Term
A professional accreditation in aviation that is similar to a physician who is accredited to
practice a trade is a
a. certification.
b. diploma.
c. licence.
d. rating. |
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Definition
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Term
Which date is used to compute the officer service date (OSD)?
a. Completion date of undergraduate flying training.
b. Class start date of undergraduate flying training.
c. Date member arrived on first duty station.
d. Commissioning date in the USAF. |
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Definition
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Term
Licensed physicians are placed in aviation service as flight surgeons effective the date
a. they completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course.
b. they completed their post-graduate medical training.
c. they received an unrestricted license to practice.
d. stated on their medical license. |
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Definition
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Term
Establish the aviation service date (ASD) for a medical student using the date
a. of the Aerospace Medicine Primary course certificate.
b. he or she graduated from medical school.
c. of the medical license.
d. of the first flight. |
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Definition
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Term
What qualification does the aircrew prefix “Q” signify?
a. Basic aircrew.
b. Instructor.
c. Evaluator.
d. Observer. |
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Definition
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Term
Before placing a non-career aviator on flying status, make sure the member
a. has a duty prefix of “X,” “K,” or “Q”.
b. has completed the airframe simulator.
c. belongs to a 1AXXX specialty.
d. has a current physical profile. |
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Definition
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Term
Operational support fliers
a. are fully qualified aircrew members.
b. are non-career aviators on standby status during emergency situations.
c. serve as an augmented crew to supplement normal operational missions.
d. are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occasionally. |
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Definition
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Term
Operational support members are placed in flying status
a. on a monthly basis.
b. for the duration of the assigned mission.
c. until the man-year allocation is exhausted.
d. until the flying requirement no longer exists. |
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Definition
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Term
The MAJCOM must receive the unit’s man-month request by what date?
a. 1 June.
b. 15 June.
c. 1 July.
d. 15 July. |
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Definition
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|
Term
What Flying class of medical examination is required to qualify a member for career
enlisted aviation (CEA) duties?
a. IA.
b. IIA.
c. IIC.
d. III. |
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Definition
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Term
A flight physical is not required when a
a. member is initially placed in aviation service.
b. member’s periodic flight physical becomes due.
c. member is placed on medical waiver.
d. member applies for requalification. |
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Definition
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Term
A periodic flight preventative health assessments (PHA) is required every
a. 6.
b. 12.
c. 15.
d. 24. |
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Definition
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Term
The AF IMT 1042 is not used to
a. medically restricts a member from special operational duty.
b. document completion of physiological training.
c. place a member in duty not involving flying (DNIF) status.
d. document a categorical waiver. |
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Definition
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Term
When a member completes a flight physical health assessment (PHA), the flight surgeon
must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special
Operational Duty to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office within
a. one duty day.
b. three duty days.
c. three calendar days.
d. five calendar days. |
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Definition
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Term
How many days can a non-rated officer remain in Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status
without being medically disqualified from aviation service?
a. 90.
b. 120.
c. 180.
d. 365. |
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Definition
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Term
When updating the flight physical in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) use
the date the
a. AF IMT 1042 was received.
b. AF IMT 1042 was prepared.
c. member signed the AF IMT 1042.
d. flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042. |
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Definition
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Term
What code must you enter in the Physical Status Code field in the Aviation Resource
Management System (ARMS) to manually change a member’s flight physical due date?
a. A.
b. C.
c. D.
d. F. |
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Definition
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Term
One way of knowing if a member is currently available to perform in-flight duties is to
check the member’s
a. availability code.
b. physical status code.
c. aviation service gate.
d. physiological status code. |
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Definition
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Term
Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) can you find the list of availability codes?
a. 11–402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges.
b. 11–403, Aerospace Physiological Training Program.
c. 11–404, Training for High-G Aircrew.
d. 11–421, Aviation Resource Management. |
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Definition
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Term
A categorical flying waiver
a. restricts a member with certain medical conditions to fly a specific type of aircraft.
b. is only available to those with low tolerance to high gravity pressure.
