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Definitions and Abbreviations |
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Accident, Incident and Statistics |
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General Maintenance Rules |
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Pilot Licensing and Ratings |
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Medical Standards and Certification |
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Designation and Classification of Airspace |
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General Operating and Flight Rules |
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Helicopters and Small Aeroplanes |
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Definition
Contain written material essential to flight safety that needs to be promulgated with out delay |
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Advise and Remind users of changes that affect their operations. Notified 28 days before. IE Runway being added. |
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UTC. 10 figure group compromising of the year, month, date, hours and minutes. |
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Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air, otherwise than by reactions on the air against the surface of the earth |
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A power driven heavier than air aircraft deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on the surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight |
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A manual associated with the certificate of airworthiness, containing limitations within which the aircraft may be considered airworthy, and instructions and information necessary to the flight crew members for the safe operation of the aircraft. |
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A certificate given to an aircraft in its country of origin after it has been designed, built and tested. |
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Type Acceptance Certificate |
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Definition
A foreign type certificate equivalent that's been granted in New Zealand |
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Airworthiness Certificate Categories |
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Definition
Standard, Restricted, Special (Experimental certificate, special flight permit) |
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Definition
Aircraft must be inspected once every 12 months or every 100 hours and must contain radio(s), altimeter systems, transponder(s) and ELT(s). Instruments or equipment that are discovered to not be working must be placed in the Aircraft's technical log. |
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How often must essential systems be tested? |
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Definition
Altimeter System and Transponders every 24 months.ELT's every 12 months. Radio tests are mandatory every 24 months only for aircraft operating under IFR |
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Technical Log must contain |
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Definition
Date at which next Maintenance is due, daily hours flown, daily cycles used, any defects found by the pilot, signature of maintenance engineer, list of deferred rectifications, hours until next maintenance is due. |
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Definition
A signed statement by the aircraft's maintenance engineer certifying that required maintenance has been carried out. A LAME certifies in the tech log and aircraft logbook that the has been carried out according to current CAA Rules. |
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Definition
Licensed Aircraft Maintenance Engineer |
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Definition
Pilots may maintain the aircraft as long as they do not alter the aircraft's aero-dynamical design in anyway and do not take it apart in anyway. |
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Definition
A DFR must be completed for any any aircraft operation. |
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Definition
A current Airworthiness certificate, The aircraft flight manual, Form 2173 (Weight and balance Data) and Form 2129 (Radio Stations), The tech log. |
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Carriage of Cargo and Baggage |
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Definition
Cargo must be stowed during take off and landing in such a way that it will not hinder evacuation in an event of a crash. Cargo may be stowed on a seat in a cargo rack (bin) or in a compartment and must be secured so it cannot move. The aircraft cannot be overloaded and must operate with in its limits. |
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Instruments and Equipment |
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Definition
Any marking must be placed near instruments |
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Night VFR Minimum requirements |
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Definition
A torch for each crew member (red) Instrument illumination, position and anti-collision lights, turn & slip indicator |
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Definition
A two way radio for all VFR aircraft in controller airspace and over water for more than 30 minutes. Approved radio equipment is still required for aircraft outside controlled airspace |
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Definition
The amount of required emergency equipment increases as the number of passengers on board also increases. |
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Definition
The only time you're allowed to fly with out an ELT is when flying to get one fixed or fitted to your aircraft. You may not travel with passengers. |
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Definition
Test in controlled area under shielded conditions. Restrict to 3 audio sweeps. Only test with in first 5 minutes of an hour. Never test while airborne. |
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Must be carried if flying above 13000 feet or when flying between 10,000 - 13,000 feet for more than 30 minutes for 10% of passengers and all crew. Between 13,000 and 25,000 all passengers and crew must have oxygen as required. |
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Definition
If fuel spills on a compact surface, fuelling must cease and immediate action taken to cover the spill with sand, sawdust, foam or similar materials. The aircraft must be moved away. |
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Definition
A flight that extends more tghan 25 nautical miles in a straight line distance from the centre of the aerodrome of departure |
