HPI). |
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Definition
To get professional resources when expertise is needed, to enhance problem solving by discussing challenging questions, and to get a reality check before investing time and money in a certain direction |
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Term
1. Being familiar with several human performance improvement (HPI) models and knowing some of the advantages and disadvantages of each allows a practitioner to __________. |
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Definition
Adapt to meet the needs of a project or client. |
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Term
2. List the seven components of the ASTD HPI model. |
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Definition
Business analysis, performance analysis, cause analysis, solution selection, solution implementation, evaluation of results, and change management |
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Term
3. List three reasons why systems thinking is important in HPI. |
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Definition
Because it looks at problems holistically; small, incremental changes can have disastrous effects; and it enables the practitioner to identify high-leverage points for change |
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Term
1. Name the model that represents different ways that individuals make sense of and deal with everyday events. Individuals select and process certain aspects of events and introduce elements from this processing into their thinking, feeling, and interactions. |
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Definition
Ladder of inference model |
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Term
2. Name an approach to large-scale organizational change that involves theanalysis of positive and successful (rather than negative or failing) operations. |
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Definition
Appreciative inquiry (AI) theory |
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Term
3. Name a practice that allows a diverse group of people to create energizing and productive meetings that ensure that all issues and ideas raised are discussed. |
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Definition
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Term
1. List four stages of transition through mergers and acquisitions. |
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Definition
Disengagement, disidentification, disorientation, and disenchantment |
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Term
2. Two sets of industry factors are especially important for human performance improvement (HPI) practitioners to understand: __________ and __________. |
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Definition
The competitive environment and compliance issues. |
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Term
3. Broad company knowledge covers four topics. List those four topics. |
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Definition
The industry segment, the organizational structure, formal and informal power structures, and knowledge transfers |
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Term
1. What is a generic system configuration that can be applied to many different situations with the purpose of defining the type of system under scrutiny and providing the practitioner with behavioral insights into the type of systems he or she is working with? |
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Definition
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Term
2. What is the overall goal of group dynamics in improving human performance? |
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Definition
2. To ensure that all team members are involved as effective contributors to the work being done |
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Term
3. The main characteristic of __________ is when each member of the group makes his or her stated opinions conform to the perceived consensus of the group. |
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Definition
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Term
1. What can be used with teams to pose a problem to a group and have the group work together to find a solution? |
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Definition
A 1. Experiential learning |
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Term
2. List the five stages in Tuckman’s team-maturing model. |
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Definition
2. Forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning |
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Term
3. Name the team development model that has stages called the “polite stage” and “bid for power.” |
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Definition
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Term
1. Name five conflict responses. |
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Definition
A 1. Competing, accommodating, avoiding, collaborating, and compromising |
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Term
2. A technique to give each team member clear guidance about team roles |
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Definition
2. Write down what the group roles will be and what to expect from each |
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Term
3. List five ways to use storytelling. |
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Definition
3. To capture people’s attention, to send a message that people will remember, to establish rapport, to build credibility, and to bring a team closer together |
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Term
1. Which tool’s purpose is to use diagramming to understand the process currently used and to identify appropriate benchmarks for measuring process results? |
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Definition
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Term
2. What are the four basic components of a process? |
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Definition
2. Inputs, outputs, process controls, and resources |
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Term
1. What kind of questions is used to check for understanding or to test for consensus? |
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Definition
3. Confirm agreement and document in meeting minutes |
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Term
1. What kind of questions is used to check for understanding or to test |
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Definition
A 1. Closed-ended questions |
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Term
2. During a business analysis of a consulting firm, a workplace learning and performance (WLP) professional delves deeply into several issues to gather a complete understanding of the issues facing the firm. Which type of questioning technique is best suited to gain this level of insight? |
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Definition
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Term
3. Why is it critical for a WLP professional to form a complete picture of the organization that is based on facts, and not opinions? |
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Definition
3. To identify root causes A company experiencing poor sales decides to revamp the sales training program. But the underlying cause has more to do with the competitor’s underpricing strategy than with a need to train salespeople. In this case, a training intervention would be inappropriate and a waste of resources and staff. |
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Term
1. Measuring what the practitioner intended to measure is called __________. |
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Definition
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Term
2. The extent to which the assessment can predict or agree with external constructs; determined by looking at the correlation between the instrument and the criterion measure is __________. |
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Definition
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Term
3. The ability of the same measurement to produce consistent results over time is called __________. |
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Definition
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Term
1. In English, significant means important, whereas in statistics, it means __________ true. |
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Definition
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Term
2. An assessment done while it’s being formed is called __________. |
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Definition
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Term
3. A type of test reliability in which one test is split into two shorter ones, achieved by assigning test items randomly to one test half or the other is called __________. |
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Definition
3. Split-halfIn a split-half test, each half is scored, and the correlation of response and consistency. The participants retest with the unused half, which overcomes the memory bias in a test–retest approach. |
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Term
1. The extent to which an instrument can predict future behaviors or is __________. |
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Definition
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Term
2. The range where something is expected to be is __________. |
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Definition
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Term
3. The extent to which the instrument represents the program’s content is __________. |
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Definition
3. Content validityLow-content validity means the instrument doesn’t represent a true summation of the program content. High-content validity means the instrument represents a good balance of all the program content. |
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Term
1. During formative evaluation, a practitioner should try to make sure the training program is __________, __________, and __________. |
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Definition
A 1. Understandable, accurate, functional |
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Term
2. The three types of formative evaluation are: __________, __________, and __________. |
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Definition
2. Pilot tests, technical reviews, production reviews |
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Term
3. What is the purpose of training evaluation? (name several) |
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Definition
3. Determining business impact, improving the design of the learning experience, determining the content’s adequacy |
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Term
1. Questionnaires, follow-up interviews, and observation checklists are used during which level of evaluation? |
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Definition
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Term
2. Paper-and-pencil tests, oral questions and answers, performance tests, and role plays are used during which level of evaluation? |
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Definition
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Term
3. Control groups, managements’ estimates, extant data, and external studiescan measure which level of evaluation? |
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Definition
3. Level 5 - monetary impact |
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Term
1. Action plans, interviews, questionnaires, focus groups, and performance contracts can measure which level of evaluation? |
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Definition
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Term
2. Performance records, direct observation, and supervisor checklists can measure which level of evaluation? |
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Definition
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Term
3. Which level of evaluation do you measure during, before, or after the program? |
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Definition
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Term
1. Which level of evaluation do you measure during the program (end of day) or at the end of the program? |
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Definition
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Term
2. Which level of evaluation measures on the job change? |
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Definition
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Term
3. Which level of evaluation measures the extent of learning and knowledge of the participants? |
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Definition
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Term
1. Which level of evaluation do you measure a few weeks to a few months after the program? |
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Definition
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Term
2. Which level of evaluation measures facilitator style, relevance, interaction, and whether objectives were met? |
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Definition
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Term
3. Which level of evaluation measures the impact on the organization? |
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Definition
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Term
1. PBT (performance-based training) requires that a learner demonstrate both __________ and __________ before leaving training. |
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Definition
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Term
2. Another method for organizations to evaluate the effectiveness of training beyond financial measures is called the __________ __________ approach. |
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Definition
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Term
3. An evaluation of an evaluation is called __________. |
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Definition
3. Meta-evaluation To conduct a meta-evaluation during the project management phase of an evaluation program, a practitioner should analyze each step to evaluate the evaluation. |
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Term
1. The sum of all numbers divided by the number of values that makeup the sum is the __________. |
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Definition
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Term
2. The most frequently occurring set of numbers is the __________. |
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Definition
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Term
3. The middle of a distribution where half the scores are above and half are below is the __________. |
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Definition
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Term
4. The answers to the above three questions are all measures of |
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Definition
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Term
1. The numbers or variables used to classify a system, as in a telephone number or the numbers on a football player’s jersey are ___________. |
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Definition