c. allows a member to pass his or her flight physical health assessment.
d. allows a member to fly all types of aircraft. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
In which Air Force Instruction can you find the list of categorical flying waiver codes?
a. 11–402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges.
b. 11–403, Aerospace Physiological Training Program.
c. 11–404, Training for High-G Aircrew.
d. 11–421, Aviation Resource Management. |
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Definition
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|
Term
Following any centrifuge training, an aircrew member is placed in automatic Duty Not
Involving Flying (DNIF) status for how many hours?
a. 8.
b. 12.
c. 24.
d. 48. |
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Definition
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|
Term
Completion of centrifuge training is documented using the
a. AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty.
b. AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification.
c. AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record.
d. AF Form 942, Record of Evaluation. |
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Definition
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|
Term
Who certifies completion of centrifuge training on the AF IMT 702, Individual
Physiological Training Record?
a. Member.
b. Commander.
c. Flight surgeon.
d. Aerospace physiologist. |
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Definition
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|
Term
Who is not required to have altitude chamber training?
a. high-altitude parachutists.
b. civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights.
c. personnel who are or will be placed on active flying status.
d. passengers in aircraft flying above 18,000 feet mean sea level. |
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Definition
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|
Term
Altitude chamber refresher training is not required when removal of a member from active
flying status will occur within how many months of the training due date?
a. 3.
b. 4.
c. 6.
d. 9. |
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Definition
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|
Term
When, if ever, can you schedule a member with an expired flight physical health assessment
(PHA) to attend any physiological training?
a. Never.
b. When the member enters phase period.
c. When approved by the unit commander.
d. When approved by the aerospace physiologist. |
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Definition
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|
Term
After completing physiological training, within how many duty days of arrival on station
must the member return the AF IMT 702 to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM)
office?
a. 1.
b. 3.
c. 5.
d. 7. |
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Definition
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|
Term
To update a member’s physiological information in Aviation Resource Management System
(ARMS), use the
a. Flyer Availability window.
b. Career Aviation window.
c. Aircrew Data window.
d. Flyer window. |
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Definition
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|
Term
After updating the member’s physiological information in Aviation Resource Management
System (ARMS), the AF IMT 702 is
a. destroyed.
b. given to the member.
c. placed in a suspense file.
d. filed in the flight record folder. |
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Definition
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Term
Which position does not have an aeronautical rating?
a. Command Pilot.
b. Senior Observer.
c. Master Navigator.
d. Master Flight Surgeon. |
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Definition
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Term
A pilot-physician who is formerly qualified as a combat systems officer (CSO) is eligible
for the advanced rating of
a. pilot only.
b. pilot and flight surgeon.
c. pilot and combat systems officer.
d. pilot, combat systems officer, and flight surgeon. |
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Definition
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Term
Advanced ratings are awarded based on
a. years of rated service and Aeronautical Rating Board confirmation.
b. military flying time and Operational Flying Duty Accumulator (OFDA).
c. years of rated service, military flying time, and Aeronautical Rating Board confirmation.
d. years of rated service and either military flying time or OFDA. |
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Definition
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Term
The years of rated service are computed from the date the officer
a. received a commission.
b. performed the first operational flight.
c. reported for undergraduate flying training.
d. received the basic United States Air Force rating. |
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Definition
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Term
An Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) is a board of rated officers who are tasked to
a. examine a member’s eligibility for an Operational Flying Duty Accumulator (OFDA) waiver.
b. evaluate the flying credentials of officers applying for an inter-service transfer.
c. ensure the quality control of career and non-career aviators.
d. determine the root cause of an aircraft mishap. |
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Definition
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Term
The effective date of the Department of the Air Force (DAF) aeronautical order (AO)
awarding the basic rating to an officer approved for inter-service transfer is the date the
a. officer arrived on station.
b. officer is assigned to rated duties.
c. officer completes his/her first flight.
d. Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) approval posted on the officer’s special orders. |
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Definition
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Term
Non-rated officers (except flight nurses) may start wearing the officer aircrew member
badge
a. the date assigned to aircrew duties.