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The hours between the beginning of Morning Civil Twilight and the end of evening civil twilight. |
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Definition
From the centre of the sun being 6 degrees below the horizon. |
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Chock to Chock. The time from the moment the plane starts moving to the moment it stops moving. |
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The time between evening civil twilight and morning civil twilight |
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Definition
Pilot in Command. The pilot responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft. |
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An authorisation entered on or associated with a licence or certificate and forming part of it, stating special conditions, privileges or limitations relating to the licence or certificate. |
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Aircraft Type Rating Aeroatic rating Instrument rating Flight Instructor Rating Airline, GA and Transitional Flight examiner rating Glider Tow rating Parachute Drop rating Pilot chemical rating Agricultural Rating Basic Gas Turbine Rating |
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Definition
Must Complete: Ground Course, Flight Training course, Demonstrate competency Renewal every 24 months 3000' AGL w/ PAX 1500' AGL w/o PAX less than 1500' AGL w/o PAX + authorisation from aviation recreational event |
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Must Complete: 100 hours as PIC, Course completion, Demonstrate competency Renewal: 12 months, 6 glider tows, demonstrate competency. |
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Must Complete: PPL, 200hours flight time+ 100 hours as PIC in aircraft used for dropping, Course completion, show competency Renewal: 12 months, 6 parachute drop flights, competency. |
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Every 6 months over 40 12 months under 40 |
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Definition
60 months if less than 40 24 months if more than 40 |
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48 months below 40 24 months above 40 |
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Definition
Must be 16, Class 2 Medical, Ability in English, Must be competent (A or B Cat) Dual instruction with the last 5 hours of flight, flown within the last 30 days. Cross country must be A or B cat |
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Definition
Must be 17. Class 2 Medical. 50 hours with solo, dual, instrument and Cross country. Night experience (for night flying) Passed Exams (Air Law, Navigation, Flight Planning, Met Aircraft Tech, Human Factors, FRTO). Speaks English,. Shows competency in general and emergency situations. Can't get paid. May carry Parachutists and Tow gliders as long as they aren't getting paid. |
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Definition
Must meet Class 1 or 2 Medical. Must do 3 take offs and landing in last 90 days to carry passengers. Completed Biennial flight review within the past 2 years |
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Definition
Must be happy Aircraft is safe to fly (weight and balance. Must check all documents are on board. Must record any defects. |
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Definition
Must check for Current Air worthiness certificate, must hold PPL and Type rating for that aircraft. Responsible for the safe operation of the aircraft and well being of passengers. May make deviation of the rules if there is an emergency. Any deviations must be filed to CAA. PIC has authority to refuse to carry people under the influence of alcohol or drugs if they endanger the aircraft or people. Must be familiar with the Aircraft Flight Manual, operating limitations and emergency procedures and equipment. |
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Must be familiar with Met events, fuel requirements, alternatives available, known of likely traffic delays, status of communication systems, take off and landing data, emergency procedures |
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Persons other than Pilots may taxi aircraft's as long as they are competent, able to use radio and know the aerodrome. For Flight instructions aircraft must be fitted with dual controls. No passengers may tamper with controls or navigation equipment. |
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PIC must brief passengers on conditions of smoking, location of exits and equipment, emergency procedures, use of portable electronics, requirement to comply with lighted signs. |
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When to not Carry passengers |
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Definition
Practice force landings, low flying, flight check following maintenance, tow operation with objects other than gliders, aerobatic flight unless PIC holds a rating, display flying at an event. |
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Definition
Must wear identity cards when entering and remaining in security areas. Non-airline pilots are not normally issued with ID cards so for a pilot to enter a security area they must have their Licence on them at all times. |
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Definition
Student Pilots and licence holders must maintain an up to date logbook containing their name, ratings, certifications, authorisations, tests, competency checks ect. including the details of the person conducting tests. Pilots must record Aircraft registration, flight time and if the flight was PIC or dual. Entries must be seperate and entered in pen. All columns must be added up before given to an examiner. Entries must be made with 7 days or 14 days for international airlines with a 48 hour period if the logbook is not in the same location as the pilot. |
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For PPL holders flight costs must be shared equally between the crew and passengers on-board. Flight cannot be advertised and pilots cannot be rewarded in any way. |
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Definition
Any area of land or water intended or designed to be used either wholly or partly for the landing, departure and surface movement of aircraft.; and includes any buildings, installations and equipment on or adjacent to any such area used in conjunction with the aerodrome or its administration. |
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A rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take off of aircraft. |
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A defined area symmetrically including the runway (and stop way if provided) |