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Term
2. The numbers or variables that allow ranking the order of importance from highest to lowest are __________. |
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Definition
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Term
3. The multiple dependent variables in a study with multiple independent variables are __________. |
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Definition
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Term
1. An unknown or uncontrolled variable that produces an effect in an experimental setting is a __________ variable. |
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Definition
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Term
2. A variable whose quantification can be broken down into extremely small units (for example, time, speed, distance) is a __________ variable. |
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Definition
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Term
3. A variable that falls into one of two possible classifications (for example, gender [male or female]) is a __________ variable. |
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Definition
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Term
1. Frequently thought of as the “outcome,” or treatment variable, the outcome that depends on the independent variable and covariates is called a __________ variable. |
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Definition
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Term
2. A variable in which the units are in whole numbers, or distinct units (for v |
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Definition
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Term
3. The variable that influences the dependent variable—such as age, seniority,gender, shift, level of education, and so on—is a __________ variable. |
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Definition
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Term
1. Analysis that involves looking at participants’ opinions, behaviors, and attributes and is often descriptive is __________ . |
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Definition
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Term
2. A commonly used measure or indicator of the amount of variability of scores from the mean and often used in formulas for advanced or inferential statistics is __________ __________. |
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Definition
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Term
3. Archival or existing records, reports, and data are known as __________ data. |
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Definition
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Term
What is a Ishikawa (fishbone) cause-and-effect diagram |
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Definition
A cause-and-effect diagram is used to identify, explore, and display the possible causes for variation. To construct a cause-and-effect diagram, a clear problem statement should be developed and placed in a box to the right. Major cause categories are placed at the end of a main branch, or “bone.” The diagram is completed by filling in the causes. |
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Term
1. Two-axis matrixes, flowcharts, dichotomy, and graphic models are all typesof ___________ models. |
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Definition
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Term
2. What measurement procedure has the most impact on the extent to which v |
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Definition
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Term
3. Three major tasks—sorting, tabulating, and comparing raw with summarized data—are part of what process? |
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Definition
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Term
1. Data is difficult to express in measures or numbers is __________ data. |
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Definition
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Term
2. The primary tools for the visual display of quantitative evaluationare __________ and __________. |
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Definition
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Term
3. To avoid bias when looking at statistical significance, it’s important to check the __________ procedure. |
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Definition
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Term
Identify this calculation: Total Benefits / Program Costs |
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Definition
A BCR (Benefit-to-cost ratio) A benefit-cost ratio of 1.0 says that for every dollar investment, a dollar is returned; this translates into a zero percent ROI that says the program broke even, or the money was returned. |
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Term
Identify this calculation: ( Program Costs/Investment) / (Total Benefits/Cash Inflow) |
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Definition
A BE (Break-even) BE calculates how long it takes for the intervention to pay for itself. In other words, it tells how many years the program would need to be in place and be used before it paid for itself. This formula is also called the payback formula, and is the opposite of the BCR. |
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Term
Identify this calculation: (Total Benefits – Program Costs × 100) / Program Costs |
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Definition
A ROI (Return-on-investment) When a program’s ROI is 100 percent, for each $1 invested, $1 was returned in net benefits. In other words, for each $1 invested, the initial $1 investment is returned plus $1, so there’s a gain of $1. |
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Term
what percent of the population does 1 standard deviation represent? |
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Definition
The standard deviation is the distance on either side of the mean (average) to include 68 percent of the population. |
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Term
This is a model that described both driving and resisting forces |
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Definition
A Lewin’s Forcefield Analysis Forces may be people, traditions, beliefs, norms of behavior, political or economic conditions, technology, or other factors that play a positive or negative role in the organization development effort. Lewin identified the positive change forces as “driving forces” and the negative ones as “resisting forces” that maintain the status quo. |
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Term
What are some uses of analysis for ROI evaluation, cost-benefits, utilities, and forecasting? (name several) |
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Definition
A To measure a program’s economic contribution To measure the degree of change in retention To isolate the effects of training |
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Term
1. When using principles of systems thinking, how do you define the levels of problems? |
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Definition
A1. There are three levels of problems: structures - questions underlying asumptions, patterns - viewing recurrances, events - the instances of the situation |
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Term
2. Define systems thinking. |
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Definition
A method of deep thinking that involves a shift in perspective to the whole organization and, in that process, enables people to pause and reflect on what is important. This way, actions that are undertaken are more imaginative, effective and creative |
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Term
What are the founding principles of systems thinking? |
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Definition
1 There are no final or right answers 2 Cause and effect are not related to time and space 3 Behavior gets worse before it gets better 4 Using foresight benefits the organization |
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Term
1. Define open systems theory |
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Definition
A1. Open systems theory is the view that any organization factors, raw materials, capital, and information; uses them in such transformational processes as service delivery or manufacturing methods; and expels them as outputs such as finished goods or customer services. |
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Term
2. What is a systems view and how can this help an organization’s ability to improve performance? |
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Definition
2. A systems view recognizes the interrelationships of the parts and the importance of their interaction to create the whole. Taking action on any aspect of the system may improve performance. |
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Term
What is the fundamental basis for chaos and complexity theory? |
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Definition
Borrowing theories that physicists and mathematicians had been exploring for decades, it was discovered that the universe is a vibrant and chaotic system, not a static machine subject to our control. As research progressed, it was determined that, although the universe and other systems are extremely complex, they contain patterns that can lead to a greater understanding of their structures and an ability to predict patterns that they will follow. |
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Term
1. Explain the difference between chaos and complexity. |
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Definition
A 1. Chaos is the study of how simple systems can generate complicated behavior, whereas complexity is the study of how complicated systems generate simple behavior. |
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Term
2. How does chaos and complexity theory relate to organizational change? |
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Definition
2. Since the introduction of the Aristotelian-Ptolemaic System (which first presented a controlled order for the planets), humans have attempted to find order in their environment. Today, organizations continue this struggle for order in the way business organizations are managed. Scientific theories historically progress into the science of business, and organizations that apply the basic principles involved in the chaos and complexity theory can learn to exploit their environment and co-evolve with other chaotic organizations. As research into the theory has become more widespread, experts have found that organizations are near perfect examples of complex, nonlinear dynamic systems—phenomena usually studied by theoretical physicists, mathematicians, and biologists. |
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Term
1. Complexity theory is similar to what two accepted management practices? |
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Definition
A 1. Learning organizations and systems thinking. |
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Term
2. List the characteristics of complex systems. |
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Definition
2. The whole is more than the parts Patterns appear throughout the system Cause and effect is never simple History does and doesn’t repeat itself Change comes from chaos The future can and can’t be predicted. |
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Term
Describe how chaos and complexity theory offers insight to leadership and organization of work. |
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Definition
A Organization development practitioners should • Encourage managers to loosen control and allow teams to self-organize • Promote a search for alternative or innovative solutions rather than clinging to past practices • Engage the whole system to participate in planning, problem solving, and creating the future • Help develop and communicate shared values and purpose throughout the organization. |
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Term
1. Chaos and complexity theory focuses attention on __________and ____________ mechanisms. |
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Definition
A 1. Information and feedback |
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Term
2. Describe the Senge model of systems thinking. |
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Definition
2. Senge’s model involves developing graphs of what happens in an organization. This model characterizes recurring feedback loops as system archetypes, which are generic configurations that fit many situations. |
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Term
1. What methods do learning organizations create and foster for productive learning? |
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Definition
A 1. Culture, vision, strategy, and structure |
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Term
2. Define chaos as applied to organizational management. |
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Definition
2. Chaos is a state where patterns cannot be made nor details understood. Chaos is the result of an organization resisting change and then reaching a point where change is unavoidable. At this point, change occurs rapidly and can take a system in unexpected directions. Eventually, the system either reorganizes itself in a viable state or disintegrates. |
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Term
1. Define complexity as applied to organizational management. |
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Definition
A 1. Complex systems have details, whose role in the larger system cannot be understood fully by examining them apart from the system. By carefully studying the whole system, patterns can be identified. |
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Term
2. What are the four Cs of change? |
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Definition
2. Create a vision Communicate the plan Connect with people Congratulate success |
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Term
How does the organization development (OD) practitioner use appreciative inquiry? |
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Definition
As an approach that can be used in a variety of consulting and coaching situations, including change interventions and general facilitation, creating a context for inclusion and participation, and transforming traditional hierarchical organizations into workplaces characterized by collaboration, engagement, and partnership. can help managers transition from an authoritarian to a more empowering style because it is participative and inclusive. It is also useful for helping to renew and reengage professionals who have been stuck in a routine. |
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Term
1. Define appreciative inquiry theory. |
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Definition
A 1. Appreciative inquiry theory is an affirmative approach to personal and organization transformation. The appreciative inquiry approach is based on the assumption that positive questions and conversations about visions, values, successes, and strengths have the power to enliven possibilities and engage people in creating exciting new realities. |
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Term
2. What is the core belief of appreciative inquiry theory? |
