Which functional area is responsible for the overall operation and maintenance of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?

a. Squadron Aviation Resource Management (SARM).
b. Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM).
c. Standardization and Evaluation (StanEval) .
d. Current Operations.

Which functional area is responsible for planning and scheduling all training sorties as well
as real-world contingency missions and mobility operations?
a. Squadron Aviation Resource Management (SARM).
b. Current operations.
c. Aircrew training.
d. Aircrew scheduling.

Evaluating work methods and procedures to achieve the most economical use of resources is
one of the tasks of

a. a craftsman.
b. an apprentice.
c. a journeyman.
d. a superintendent.

Who is responsible for evaluating manning requirements, vacancies, and ensuring personnel
are trained and given equal opportunity to work across functional areas to prevent job stagnation?
a. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
b. Major command functional manager (MFM).
c. Wing functional manager (WFM).
d. Chief, Host Aviation Resource Manager (CHARM).

Which part of the career field education and training plan (CFETP) would you find the
specialty training standard that lists the most common 1C0X2 tasks, knowledge, and technical
references?
a. Part I Section A.
b. Part I Section B.
c. Part II Section A.
d. Part II Section B.

Supervisors must make sure that an AF Form 623, On-the-Job Training Record is maintained
for all Airmen in the grades of
a. Airman basic (AB) through senior Airman (SrA) ONLY.
b. AB through technical sergeant (TSgt) ONLY.
c. AB through chief master sergeant (CMSgt).
d. AB through TSgt, and senior noncommissioned officers (SNCO) in retraining status.

The purpose of the specialty training requirement team is to
a. conduct an occupational survey and make changes to the career field education and training plan
(CFETP).
b. establish the most effective mix of formal and on-the-job training for each skill level.
c. establish training requirements for all personnel involved in course development.
d. enhance the communication link between functional managers and course developers.

Which forum is used to create or revise the specialty training standard (STS) and to set
responsibilities for providing the necessary training?
a. Aviation Resource Management System advisory group (AAG).
b. Aviation Resource Management (ARM) office.
c. Aviation Resource Management System working group (AWG).
d. Specialty training requirement team.

The specialty training standard (STS) is divided into how many columns?
a. Two.
b. Three.
c. Four.
d. Five.

All entries to the specialty training standard (STS) Column 3 must be done in pencil to
a. easily identify open and closed items.
b. make it a binding contract.
c. make it a living document.
d. easily erase mistakes.

Before a trainee is recommended for the next skill level, the trainee must be fully trained on
all
a. tasks to include mobility and additional duty.
b. duty positions and core tasks.
c. duty position tasks only.
d. core tasks only.

The AF IMT 623a, On-the-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet is used to document
each of the following except
a. course and task progression.
b. training start and completion dates.
c. task certification and recertification.
d. trainee’s strengths, weaknesses, and attitude.

Within how many days of assignment must a supervisor conduct an initial evaluation of the
trainee’s qualifications?
a. 30 (active duty)/90 (Air Reserve Component [ARC] members).
b. 60 (active duty)/120 (ARC members).
c. 45 (active duty)/90 (ARC members).
d. 90 (active duty)/120 (ARC members).

The purpose of the graduate assessment survey is to
a. gather feedback on Air Force resident training graduates.
b. determine the quality of recent basic military training graduates.
c. ensure proper training techniques are being utilized at the unit level.
d. provide information to supervisors on the quality of training provided by the career
development course

One way to validate and assess a trainee’s knowledge of the task is by conducting a
a. task evaluation.
b. task review exercise.
c. staff assistance visit.
d. graduate assessment survey.

When a trainee is unable to complete the required upgrade training requirements within the
maximum allowable time, the supervisor may
a. establish a new maximum training date and annotate it on the AF IMT 623a.
b. decertify the trainee on all tasks and begin remedial training.
c. request cross training into another career field.
d. submit a waiver request.

A request for training waiver is approved by the
a. squadron commander.
b. base training manager.
c. Air Force career field manager.
d. major command functional manager.

Air Force policies regarding the Privacy Act of 1974 include all of the following except to
a. amend or correct individual records on request.
b. ensure individual records are timely, accurate, complete, and relevant.
c. protect individuals from unwarranted invasion of their personal privacy.
d. ensure access to personal information on citizens and resident aliens is always granted.

Within the Department of Defense (DOD) social security numbers (SSN) must be protected
as
a. privileged information.
b. For Official Use Only (FOUO).
c. for your eyes only.
d. secret information.

Records that are protected by the Privacy Act may be destroyed by all of the following
methods except
a. tearing.
b. burning.
c. crumpling.
d. shredding.