b. upon graduation from undergraduate flying training (UFT).
c. after permanent aircrew assignment and completing 24 paid months of operational flying duty.
d. after completing an aircrew qualification as documented on AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew
Qualification. |
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Definition
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|
Term
A member is authorized to wear the basic flight nurse badge after completing the basic
flight nurse course, three years of aviation service, and
a. 350 hours logged as a flight nurse.
b. 750 hours logged as a flight nurse.
c. 12 paid months of operational flying duty.
d. 24 paid months of operational flying duty. |
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Definition
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Term
Operational support fliers are not authorized to wear an aviation badge unless
a. the member has participated in 10 combat missions.
b. the member suffered injuries as a result of an aircraft mishap.
c. it is permanently awarded as a result of previous aircrew duty.
d. the operational support position later becomes a flying crew chief position. |
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Definition
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|
Term
A commander may recommend to prohibit the wear of the aviation badge when a member
a. is disqualified under the humanitarian program.
b. is disqualified due to fear of flying.
c. fails to maintain medical fitness.
d. declares conscientious objector. |
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Definition
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|
Term
Who makes final approval for prohibiting the wear of aviation badges?
a. Wing commander.
b. HQ USAF/A3O-AT.
c. MAJCOM commander.
d. Aeronautical Rating Board. |
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Definition
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|
Term
The manpower standard is an Air Force document used to
a. establish the aircraft’s crew ratio.
b. validate aircrew coded positions.
c. quantify manpower requirements.
d. budget for operational support flying duties. |
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Definition
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|
Term
Funding for manpower resources are derived from the
a. The Man-Year Program.
b. The Aviation Career Incentive Act.
c. The Director of Manpower and Organization.
d. The Department of Defense (DOD) Future Years Defense Program. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Which primary document reflects the manpower required to perform the unit’s mission?
a. Department of Defense Future Year Defense Program.
b. Manpower Programming and Execution System.
c. Unit Manpower Document.
d. Manpower standard. |
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Definition
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|
Term
How can you determine if members are double-billeted?
a. They have the same aircrew position indicator (API) code.
b. They have an API code of “5,” “6,” or “8”.
c. They share the same position number.
d. They have an API code of “B,” or “D”. |
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Definition
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|
Term
A flying activity code (FAC) is a one-digit code used to provide detailed information about
a member’s flying
a. incentive pay.
b. position.
c. activity.
d. status. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Which AFI can you find the list of flying activity codes (FAC)?
a. 11–402, Aviation and Parachutist Service Aeronautical Ratings and Badges.
b. 11–403, Aerospace Physiological Training Program.
c. 11–421, Aviation Resource Management.
d. 11–401, Aviation Management. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Which Congressional Act was the first to set minimum numbers of operational flying duty
accumulator (OFDA) months for rated officers to receive continuous Aviation Career Incentive
Pay (ACIP)?
a. Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974.
b. Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1989.
c. FY 1996 National Defense Authorization Act.
d. FY 2000 National Defense Authorization Act. |
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Definition
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|
Term
Aviation service gates for career enlisted aviators (CEA) are set at the
a. 12th and 18th year of aviation service.
b. 5th, 10th, and 15th year of aviation service.
c. 10th, 15th and 20th year of aviation service.
d. 10th, 15th, 20th, and 22nd year of aviation service. |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which rated officer may accumulate operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit
toward entitlement to Continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP)?
a. A pilot with 18 years of aviation service.
b. A flight surgeon with less than 12 years of aviation service.
c. An air battle manager (ABM) with more than 18 years of aviation service.
d. A combat systems officer (CSO) with less than 18 years of aviation service. |
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Definition
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|
Term
How many days in a calendar month must a member be in an active flying status code
(FSC) to receive one month of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit?
a. 7.
b. 10.
c. 15.
d. 20. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
What is the effective date for assigning flying status code (FSC) “S” to a member who is
actively flying and flew on 15 Mar 09, but did not fly again until 12 Sep 09?
a. 16 Mar 09.
b. 1 Jul 09.
c. 12 Jul 09.
d. 1 Sep 09. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
What is the effective date for assigning flying status code (FSC) “S” to a member who was
initially assigned to flying duty on 15 Mar 09, but did not fly until 12 Sep 09?
a. 16 Mar 09.
b. 1 Jul 09.
c. 12 Jul 09.
d. 1 Sep 09. |
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Definition
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|
Term
A member was initially assigned to flying duty on 19 Dec 08 and first flew on 17 Apr 09.