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Definition
2. At the core of appreciative inquiry is a belief that reality is socially constructed—that the world is created in conversation. |
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Term
1. According to David Cooperrider, the aim of appreciative inquiry is to help the organization do what? |
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Definition
A 1. Envision a collectively desired future and carry forth that vision in ways that successfully translate intention into reality and beliefs into practices. |
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Term
2. How does the organization development (OD) practitioner use appreciative inquiry? |
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Definition
begin by adding affirmative questions to their coaching, consulting, and facilitating and getting people talking about what interests them the most—their ideas, hopes, and proudest moments. |
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Term
1. What is the 4-D cycle? |
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Definition
A 1. David Cooperrider and Suresh Srivastva developed the 4-D cycle to guide OD practitioners and clients through the appreciative inquiry approach The 4-D cycle can be used for large or small solutions. OD practitioners can even use the 4-D cycle when coaching individuals and teams. |
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Term
2. Name the elements of the 4-D cycle. |
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Definition
2. Discovery, Dream, Design, Destiny |
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Term
1. Questions that stimulate discussion are called __________ questions. |
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Definition
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Term
2. Questions that check for understanding or test for consensus are called __________ __________ questions. |
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Definition
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Term
1. In what phase of the 4-D cycle do participants explore and discuss their visions, hopes, ideas, and dreams for the future? |
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Definition
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Term
2. A statement that bridges the best of “what is” with your own speculation or intuition of “what might be” is called a __________ __________. |
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Definition
2. Proactive statement It is provocative to the extent to which it stretches the realm of the status quo, challenges common assumptions or routines, and helps suggest real possibilities that represent desired possibilities for the organization and its people. |
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Term
1. When does experiential learning occur? |
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Definition
A 1. Experiential learning occurs when a learner participates in an activity, reviews the activity, identifies useful knowledge or skills that were gained, and transfers the result to the workplace. |
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Term
2. What are the five steps in Pfeiffer and Jones’ experiential learning cycle that explain what must occur during an activity to ensure maximum learning occurs? |
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Definition
2. The five steps are experiencing, publishing, processing, generalizing, and applying. |
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Term
1. A manager of talent development has been hired by a new technology company. The main purpose of the manager’s role will be to identify and cultivate talented individuals within the company. According to Warren Bennis’ seven attributes essential for leadership, which attribute will this manager be fulfilling in the company? |
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Definition
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Term
2. What is action research and learning? |
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Definition
Both a model and a process. In its simplest form, it is a process whereby research or factfinding precedes action and follows it. The thought process looks something like this: fact-finding, action, fact-finding, action, and so on. The action research process takes shape as understanding increases. The process remains focused on the desired state and how each systemic element needs to change. |
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Term
An action learning program derives its power and benefits from what six interactive and interdependent components? |
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Definition
1. Problem 2. Action learning group 3. Emphasis on careful questioning and listening 4. Resolution to take action 5. Commitment to learning 6. Group facilitator or learning coach. |
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Term
1. Which component of action learning focuses on the power to take action or the assurance that recommendations will be implemented. |
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Definition
A 1. Resolution to take action |
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Term
2. Name the three underpinnings of action learning. |
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Definition
2. Bloom’s Taxonomy, Six Sigma, Kepner-Tregoe Kepner-Tregoe describes a practical, straightforward decisionmaking process by dividing criteria into musts and wants. The musts are definable into either/or categories. The wants are those relative measures that are important but cannot be quantified into yes or no answers. |
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Term
What are the criteria for determining if a project is appropriate for an action learning group? |
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Definition
A Reality, feasibility, authority, and learning opportunities One of the fundamental beliefs of action learning is that adults learn best when undertaking action, which they then reflect on and learn from. A project or task gives the group something to focus on that is real and important, something that is relevant and important to them. It creates a hook on which to test stored-up knowledge. |
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Term
Name the components of the action learning formula: L = P + Q + R |
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Definition
Learning (L) is equal to programmed instruction (P) (that is, knowledge in current use, books, the person’s mind, organizational memory, and so on), plus questioning (Q) (fresh insights into what is not yet known), plus reflection (R) (recalling, thinking about, pulling apart, making sense, or trying to understand). |
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Term
1. Action learning requires group effort and collaboration; therefore, skilled __________ __________ is a must for successful action learning. |
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Definition
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Term
2. How is asking questions in action learning different than asking questions in other situations? |
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Definition
2. The major difference between asking questions in action learning and asking them in most other settings is that in action learning, questions seek not only answers, but also seek to go deeper, to understand, respond to what is being asked, and give it thought. Questions are not a quest for solutions; they are an opportunity to explore. |
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Term
1. Name some traits of high-performance organizations. |
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Definition
A 1. Traits of high-performance organizations include quality products and services, strong financial results, dedicated employees, formidable leadership, and a passion for the business. |
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Term
2. Describe the hierarchical management model. |
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Definition
2. This model divides larger tasks into smaller ones that people with little or no education could carry out. Nearly all organizations are broken down into layers of responsibility with a group of managers who were selected because of their education, skill, and experience. |
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Term
1. A combination line and project structure with a general manager at the top of the hierarchy is describe as a __________ model. |
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Definition
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Term
2. Describe the flat management model. |
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Definition
2. In this structure, the line of authority flows from the top to the lower levels of the organization. On each level, managers have authority over their areas (for example, credit and HR managers) and subordinates, who, in turn, have authority over others, and so on. Every employee reports to a single immediate superior. |
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Term
1. The theory that people are motivated to work toward rewards that they want and that they believe they have a reasonable chance of obtaining is called __________ theory. |
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Definition
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Term
2. Describe a self-directed work team. |
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Definition
2. A self-directed work team combines the best aspects of the independent craft worker with mass production. It integrates the craft worker’s intimate knowledge of a task with all the advantages of standardization and provides an organizational structure that puts the employees in control of achieving their goals. |
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Term
1. When explaining the gaps between where the company is and where it needs to be, honesty about the challenges the employees and the company will face is imperative. This process of moving toward the desired state is known as __________ __________. |
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Definition
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Term
2. What is change management? |
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Definition
2. Change is a process, not an event. Change management is the process of carefully orchestrating change at each level of the organization. |
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Term
Karl Albrecht described the personal change response cycle to help individuals work though the progressive psychological phases of change response. What are these phases? |
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Definition
A Threat, problem, solution, habit Individuals are afraid to change the status quo because of fear of the unknown or fear of a state worse than the status quo. Then, individuals perceive change to be a lot of work and problems. Because they no longer know the rules, it’s difficult for them to complete their jobs. Overcoming the problems perceived in the previous phase starts to reveal some of the benefits of the change. As old operating procedures are forgotten, the new become the norm. |
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Term
1. Which stage of managing a change project involves coordinating and guiding team members to get the work done according to the plan and keeping resources and people focused on priorities? |
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Definition
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Term
2. What three things does a forcefield analysis ensure? |
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Definition
2. No areas have been overlooked. The forces to be taken advantage of are known. There’s time to develop other strategies if the analysis reveals areas not considered previously. |
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Term
1. Information about the change that must lead others to believe that the price for the status quo is significantly higher than the price of change is known as __________ __________. |
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Definition
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Term
2. What are the five stages of managing a change project? |
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Definition
2. Initiating, planning, executing, controlling, closing In most organizations, it is absolutely critical that top management be committed and understand the changes to be implemented. |
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Term
1. A workplace learning and performance professional is discussing the importance of involving employees in the change process. What is the reason for doing so? |
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Definition
A 1. Involving employees helps them to become committed to the change. |
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Term
2. List the steps of performing a needs analysis to define a need for change. |
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Definition
2. Conduct external and organizational scans. Collect data to identify business needs. Identify potential change initiatives. Collect data to identify performance, learning, and learner needs. Analyze the data. Deliver data analysis feedback. Design the change initiative. |
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Term
describe the A Sender/receiver model |
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Definition
Miscommunications, censored feedback, and poor listening can diminish a conversation or communication. A person may not hear what someone is saying even if he or she hears the words being spoken. Communication between two people goes through each person’s filters. The model shows how messages change as they pass through the filters (mindset, biases, and opinions) of the sender and receiver. |
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Term
1. A training professional is facilitating a meeting with key stakeholders. The meeting begins with the facilitator making the following presentation: “Good morning, uh, thanks for coming today. I am, uh, especially thankful for, uh, your participation today in, uh, our discussion.” The intelligibility issue exhibited in this situation can be characterized as __________ ___________. |
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Definition
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Term
2. What are the five levels of listening? |
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Definition
2. Passive listening Listening for knowledge Active listening Listening for clarification Empathetic listening. |
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Term
Why is eye contact a crucial factor in communication? |
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Definition
A Effective eye contact enhances credibility. Speakers who demonstrate better eye contact with their listeners usually strike these listeners as more competent and more in control. Old advice, such as looking over the tops of listeners’ heads or systematically glancing at parts of the crowd, is not effective eye contact. Furthermore, looking directly at only one part of the crowd—especially only those listeners who give reinforcing feedback—can cause the presenter to ignore the other parts of the crowd. |
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Term