Any member who violates the Privacy Act is guilty of a
a. misdemeanor and fined up to $10,000.00.
b. misdemeanor and fined up to $5,000.00.
c. felony and confined for five years.
d. felony and confined for two years.

The three broad categories of exploitable operations security vulnerabilities are
a. telephones, computer networks, and the physical environment.
b. telephones, radio communications, and the physical environment.
c. radio communications, computer networks, and human intelligence.
d. the physical environment, computer networks, and human intelligence.

Before leaving the area, make sure all classified materials
a. are in custody of another individual.
b. are stored in proper storage container.
c. have the proper cover sheet.
d. are hidden from plain view.

What Air Force instruction (AFI) series number pertains to flying operations?
a. 10.
b. 11.
c. 16.
d. 36.

Which Air Force instruction (AFI) sets policy on crew rest and flight duty limitations?
a. AFI 11–401, Aviation Management.
b. AFI 11–202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules.
c. AFI 48–123, Medical Examinations and Standards.
d. AFI 65–503, US Air Force Cost and Planning Factors.

Which Air Force instruction (AFI) contains guidance on disqualification and
requalification, flying evaluation board procedures, and manpower request and validation?
a. AFI 11–402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges.
b. AFI 11–202, Vol 2, Aircrew Standardization/Evaluation Program.
c. AFI 65–503, US Air Force Cost and Planning Factors.
d. AFI 11–401, Aviation Management.Which Air Force instruction (AFI) contains guidance on disqualification and
requalification, flying evaluation board procedures, and manpower request and validation?
a. AFI 11–402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges.
b. AFI 11–202, Vol 2, Aircrew Standardization/Evaluation Program.
c. AFI 65–503, US Air Force Cost and Planning Factors.
d. AFI 11–401, Aviation Management.

What form is used as a cover sheet to provide a synopsis of a member’s flight evaluation?
a. AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Evaluation.
b. AF IMT 922, Individual Jump Record.
c. AF Form 942, Record of Evaluation.
d. DD Form 114, Military Pay Order.

What form is used to track the number of hours flown for conditional flying incentive pay?
a. DD Form 114, Military Pay Order.
b. AF IMT 1373, MPO Document Control Log Transmittal.
c. AFTO Form 781, ARMS Aircrew Mission/Flight Data Document.
d. AF IMT 1520, ARMS Individual Flight Pay Entitlement Worksheet.

The goal of establishing work center procedures is to
a. improve work processes.
b. create shortcuts and save cost.
c. ensure continuity in the work place.
d. standardize processes across all bases.

When several applications are bundled together as a package, they are called
a. an application suite.
b. a program bundle.
c. a software family.
d. a data bank.

A computer system can be configured to interact with other computer systems, forming a
a. computer web.
b. computer network.
c. system architecture.
d. client-server model.

What do you call a network that can range from several blocks of buildings to an entire
city?
a. Local area network (LAN).
b. Metropolitan area network (MAN).
c. Wide area network (WAN).
d. Defense mega network.

Which menu is not included in the Resource module of the Aviation Resource Management
System (ARMS)?
a. Jump Management.
b. Deferred Management.
c. Aircrew Management.
d. Personnel Management.

Which Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) module is used to establish system
management parameters?
a. Flight.
b. System.
c. Training.
d. Resource.

Who is responsible for the management, security, and accuracy of the Aviation Resource
Management System (ARMS) database?
a. Database administrator.
b. Unit security manager.
c. Knowledge owner.
d. System analyst.

The Chief, Host Aviation Resource Manager (CHARM) approves access to the Aviation
Resource Management System (ARMS) and assigns security levels based on
a. user’s rank.
b. user’s duties.
c. user’s request.
d. commander’s request.

Which Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) governing body’s purpose is to
concentrate and solve issues affecting ARMS implementation, technical operation, maintenance,
and modification?
a. Aviation Resource Management System advisory group (AAG).
b. Aviation Resource Management System working group (AWG).
c. Aviation Resource Management System steering group (ASG).
d. Database administrative group.

What Air Force form is used to request system changes to the Aviation Resource
Management System (ARMS)?
a. 3215, IT/NSS Requirements Document.
b. 847, Recommendation for Change of Publication.
c. 4332, Accountable Communications Receipt Authorization.
d. 3525, CCB Modification Requirements and Approval Document.

Which individuals may submit an AF Form 3215?
a. Aviation Resource Management System steering group (ASG) members ONLY.
b. Aviation Resource Management System advisory group (AAG) members ONLY.
c. Aviation Resource Management System working group (AWG) members ONLY.
d. All primary system users.

A community of practice is a group of people who are connected to each other
a. according to the same values and religious beliefs.
b. by a need to solve common problems.
c. by a need to belong to a social club.
d. according to social status.