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A defined path on a land aerodrome established for the taxiing of aircraft and intended to provide a link between one part of the aerodrome and another |
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Area on a land aerodrome intended to accommodate aircraft for the purpose of loading or unloading passengers or cargo, refuelling, parking and maintenance. |
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The part of an aerdrome to e used for take off and landing of all aircraft and for the surface movement of aircraft associated with take off and landing. Does not include apron (Runways and Taxiways) |
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the part of an aerodrome to be used for take off, landing and taxiing of aircraft consisting of the manoeuvring area and aprons. |
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Meet the minimum requirement of design and safety and provide the required level of rescue and fire fighting and comply with many other requirements. Both private and public aerodromes can be certified. Normally an aerodrome has to be certified before air operations in aircraft with seating capacity of more than 30 people can be used. |
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Non-certified Private aerodromes |
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Definition
Privatly owned and operated aerodromes can only be used in subject to any condition specified by the owner of the aerodrome. Non-certified aerodrome are labelled 'NON-CERTIFIED' on charts. |
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Definition
All traffic in the manoeuvring zone of an aerodrome and all the aircraft flying in the vicinity of the aerodrome |
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Aerodrome Circuit Traffic |
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Definition
The pattern flown by aircraft operating in the vicinity of an aerodrome |
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Definition
The standard circuit direction is left. Unless authorised by ATC or right hand circuits are prescribed by part 93. Upwind, Corss-wind, Downwind, base, final. |
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Join by going directly into the circuit or by doing a standard overheard rejoin. The pilot must give way to planes already in the circuit |
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Advice of Intended Movement |
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Definition
Pilots most on all occasions notify the ATS unit of the nature of their intended movement before taxiing onto the manoeuvring area. This information includes the People on Board |
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Automatic Terminal Information Service, Aerodrome Weather Information broadcast |
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At busy aerodromes ATC sets up an Aerodrome Control Service. Pilots are to advice ATC of their intentions, maintain 2 way communication and obtain clearance before |
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An aircraft will not be cleared for take off until all preceding landing aircraft are clear of the runway or a preceding aircraft taking off has crossed the upwind end of the runway or has commenced a turn. |
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Definition
In some situation ATC can clear a second aircraft for take off prior to preceding aircraft crossing or vacating the runway. It is a condition that only the departing aircraft can be given. |
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Definition
When departing instruction must be read back unless the departure path is a recognised procedure which was originally requested by the pilot. |
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ATC can use a qualified clearance, this is used when it is obvious the previous aircraft on the runway will be clear before you reach the threshold. Qaulified clearence can also be given to departing aircraft. "GO-Around" is used when there is an unsafe situation on the runway. |
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Parallel Runway operations |
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Definition
Visibility must be more than 5km, both aircraft are on the same frequency with aerodrome control, only during the day. |
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Red: Stop Green: Cleared for take off Green Flash: Cleared to Taxi Red Flash: Taxi clear of landing area White Flash: Return to starting point Red & Green: Danger- be on alert |
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Red: Give way and continue circling Green: Cleared to land Green Flash: Return for landing Red Flash: Aerodrome unsafe, do not land White Flash: Land and proceed to apron Red & Green: Danger- be on alert |
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Definition
In New Zealand there is only C, D and G class airspace. Class C and D are controlled and G is uncontrolled. |
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Definition
Clearance needed Day and night, VFR and SVFR flights are separated from IFR flights, SVFR and SVFR are seperated from each otherwhen visibility is less than 5km, VFR are provided with traffic information and traffic avoidance advice given on request. |
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Definition
Clearance required day and night, SVFR flight separated from IFR, SVFR separated from each other if vis is less than 5km, IFR and VFR provided with traffic information both say and night. VFR and IFR pilots can request traffic avoidance advice |
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Definition
No clearance required, Flights are not separated, information on traffic is as requested. |
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CTR's are from ground level up, this area has the highest traffic density of an aerodrome. They can be Class C or D air space so clearance is required. |
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CTA's have an upper and lower limit. above ground level. Lower limit generally 500' below flightpath of IFR aircraft on a particular route. They can be Class C or D air space so clearance is required. |
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Definition
Are cut out of controlled airspace for VFR aircraft to travel through with out having to request clearance. Only open during the day. At night you must have clearance. |
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GAA's are used for VFR training in both fixed wing and gliders, they are only open during daylight hours and are Class G airspace when active. Transponder must be set to 1400. 3 types: Open during day, Active when approved by ATC, Active when ATC is notified. |
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