1. Describe motivation theory. |
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Definition
A 1. Motivating employees to achieve their potential is one of the most difficult challenges facing any manager or supervisor. Motivation theory involves giving managers the background they need to understand what motivation is and how to tap this drive among their employees. |
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Term
2. What five characteristics does every job have that influences the motivation of employees? |
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Definition
2. Skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, feedback |
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Term
1. What two influences have a great effect on the motivation of employees? |
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Definition
A 1. Management and performance |
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Term
2. Name the five mistakes managers often make that affect motivation. |
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Definition
2. Misplacing ownership Misaligning incentives Saving recognition Playing favorites Misspeaking praise. |
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Term
1. What are the three basic, general management styles? |
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Definition
A 1. Dictatorship, anarchy, democracy |
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Term
2. What are the four personal social styles according to Harvey A. Robbins? |
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Definition
2. Analytical, amiable, drivers, expressive |
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Term
3. People with this social style are often perfectionists who deal in logic and details and tend to keep feelings to themselves. |
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Definition
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Term
The ability to accurately identify and understand a person’s own emotional reactions and those of others can be defined as __________ __________. |
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Definition
Emotional intelligence is the basis for personal qualities, such as realistic self-confidence, personal integrity, knowledge of personal strengths and weaknesses, resilience in times of change or adversity, self-motivation, perseverance, and the knack for getting along well with others. |
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Term
Complexity theory is mastered when what tasks are successfully completed? |
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Definition
A Organizations that master complexity theory succeed because they perform these tasks: • Know their identity. • Explore and exploit their environment. • Interact and co-evolve with other organizations. • Study a relationship among its component parts. |
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Term
1. What is the difference between synchronous and asynchronous e-learning? |
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Definition
1. Synchronous learning occurs with a live instructor and asynchronous does not (i.e., self-paced, self-directed instruction). |
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Term
2. A general term for describing any learning event that uses computers as the primary distribution method; the term typically refers to text-based, computer-delivered training. |
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Definition
CBT - Computer Based Training |
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Term
3. Anything delivered, enabled, or mediated by electronic technology for the explicit purpose of learning is called __________. |
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Definition
3. E-learningThe term e-learning includes online learning, WBT, and CBT. E-learning excludes instruction that might be classified as “distance learning” but is not delivered in an electronic |
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Term
To encourage engagement with the material, CBT must grab learners’ attention and hold it throughout the session. Program design should focus on what five elements to encourage learner engagement? |
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Definition
Entertainment, interaction, control, usability, and customizationWhen assessing the program’s terms of engagement, the designer should ask these questions: Does the program require the learner’s active involvement? Can the learner tell what to do on every page?Is the program relevant, flexible, and personal? |
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Term
A software program that provides just-in-time, on-demand information, guidance, examples, and step-by-step dialog boxes to improve job performance without the need for training or coaching by other people is an _________. |
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Definition
A EPSS (Electronic Performance Support System) |
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Term
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Definition
An EPSS is a comprehensive computer-based job aid. EPSS applications often include • databases of job-related information organized to facilitate rapid access and optimize clarity • calculators and wizards that simplify and automate procedures • decision-support modules that offer intelligent assistance with problem solving • embedded tutorials and simulations that provide instruction in work-related concepts and procedures. |
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Term
1. A collection of code containing instructions for a computer to perform a specific action is called __________. |
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Definition
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Term
2. A self-contained chunk of instructional material is a __________. |
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Definition
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Term
3. What is defined as a computer-based technology that gives learners a realistic, three-dimensional, interactive experience? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
A 1. A learning content management system (LCMS) packages content (courses and learning materials) for print, CD-ROM, or electronic publication. |
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Term
2. What are two examples of collaborative software? |
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Definition
2. Email, whiteboards, bulletin board systems, chat rooms, and online presentation tools. |
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Term
3. What does LMS stand for and what features does it include? |
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Definition
3. A learning management system (LMS) automates administering, tracking, and reporting of ILT (information and learning technologies) and online training events. |
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Term
1. Determining needs; defining the scope and budget; creating and sending the RFP; evaluating proposals and selecting a vendor; notifying the vendor and negotiating the contract; implementing the project; monitoring the schedule; and completing and evaluating the project are all steps in the __________ process. |
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Definition
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Term
2. Having defined and identified its needs, an organization uses an__________ to communicate its requirements to potential vendors and define how those requirements are measured. |
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Definition
2. RFP (request for proposal) |
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Term
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Definition
An RFP asks the vendor to explain its capabilities for supplying the needed services, at what cost, and at what level of quality. An RFP reflects the criteria the team has developed and notes ways to assess how each prospective supplier measures up in each area. |
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Term
1. What is a cost plus incentive fee? |
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Definition
A 1. When time is critical, a vendor or resource can get a bonus if a contract is completed ahead of schedule. |
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Term
2. What type of contract is described as requiring analysis and developmentand a negotiated percentage of the overall cost is identified as profit? |
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Definition
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Term
3. If a certain percentage of a contract’s fixed fee is based on employees’ successful performance on the job, this is called a __________ __________ contract. |
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Definition
3. Performance based The performance based approach works only when desired performance can be described and measured specifically |
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Term
1. The person in the organization responsible for all training projects and delivery is the __________ __________. |
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Definition
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Term
2. Self-study guides, job aids, instructor-led materials, technology-delivered training deliverables, and assessments are all examples of __________. |
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Definition
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Term
3. As part of the design process, after course designers develop a courseoutline that organizes topics and types of skills needed, they develop training __________ in the A-B-C-D format. |
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Definition
3. Objectives The A-B-C-D format defines each element of an objective, including audience, behavior, condition, and degree. |
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Term
1. A training director is developing a big-picture perspective of what types of courses and content the training organization offers. What is this director developing? |
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Definition
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Term
2. Workplace learning and performance professionals should link training not only to existing programs and systems, but also to current and future __________ __________. |
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Definition
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Term
3. The process of systematically organizing the future; a process in which managers and other professionals use past experience as a filter for future decisions is __________ __________. |
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Definition
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Term
1. Name the tasks involved in the formulation phase of strategic development. |
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Definition
A 1. Identify organizational values; develop mission, vision, and value statements |
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Term
2. Specific descriptions of what the workplace learning and performance professional or learning function has brought or will bring to the organization in terms of performance improvement, financial gain, why sharing this information is relevant, and what the learning function needs for the future are, are called __________ statements. |
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Definition
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Term
1. The organization’s financial condition, managerial abilities and attitudes, facilities, staffing size and quality, competitive position, image, and structure are all considered during an __________ __________ analysis. |
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Definition
A 1. Internal environmental |
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Term
2. Elements such as the organization’s economic condition, legal and political realities, social and cultural values, the state of technology, the availability of resources, and the organization’s competitive structure are all considered during an __________ ___________ analysis. |
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Definition
2. External environmental Developing a strategic plan includes creating a strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis, also known as an internal and external environmental analysis. This analysis helps workplace learning and performance professionals determine their strengths and weaknesses (internal) and their opportunities and threats (external). |
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Term
1. Name the tasks involved in the development phase of strategic development. |
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Definition
A 1. Conduct an analysis of strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT); establish strategic goals (two to three years to attain); develop strategies to attain those goals. |
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Term
2. How often should strategic planning occur? |
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Definition
2. Continually and on an as-needed basis |
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Term
3. Name the tasks involved in the implementation phase of strategic development. |
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Definition
3. Establish short-term objectives (six months to a year); create action plans to reach those objectives; allocate resources to work toward those objectives; motivate employees to reach those objectives. |
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Term
1. After identifying the training department’s values, developing the mission statement and vision, and conducting the SWOT analysis, the training manager should develop __________ __________ and objectives. |
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Definition
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Term
2. Name the tasks involved in the evaluation phase of strategic development. |
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Definition
2. Review strategies, measure performance, take corrective action |
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Term
3. In which phase of creating a strategic plan should a training professional conduct a SWOT analysis? |
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Definition
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Term
Comparing actual performance with ideal or expected outcomes and then trying to resolve any meaningful differences to keep their operations aligned with the organization’s plan is part of which function of management? |
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Definition
Controlling - Some means of control that offer valuable feedback include the budget, quality control programs, and the training manager’s own observations. Control information must be timely; if it’s not received in time to take corrective action, the control system is inadequate. |
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Term
What are the activities the training manager is responsible for in ensuring that the training department helps the organization achieve its goals? |
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Definition