What action, if any must the host aviation resource management (HARM) office take on 20 Mar 09.
a. No action necessary.
b. Resume the member’s operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit.
c. Change the member’s flying status code (FSC) from “S” to “A”.
d. Change the member’s flying status code (FSC) from “A” to “S”. |
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Definition
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|
Term
For which months is the member who is actively flying authorized to receive operational
flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit if the member flew on 14 May, but did not fly again until
18 Nov?
a. May, Jun, Jul.
b. Jun, Jul, Aug, and Sep.
c. May, Jun, Jul, and Aug.
d. May, Jun, Jul, Aug, Sep, and Oct. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
The fist character of the aviation service code (ASC) is the
a. entitlement status code (ESC).
b. aircrew position indicator (API).
c. flying activity code (FAC).
d. flying status code (FSC). |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Which flying status code (FSC) is assigned when a member is not flying due to lack of
support capability?
a. J.
b. K.
c. L.
d. S. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
A member’s entitlement status code (ESC) is not changed when he/she
a. fails to meet operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) gate requirements.
b. fails to perform an operational flight for the month.
c. is disqualified.
d. is suspended. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
What is the maximum number of days a member can stay in Aviation Status Code 04
(suspended status) without MAJCOM approval?
a. 60.
b. 90.
c. 120.
d. 180. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
You must confirm verbal orders in writing by
a. publishing the corresponding aeronautical order (AO) within 3 duty days.
b. publishing the corresponding AO within 5 duty days.
c. preparing a memo for record (MFR) within 3 calendar days.
d. preparing a MFR within 5 calendar days. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
You may publish a single aeronautical order (AO) that affects several members provided
a. the action is exactly the same for all members.
b. the action is the same for majority of the members.
c. all members have the same aviation service code only.
d. all members have the same aviation service code and effective date. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
When amending an aeronautical order (AO), you must locate the original AO in the master
record set and document in ink in the lower left-hand margin
a. the order number and effective date of the amendment AO.
b. the order number and request date of the amendment AO.
c. the order number of the amendment AO only.
d. the request date of the amendment AO only. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
You cannot publish an amendment aeronautical order (AO) to correct the
a. Social Security number (SSN).
b. termination date.
c. effective date.
d. grade. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
When an aeronautical order (AO) is revoked, it is no longer an official document; therefore
a. send it to the Military Personnel Flight.
b. remove it from the flight record folder (FRF) only.
c. remove it from the FRF and AO master record set.
d. permanently file it in the FRF to show a complete AO history. |
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Definition
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|
Term
The aeronautical order (AO) number of the last AO published in the previous year must be
annotated
a. above the heading of the first AO of the current year.
b. below the heading of the first AO of the current year.
c. in the lower left-hand corner of the first AO of the current year.
d. in the lower right-hand corner of the first AO of the current year. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Supporting documents used in publishing aeronautical order (AO) are annotated in ink
a. in the lower left-hand corner with the AO number to which it pertains.
b. in the lower right-hand corner with the AO number to which it pertains.
c. in the upper left-hand corner with the AO request date to which it pertains.
d. in the upper right-hand corner with the AO request date to which it pertains. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
You do not publish an aeronautical order (AO) when
a. changing a member’s Aviation Service Code (ASC).
b. initiating a member’s aviation service.
c. awarding an advanced aeronautical rating.