• Providing vision, direction, values, and purpose to employees • Motivating and inspiring people to work toward organizational goals • Planning and budgeting appropriately to reach organizational goals • Supervising the operations and staffing of the training department • Aligning people with departmental and business goals • Controlling issues and solving problems • Assessing training needs • Acting as an internal consultant |
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Term
1. During which phase of strategic plan development does feedback and corrective action take place? |
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Definition
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Term
2. Which leadership function is concerned with setting goals and objectives, developing strategies, and establishing priorities? |
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Definition
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Term
3. Dividing work into jobs, assigning those jobs to people, delegating authority so that everyone can perform their jobs effectively, and creating an environment of cooperation and understanding are all part of which function of management? |
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Definition
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Term
1. A constant leadership task involving using all activities in the organization to give employees the resources and the means they need to accomplish goals is part of which function of management? |
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Definition
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Term
2. Leaders at all levels of the organization are responsible for making the right things happen. The purpose and the long-range goals help define what is right for a particular business. |
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Definition
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Term
3. Challenging the process, inspiring a shared vision, enabling others to act, modeling behavior, and encouraging organizational and individual outcomes are part of which function of management? |
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Definition
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Term
What identifies the minimum time schedule for completing all the tasks in a project with several tasks overlapping or depending on an earlier task? |
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Definition
A Critical paths Because tasks in the critical path take the most time, this path drives the project end date. Tasks on the critical path should receive special attention. For projects running behind schedule, project managers need to examine only critical path tasks to determine which tasks need more resources or to change sequencing to affect the project’s end date. |
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Term
1. A project manager has been assigned to a new project and has finishedcollecting information and is now developing several planning worksheets. She is most likely creating a __________ __________. |
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Definition
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Term
2. Which project management tool is used in planning and integrating the project and represents a graphical hierarchy of the project, deliverables, tasks, and subtasks? |
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Definition
2. WBS (work breakdown structure) |
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Term
3. During the project life cycle, ensuring that the project work and only the approved project work is completed is called __________. |
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Definition
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Term
What is PERT (program evaluation review technique)? |
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Definition
PERT is a diagramming technique that enables project managers to estimate a range of task durations by estimating the optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely durations for each task. |
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Term
The extent to which a job requires a worker to perform all the tasks necessaryto complete that job from the beginning to the end of the production process is called __________ __________. |
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Definition
A Task identity For example, a crafts worker who transforms a piece of wood into a custom-made piece of furniture has higher task identity than a worker who performs only one of the numerous operations required to assemble a television. |
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Term
1. The degree to which a job gives an employee the freedom and discretion to schedule different tasks and decide how to carry out those tasks is called __________. |
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Definition
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Term
2. The process of developing, motivating, deploying, and aligning people to increase business performance is called __________ __________. |
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Definition
2. Performance management - To aid in this process, performance management systems are computer-based systems that HR uses to understand which employees need to develop required skills and expertise. |
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Term
1. Performance management is primarily concerned with what processes? |
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Definition
A 1. Developing, motivating, deploying, and aligning people to increase business performance |
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Term
2. The degree to which a worker believes the job is meaningful because of its effects on people inside the organization (such as co-workers) or outside the organization (such as customers) is called __________ __________. |
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Definition
2. Task significance - For example, teachers who see the effect of their efforts in well-educated and well-adjusted students enjoy high task significance compared with a dishwasher who monotonously washes dishes as they come into the kitchen. |
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Term
1. Which environmental factor includes technology, new products, and changes in systems processes or policies? |
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Definition
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Term
2. The internal and external forces that direct an organization’s strategy, goals, business needs, and performance needs are called __________ __________. |
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Definition
2. Business drivers An example of an external business driver is government; regulation or deregulation forces changes in competition or the overall business environment. An example of an internal business driver is technology; new innovations in technology create opportunities or needs for changes in information storage and processing. |
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Term
1. Shortages in the number of employees or in the number of employees with a certain skill set, union demands, and employee needs to balance family and work relationships are all ___________ factors that influence an organization. |
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Definition
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Term
2. Contracts for full- or part-time employees and vendor agreements for services and raw materials are all __________ factors that influence an organization. |
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Definition
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Term
3. Economic changes, human resource and skill shortages, governmental decisions, public perception, and market or customer requirements are all __________ factors that influence an organization. |
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Definition
3. External - Examples of external factors include upturns or downturns in the economy, embargos or trade restrictions, and other economically-driven situations. |
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Term
1. A training director new to the company spends much of his first few weeks learning about the company’s history, mission, goals, strategy, tactics, vision, and plans. This information will help the new director understand what? |
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Definition
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Term
2. Technology; new products; shareholder or financial influence; and changes in systems, processes, or policies are all ___________ factors that influence an organization. |
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Definition
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Term
3. To help facilitate the flow of information in knowledge in an organization, __________ ___________ enable different groups in an organization to share documents and information, create lists of links in simple web pages, and discuss issues of mutual interest. |
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Definition
- Also known as knowledge exchange networks, knowledge exchanges are restricted to members within an organization or to designated community members, such as external project team members, vendors, and so forth.3. Knowledge exchanges |
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Term
1. Worker skills, corporate responsibilities and ethics, population shifts, immigration, migration, age, and gender are examples of which external environmental factor that may influence an organization? |
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Definition
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Term
2. An inventory of the political, economic, sociological, cultural, global, technological, and employment forces that influence the way an organization functions is an __________ ___________. |
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Definition
2. Environmental scan - The scan involves analyzing the current environment and the trends that may affect it and assessing customer needs and stakeholder expectations. |
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Term
1. An instructional designer needs to include information on current legislation regarding forklift safety in her training class. Who is the official source charged with providing specific safety standards? |
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Definition
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Term
2. In fair use of copyright law, purpose and character of the use means what? |
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Definition
2. Fair use refers to whether the use of material is commercial in nature or for nonprofit educational purposes. Fair use standards may apply to training materials as well. Trainers often make a single copy of a copyrighted material for personal use. Training managers should check with the copyright holder before making multiple copies of copyrighted works. |
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Term
1. At what point does selection for a training program become a potentiallegal problem? |
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Definition
A 1. A potential legal problem occurs whenever a measure used for a significant employment decision, such as selection for a training program, is discriminatory. |
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Term
2. What are the implications for a training manager when an industry requiresemployees to hold appropriate licenses and certifications? |
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Definition
2. Training managers may be responsible for offering courses for licensing and certification and maintaining a database that tracks all employees, their licensing status, and compliance with any ongoing training and licensing renewals. |
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Term
3. What two acts that include guidelines regarding union activity will affect training and development? |
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Definition
3. The National Labor Relations Act (NLRA) or Wagner Act and the Labor-Management Relations Act or Taft-Hartley Act. |
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Term
What are the considerations regarding securities and financial reporting laws for training managers? |
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Definition
A Training managers must ensure that employees in finance and accounting departments have the training needed to ensure that the organization is in compliance with how they prepare and publish financial statements. High profile securities and accounting scandals, such as Enron, sparked the passage of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 to protect investors from fraudulent accounting activities by improving the accuracy and reliability of corporate disclosures. |
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Term
1. What factors depend on whether a use is fair? |
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Definition
A 1. Copyright protects purpose and character of the use (use of material is commercial or for nonprofit educational purposes); nature of the copyrighted work; amount used in relation to the copyrighted work as a whole; effect on market potential for or value of the copyrighted work. |
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Term
2. What does copyright protect? |
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Definition
2. Copyright law protects the expression of an idea (but not the idea itself) in some tangible form (book, magazine, video, film, and so forth). An author has an idea for a book, but the premise is not documented anywhere. The author reads an article with a similar premise. Can the author claim copyright infringement? No. |
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Term
What does the ADA require of employers? |
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Definition
A The Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) requires that employers do not discriminate in any aspect of employment (application, selection, on-the-job training, advancement in wages and benefits, etc.) Employers must ensure that employees with disabilities have reasonable accommodations (auxiliary aids) such as interpreters, magnifying glasses to aid reading, and instructional materials with oversized lettering for those who are visually impaired. |
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Term
1. Using a __________ __________ to isolate the effects of e-learning provides the most compelling evidence for the impact of e-learning, but is not always feasible in a business environment. |
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Definition
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Term
2. Electronic technologies that deliver information and facilitate the development of skills and knowledge are __________. |
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Definition
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Term
1. List four things a coach does. |
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Definition
A1. Identifies performance gaps, wins commitment to learning, constructs applied practice, and drives continual application |
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Term
2. Define coaching and its primary role. |
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Definition
2. Coaching is the process of addressing the issues of a particular employee to help achieve organizational goals |
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Term
3. A top executive needs help with some processes and strategic decisions |that he has not encountered previously. Due to his level in the organization, he prefers to keep his need for coaching in this area confidential. What is his best solution to keep the coaching sessions confidential from internal resources? |
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Definition
3. Hire an external coach whose results are tied to a specific |
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Term
1. A workplace learning and performance (WLP) professional is supporting a client in a coaching role when she learns through conversations with the client that a future acquisition is being prepared by the client’s company. The WLP professional resists the urge to purchase stock in the company despite the fact that this information was divulged openly to the WLP professional in one of the many discussions with the client. This scenario is an example of a coach __________. |
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Definition
A1. Avoiding a conflict of interest |
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Term
2. When is coaching an appropriate solution? |
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Definition
2. Coaching is an appropriate intervention if the employee, for example, does not understand the appropriate expectations or priorities or how to correctly complete a task to performance standards. |
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Term
1. How is mentoring different from coaching? |
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Definition
A 1. Mentoring is a longer-term process, and mentors have no responsibility to participants for personal and professional development. |
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Term
2. What occurs when managers improve the performance of employees by getting them to take ownership for their performance choices and ultimately the outcomes of their performance? |
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Definition
2. Performance management |
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Term
What helps people evaluate their behaviors, discover and learn more productive behavior patterns, and is often part of a measurement outcome or employee evaluation? |
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Definition
Counseling helps people evaluate their behaviors and discover and learn more productive behavior patterns. Employee performance can fall short of expectations for a number of reasons that have nothing to do with the employee and more to do with the organization’s systems and procedures. A negative consequence, a missing resource, a lack of training, or a time constraint may prevent optimal performance. Counseling starts by identifying the problem but may require more time in the work setting to find out what is really happening. |
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Term
What are four characteristics of highly motivated clients? |
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Definition
A 1. Eager to succeed 2. Open to support 3. Interested in trying different things 4. Learning oriented |
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Term
1. In __________, the focus is on the fundamental change of thinking patterns and behaviors. |
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Definition
A 1. Double-loop learning |
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Term
2. In __________, people learn and use new skills for necessary but incremental change. |
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Definition
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Term
3. In __________, people make fundamental shifts about how they view themselves and willingly alter their beliefs and values about themselves and about the world (a transformational act). |
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Definition
3. Triple-loop learning Learning to create a project planning document is an example of single-loop learning. An example of double-loop learning is learning and practicing effective planning habits. Becoming an inspirational leader who creates and reinforces a culture of planning and execution is an example of triple-loop learning. |
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Term
1. According to the International Coaching Federation (ICF), what is the most important consideration when selecting a coach? |
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Definition
A 1. Finding someone the client can relate to |
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Term
2. For highly confidential and sensitive engagements, an __________ provides a degree of security that may not be easily felt with an __________. |
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Definition
2. External coach, internal coach |
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Term
3. For any coaching program to succeed, the coach must offer __________ and __________. |
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Definition
3. Objectivity, confidentiality |
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Term
List three pitfalls of coaching. |
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Definition
Agreeing with the client when another response would be more helpful, being judgmental or rigid, and going too fast or too slow for the client Coaches should beware of agreeing with clients simply because they get defensive or bothered when people do not share their points of view. This is a tricky situation because coaches want clients to be happy and coachable, but need to provide them with appropriate feedback to grow and develop receptivity. |
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Term
1. The International Coaching Federation (ICF) developed a set of ethical standards that all of its members must adhere to. The guidelines are divided into four parts. Name those four parts. |
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Definition
A 1. The philosophy of coaching, the definition of coaching, the standards of ethical conduct, and the pledge of ethics |
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Term
1. A client and her coach meet to begin working and, after an hour of discussion, the conversation becomes awkward and silent. The client and the coach meet several times later over the phone, but the conversations become shorter and less planned. It becomes apparent to the coach that the client has become disconnected and bored. What has likely happened to the relationship? |
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Definition
A 1. Poor chemistry existed between the client and the coach |
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Term
2. Which questioning technique seeks to develop critical thinking and creativity skills? |
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Definition
3. Identifying the problem and lack of achievement of a particular agreed-upon standard |
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Term
3. Describe the coach’s focus during the analysis stage of the coaching process. |
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Definition
3. Identifying the problem and lack of achievement of a particular |
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Term
1. A workplace learning and performance (WLP) professional is working with a client on his fear of success. It appears that the client is conflicted about his emotions around excelling. When working with the client, the theory that best describes this situation is the __________ theory. |
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Definition
A 1. Cognitive dissonance |
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Term
2. What type of feedback focuses on the future and is designed to help the client raise performance or prepare for the next level of effort? |
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Definition
3. Communication, client motivation, self-management, and technical skill |
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Term
3. What are the four most important skills needed to be a coach? |
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Definition
3. Communication, client motivation, self-management, |
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Term
1. According to the International Coaching Federation (ICF), what is the first step in the coaching process? |
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Definition
A 1. A personal interview to assess the client’s current opportunities and challenges, define the scope of the relationship, identify priorities for action, and establish specific outcomes |
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Term
2. What are the seven characteristics of great dialog? |
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Definition
2. Relevance, inquiry, freedom, connectedness, reception, empowerment, and play |
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Term
3. What asks for a short or one-word answer? |
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Definition
3. Closed-ended questions |
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Term
1. If the coach asks, “What would happen if…?” what type of question is she using? |
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Definition
A 1. Provocative questions |
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Term
2. What are some characteristics of good goals? |
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Definition
2. They are inspiring; actionable; meaningful; challenging, but not impossible; and neither too broad nor too specific. |
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Term
3. The effectiveness of coaching can be crippled if coaches and clients do not feel comfortable about __________. |
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Definition
3. Being open and candid with each other |
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Term
1. Effective coaches communicate and measure performance in precise, objective terms. What are the five criteria used to measure performance? |
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Definition
A 1. Speed (rate), quantity (number or amount), quality and accuracy (absence of errors), thoroughness (completeness), and timeliness (meets deadlines) |
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Term
2. What are the three parts of a problem-solving model? |
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Definition
2. Diagnosing the problem, generating alternative action or behavior, and identifying consequences for each action |
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Term
3. Name two theories of motivation that should guide coaching practices. |
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Definition
3. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs and McGregor’s theory X and theory Y of management |
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Term
1. List five technologies that can be used to connect with clients in coaching. |
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Definition
A 1. Phone, voice over Internet protocol (VoIP), online meeting programs, email, and goal-setting and project-management software |
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Term
2. The primary purpose of having an employee self-assess his or her performance is to build __________. |
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Definition
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Term
During a coaching session, the client exhibits conflicting attitudes toward diversity. The coach wants to use a technique that will challenge the client to define the client’s true attitudes. What coaching technique is most likely to accomplish this goal? |
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Definition
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Term
What is socratic questioning? |
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Definition
Using Socratic questions to generate inquiry improves the coach’s ability to remain objective by facilitating the client’s self-discovery. They help to expand a coach’s analysis of the situation and increase the number and the quality of possibilities considered. These questions also increase the energy of the dialog and improve the client’s learning. |
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Term
1. This type of knowledge refers to personal knowledge in one’s head—knowing how to do something based on experience. It includes judgment, insights, experience, know-how as well as personal beliefs and values. |
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Definition
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Term
2. This type of knowledge includes information that has been documented or can be shared with someone. |
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Definition
Explicit - For example, a trainer may not have conducted web-based training before, but based on what the trainer has read and heard from others, he or she may know the exact sequencing of steps to log in to the web session and conduct the training. |
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Term
1. Define knowledge management. |
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Definition
explicit and systematic management of intellectual capital and organizational gathering, organizing, retrieving, leveraging, and using intellectual capital for the purposes of improving organizations |
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Term
2. What is the key goal of knowledge management? |
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Definition
2. To effectively share knowledge throughout an organization for the benefit of the organization or the individual. |
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Term
1. Organizations capture and store data and information in a central or distributed electronic environment—often referred to as a __________ __________. |
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Definition
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Term
2. A group of people who share a common interest in an area of competence and are willing to share the experiences of their practice is called a ______________________. |
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Definition
2. Community of practice Communities of practice may be groups that meet formally, web boards where questions and answers are posted, and other types of collaboration tools, such as message and chat boards. For example, a group of scientists on a LAN may collaborate, share notes, and raise questions. |
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Term
What are the three key building blocks of knowledge management? |
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Definition
A Data – data that is raw and without context and can exist in any form, usable or not; for example, numbers on a spreadsheet. Information – data that has been given meaning; for example, an annual budget for a training department. Knowledge – information that when combined with understanding, enables understanding; for example, a manager analyzing a drop in training enrollments for specific classes may take action to identify issues and carry out strategies to change the trend. |
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Term
1. How is measurement used to improve best practices? |
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Definition
A 1. The goal of best practices is continuous improvement, and without measurement, there’s no benchmark to know whether processes and metrics are improving. |
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Term
2. Many types of learning content management systems use the term __________ __________ to define the pieces of content that may be used to build a course. |
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Definition
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Term
3. Describe how knowledge can be used as a process. |
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Definition
3. Knowledge can be used to assess, change, and improve human skills and behavior. Ultimately, the focus is to make knowledge available when it’s needed to change human behavior. |
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Term
1. A workplace learning and performance (WLP) professional is developing an effective education plan that includes classroom training, on-the-job training, shadowing, mentoring, and interacting with co-workers. Her goal is to bring best practices to the employees with a focus on __________. |
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Definition
A 1. Continuous improvement |
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Term
2. How people see things based on what type of information they were given is called __________. |
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Definition
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Term
What is an example of personification? |
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Definition
when looking at best-of-breed information for excellent customer service between Lands’ End and Dell, WLP professionals need to recognize that the services these two customer service organizations provide are dissimilar. For that reason, Lands’ End may look at the best practices Dell’s customer service organization is using and apply it through a filter that could work with Lands Ends’ environment, systems, and processes. |
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Term
Reducing information into codified, categorized, reusable content, __________ __________ enables organizations to create short reference materials containing relevant information. |
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Definition
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Term
What is information chunking |
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Definition
This type of information is often seen in technical reports as text boxes or table information. Information chunking should be logical and convenient information documented in an easy-to-use format. By creating these snippets, information is shared quickly and with clarity. |
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Term
1. A training manager is trying to conduct a knowledge survey to determine where the origin of a vital training exercise is located. As she works with one of the founding partners, she discovers some information that refers her to several persons and other documents detailing vital pieces of information that make up this knowledge base. Based on the information above, you can best characterize this situation to be an example of_______________ sampling. |
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Definition
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Term
2. How did the Internet and technological advances facilitate knowledge management? |
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Definition
2. Technology enabled organizations to begin capturing internal documents, best practices, and information to support on-thejob knowledge needs. |
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Term
1. What are knowledge surveys? |
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Definition
A 1. When compiling a knowledge map, most of the knowledge already exists with employees in the organization. The challenge is in gathering and organizing information. Organizations often use surveys or knowledge audits to synthesize data. Knowledge surveys collect the type of information employees have as well as the type of information they need to do their jobs. |
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Term
2. A process that connects information, education, expertise, and practical application of people in the organization for the purposes of sharing and access is called __________ __________. |
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Definition
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Term
1. To clarify the type of information employees need, highlight any barriers to sharing organizational knowledge, identify repositories of information and their location, and focus on knowledge processes and workflow, organizations can conduct a __________ __________. |
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Definition
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Term
2. Name three tasks involved with knowledge mapping. |
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Definition
2. Taking an inventory of what people in the organization have documented, surveying what information has been entered into information systems, and identifying sources of information employees use that come from external resources, such as websites. |
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Term
1. What is the purpose of business process analysis? |
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Definition
A 1. Business process analysis is a structured method of documenting business rules and functions to uncover hidden inefficiencies that highlight strengths that could be streamlined or leveraged to increase productivity. |
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Term
2. What is the purpose of a process map? |
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Definition
2. A process map is a visual tool used to systematically describe actions and behaviors in a sequential flow and presents a clear, visual representation of all tasks and steps to carry out a particular process. |
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Term
1. What are four business process analysis tools and techniques related to Six-Sigma? |
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Definition
A 1. Six Sigma DMAIC Methodology, Six Sigma IPO Model, flowchart diagramming, and evaluation models. |
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Term
2. What does DMAIC stand for? |
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Definition
2. Define, measure, analyze, improve, control Six Sigma is a business-driven approach to improvement and increased customer satisfaction that Motorola originated in the mid-1980s. It’s often used at an operational level to help cut costs, reduce errors or defects, improve processes, and reduce business cycle times. At the strategic or transformative level, the goal of Six Sigma is to align an organization to its marketplace and deliver real improvements and dollars to the bottom line. Six Sigma’s primary principle seeks to improve customer satisfaction by reducing defects. |
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Term
What is the purpose of flowchart diagramming? |
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Definition
A Flowchart diagramming helps identify process boundaries (where processes begin and end), to identify duplication of effort, bottlenecks, unnecessary tasks, and where processes can be improved or simplified. A team is organized to help management understand what actually occurs in real life when manufacturing the widgets—not what is supposed to happen. During these analysis discussions, team members articulate what needs to get done at each step in the process, the responsibilities of each person in the process, and any issues or breakdowns in the system. |
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Term
1. A trainer has accessed her company’s training site to make content additions and tweak user information. She has been enabled to do so by accessing a __________ __________. |
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Definition
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Term
2. A category of technology that offers products for creating, storing, and managing corporate knowledge is called a __________ __________. |
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Definition
2. Knowledge repository Ideally, users know what information is available in repositories. File systems and document management products fit into this category, as do products with a means of converting information (such as text-scanning tools). |
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Term
1. A training manager is attempting to provide a tool that will allow employees to readily access small chunks of learning quickly and as frequently as needed. Which management system will best meet the training manager’s needs? |
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Definition
A 1. LCMS (Learning Content Management System) |
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Term
2. Email, computer networks, whiteboards, bulletin board systems, chat rooms, and online presentation tools, that play an important role in the expansion of e-learning and in collaborating on projects, sharing information, and communicating are all examples of what? |
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Definition
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Term
1. A workplace learning and performance (WLP) professional is beginning work on a Six Sigma project and needs to access content specific to this topic. She enters her company’s knowledge management intranet site and subscribes to several services that can continue to keep her updated on the topic. Which portal feature has she just benefited from? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
2. Web portals are sites on the World Wide Web that typically provide personalized capabilities to their visitors. They are designed to use distributed applications, different numbers and types of middleware (the software layer between the operating system and applications), and hardware to provide services from a number of different sources. |
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Term
1. A description or design specification for how information should be treated and organized is called __________ __________. (In web design, the term describes organizing online content into categories and creating an interface for displaying those categories.) |
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Definition
A 1. Information architecture |
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Term
2. A _________ is an HTML tag identifying the contents of information on a website or in a knowledge base. |
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Definition
2. Metatag Information commonly found in a metatag includes copyright information, keywords for search engines, and page formatting descriptions. For example, a training manager might pull information from the knowledge management system that describes copyright information and keywords for search engines. |
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Term
1. A training manager is interested in extracting specific details from the database. What is the format that best describes the solution she will need to use? |
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Definition
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Term
2. Describe a database management system (DBMS). |
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Definition
2. A database management system (DBMS) is a collection of programs enabling the storage of information in a database. The primary goal of a DBMS is to provide a storage mechanism that can support efficient storage and retrieval of large amounts of data. Employees search for and access DBMS data to read information or, depending on their user permissions, modify and extract information. |
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Term
1. Generated from relational databases and designed to optimize analytical processing, __________ databases are frequently used for data warehousing and online analytical processing (OLAP) needs. |
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Definition
A 1. Multidimensional database (MDB) |
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Term
2. Systems that store data in the form of tables linked by a unique identifier, where relationships require few assumptions as to how data is linked and related are called what? |
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Definition
2. Relational database management systems (RDBMS) Even though data is stored in many different tables, relational databases make it easy to work with individual records for updating. When users query the database, database information can be viewed in many different ways. |
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Term
1. An organizational process of developing and maintaining systems that helps in establishing a system project plan and lists the processes and subprocesses required to develop a system is called what? |
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Definition
A 1. System development life cycle |
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Term
2. Which systems implementation phase requires converting the blueprint of the system into computer programming language? |
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Definition
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Term
3. After action reviews were created by what organization? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the purpose of an After Action Review (AAR)? |
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Definition
An AAR is an effective, structured way to get people to capture learning from their experiences. Analog devices provided team members with a one-page document to summarize what happened during a particular process. Other team members later review the document to identify what was learned and how that knowledge can be used to improve processes, products, and performance. These one-pagers are then compiled and used during a sixweek review of all product development projects. Team learning is gathered and used to modify and improve processes. |
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Term
A workplace learning and performance (WLP) professional is reviewing numbers of custom development courses for his company’s new suite of software products. As he reviews the historical numbers, he notices a trend of increasing need for custom development. In addition to this growth, he also notices lag times for final delivery of custom courses to the client. The two trends are examined and a lack of professional resources to cover this emerging need is identified. The example can be best characterized as which stage in the workforce planning process? |
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Definition
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Term
1. What is the purpose of strategic planning? |
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Definition
A1. To systematically organize the future of an organization |
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Term
2. What is the purpose of workforce planning? |
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Definition
To improve performance by developing human expertise through organizational development and training |
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Term
What is the difference between workforce planning and strategic planning? |
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Definition
Workforce planning bridges the performance gaps of the employees, whereas strategic planning is a systematic approach of an organization. In the previous year, the G’Nites Stay Hotels reservation division received 632,000 calls, booking 78 percent of them. Through strategic planning, senior management hopes to surpass these numbers by reducing the average call time for each representative. The workforce plan is to offer further training for reservation agents to help them better assist callers |
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Term
1. A human resource manager is considering putting together a program to develop the high-potential employees within her company. She also wants to begin to match these people with prospective roles within the company as needed. What type of planning is being described in this example? |
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Definition
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Term
2. A human resource manager facilitates a panel of managers to select potential employees to fill roles within the organization in the future. This facilitation process can best be described as __________. |
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Definition
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Term
3. A narrow and temporary approach to filling a position is also known as __________. |
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Definition
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1. A human resource professional has decided to offer a role to an employee for less money and less status. This type of approach to job movement can best be characterized as __________. |
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Definition
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2. List four phases of succession planning. |
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Definition
2. Establish the scope; create the plan; implement the plan; and monitor, evaluate, and revise |
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3. In what phase of succession planning does identifying external factors take place? |
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Definition
3. Phase 1: Establishing the scope |
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1. List four tasks that are typical in the job analysis process. |
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Definition
A 1. Creating new-hire training, developing behavior-based interview questions, writing performance objectives, and helping employees prepare for the next job level |
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2. Describe task analysis. |
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2. A task analysis examines a single task within a job and breaks it down into the actual steps of performance. |
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Which analysis method is best used for processes with short-cycle jobs in production due to the time-consuming nature of this method? |
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What is the observation approach in career planning & talent mgmt? |
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Definition
This approach involves sitting with the job performer and observing or recording all tasks as they are completed. Observation provides a realistic view of daily activities. It can be time consuming because job performers rarely perform every task in their job description in the span of one day. Also, the presence of an observer can sometimes skew behavior. The benefit of this method is that the analyst will have firsthand knowledge of the tasks performed and can ask questions along the way. |
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1. List five job analysis methods. |
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Definition
A 1. Interview, survey or questionnaire, observation, focus group, and work diary or log |
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2. An instructional designer and a client are reviewing the development strategy for a new training program. The client has requested that the training be thorough, but also be developed quickly. The instructional designer is outlining the options and discusses a task analysis. Based on your knowledge of task analysis, what is one disadvantage that would prevent a task analysis from being successful in this situation? |
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Definition
2. Collecting data can be time consuming. and observing or recording all tasks as they are completed. Observation provides a realistic view of daily activities. It can be time consuming because job performers rarely perform every task in their job description in the span of one day. Also, the presence of an observer can sometimes skew behavior. The benefit of this method is that the analyst will have firsthand knowledge of the tasks performed and can ask questions along the way. |
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1. A workplace learning and performance (WLP) professional is working with stakeholders to examine how existing work is being performed in a particular role. They also discuss the work desired in the role. This type of analysis can best be described as __________. |
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Definition
A 1. Performance gap analysis |
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2. What three competency elements constitute most job positions? |
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Definition
2. Managerial or administrative, supervisory, and functional skills Although managerial or administrative, supervisory, and functional skills elements overlap, practitioners use these to guide skills assessment and determine qualifications for a particular job. |
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1. A workplace learning and performance (WLP) professional is utilizing a combination of theories on career development that she is incorporating into her actual situation. The WLP professional is working to ensure the right balance of reality and theory. Based on your knowledge of career development, this strategy can best be characterized as __________. |
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Definition
A 1. Balance between personal assessment and the market |
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2. What is the traditional approach to career decision making? Although the approach is often criticized, it is widely used throughout the industry. |
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Definition
2. Trait-and-factor counseling |
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3. Describe Ginzberg’s theory. |
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Definition
3. Starting at the age of 18, people move from career exploration to a series of events including educational specialization toward a specific career path and a final commitment to a career. |
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1. What are the five stages in D.E. Super’s developmental framework? |
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Definition
A 1. Growth, exploratory, establishment, maintenance, and decline |
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2. What theory breaks occupations down into eight groups of service and six decision levels and is the basis for a number of tests to help determine best career choice based on interests? |
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Definition
2. Roe’s theory of occupation |
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3. What is a tool to help predict career success, choice, and behavior by trying to understand what motivates individuals and the internal conflicts that exist in all human beings? |
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Definition
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1. List the seven steps in Krumboltz’s DECIDES model. |
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Definition
A 1. Define the problem, establish an action plan, clarify values, identify alternatives, discover probable outcomes, eliminate alternatives systematically, and start action |
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2. A workplace learning and performance (WLP) professional is discussing a theory with a coworker about how people develop. She suggests that people make career choices based on their level of comfort or knowledge. This theory is similar to which approach? |
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Definition
2. The career anchors theory |
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3. A manager is assessing the population of his workforce in terms of generations. He has characterized a segment of his population to be “self-reliant and technically savvy.” Based on your knowledge of the generation differences, this segment likely comprises which generation? |
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Definition
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1. The __________ is one component of a succession planning system, building on the identification of successors and addressing the assessment of employee mobility to various positions. |
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Definition
A 1. Human resource audit |
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2. The primary reason for 360° feedback assessments is to __________. |
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Definition
2. Aid in the employee’s career planning |
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3. Two types of personality inventory instruments are the __________ and the __________. |
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Definition
3. Myer-Briggs type indicator, DiSC personality profile |
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List three conditions under which multi-rater feedback may be warranted. |
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Definition
A 1. Manager judgments or experience levels are weak. 2. There is a shortage of identified talent. 3. The organizational culture supports structured programs. |
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1. A human resource manager is documenting the paths employees need to follow in order to achieve various positions in the organization. This type of tool or process is best described as __________. |
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Definition
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2. A human resource manager is attempting to identify the developmental needs of future leaders at various levels within the organization. What makes the most sense on how she should go about accomplishing this task? |
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Definition
2. Leadership assessments |
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3. The primary issue facing web-based career counselors is __________. |
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Definition
3. Establishing counselor-client relationships |
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Term
1. A career counselor is trying to help a client find a career that aligns to the client’s values. Which type of test can be administered to assist the career counselor? |
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Definition
A 1. Strong-Campbell test |
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2. A career counselor is assisting a client who has worked 12 years as an education consultant and is now attempting to transition into the technology field. What career development model is being demonstrated here? |
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Definition
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Term
Specific principles, objectives, and program components guide strategic management development. List three process principles that remain constant across organizations. |
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Definition
A 1. Managers are responsible for their own development. 2. Executives are responsible for the development of their subordinates. 3. The organization is responsible for providing opportunities for the growth of all managers. |
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1. A trainer notices in her workshop that one of her participants is constantly delving deeply into the details of the topics. Often, the participant is unintentionally taking the topic off course. Based on Houle’s theory on motivation, what learner type best describes this person? |
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2. What is the most feasible way to ensure that training materials are appropriate for different countries or cultures? |
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Definition
2. To design training materials and other software applications with multilingual and multicultural participants in mind from the start |
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3. Proxemics refers to __________. |
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Definition
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1. A German trainer who speaks German and English experiences difficulty when delivering a course in the United States. As he is training, he notices that some of the material is not coming across with the same impact as it does when he trains it in Germany. What is a probable reason for this situation given your knowledge of diversity, training transfer, and intercultural languages? |
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2. List five approaches to facilitate inclusion. |
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Definition
2. Awareness, modeling, targeted interventions, desensitization, and training To help facilitate inclusion of employees within the organization while minimizing differences, many organizations celebrate differences to help build awareness of different cultures and groups. Organizations also may emphasize that differences combine to create unique opportunities, using the-whole-isworth- more-than-the-sum-of-its-parts rationale. |
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1. Human capital is an important principle for any human resource manager to consider because __________. |
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Definition
A 1. It can have an effect on the accountability within levels and employees in the organization |
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2. What results from a comparison of individual strengths and weaknesses on the current job and individual potential for advancement to key positions in the future? |
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Definition
2. Individual development plans (IDPs) |
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3. What is an excellent way to gain invaluable knowledge about a particular career field or industry? |
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Definition
3. Informational interviews |
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1. List two types of job rotation. |
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Definition
A 1. Cross-functional job rotations and cross-country job rotations |
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2. A workplace learning and performance (WLP) professional is reviewing content delivery methods for her 1,700 employees training in Six Sigma. The use of various available learning methods can best be described as __________. |
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Definition
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