d. suspending a member from aviation service. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
What effective date would you use when changing a pilot’s flying status code (FSC) from
“U” to “X” if the member graduates undergraduate pilot training (UPT) or undergraduate flying
training (UFT) on 25 May, departs for initial qualification training (IQT) on 26 May, completes
IQT on 15 Aug, and signs in to the first operational flying unit on 17 Aug?
a. 25 May.
b. 26 May.
c. 15 Aug.
d. 17 Aug. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
A pilot completed undergraduate pilot training (UPT) on 27 Sep 08 and left the next day to
a temporary duty (TDY) location to complete initial qualification training (IQT). The member
completed IQT on 15 Jan 09; left the TDY location on 16 Jan 09; and signed in to the first
operational flying unit on 20 Jan 09. What is the effective date of the aeronautical order (AO)
changing the member’s Aviation Service Code (ASC) from “1X” to “1A?”
a. 27 Sep 08.
b. 15 Jan 09.
c. 17 Jan 09.
d. 20 Jan 09. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
On 12 Oct 08, the commander certified a member’s eligibility for non-career aviator flying
duties. The member was assigned to an aircrew prefix duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC) on
13 Oct 08, started formal flying training on 5 Nov 08, and completed training on 15 Jan 09. What
is the effective date of the aeronautical order (AO) assigning Aviation Service Code (ASC) “9D?”
a. 12 Oct 08.
b. 13 Oct 08.
c. 5 Nov 08.
d. 15 Jan 09. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
What date is not used when terminating an aeronautical order (AO) for non-career enlisted
aviators (CEA)?
a. Separation.
b. Flying tour completion.
c. Change to inactive status.
d. Aviation service milestone. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
When a non-rated officer’s date of separation (DOS) is unknown, the effective period of the
member’s aeronautical order (AO) must not exceed
a. 2 years.
b. 3 years.
c. 4 years.
d. 5 years. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is the correct way of citing an Air Force instruction (AFI) as authority when
publishing an aeronautical order (AO)?
a. AFI 11–401.
b. AFI 11–401, 7 Mar 09.
c. AFI 11–401, Para 2.3.4.
d. AFI 11–401, Para 2.3.4, 7 Mar 09. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In which AFI can you find the list of all the mandatory remarks used for publishing
aeronautical orders (AO)?
a. 11–401, Aviation Management.
b. 11–402, Aviation and Parachutist Service Aeronautical Ratings and Badges.
c. 11–421, Aviation Resource Management.
d. 11–422 Mission Design Series (MDS)-Specific. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Remarks are not used on aeronautical order (AO) to
a. emphasize important information.
b. provide explanation.
c. add extra authority.
d. clear ambiguity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When publishing an aeronautical order (AO) to change a rated officer’s Aviation Service
Code (ASC), the termination date is automatically populated and will coincide with the member’s
a. next aviation service gate.
b. advanced rating date.
c. promotion date.
d. separation date. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What must be included in the Authority section of the aeronautical order (AO), when the
authority for publishing the AO is a letter?
a. Commander’s name.
b. Commander’s name and organization.
c. Organization, office symbol, and date of the letter.
d. Commander’s name, organization, and date of the letter. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is not a reason to convene a flying evaluation board (FEB)?
a. Lack of judgment.
b. Failure to meet standards.
c. Failure to complete a flight preventative health assessment (PHA).
d. Lack of aircrew proficiency at undergraduate flying training (UFT). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A flying evaluation board (FEB) may not recommend
a. disciplinary actions.
b. removal of an aviation badge.
c. requalification for aviation service.
d. disqualification from aviation service. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
While under suspension, the member’s flying incentive pay
a. continues until the member is disqualified.
b. continues until the member appears before a flying evaluation board (FEB).
c. is terminated until the member’s status is resolved.
d. is terminated and paid back once the member is disqualified. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Suspension action is at the discretion of the commander when a member
a. professes fear of flying.
b. is offered Article 15 punishment.
c. is under investigation for drug abuse.
d. is being processed for personnel reliability program (PRP) decertification. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Non-permanent disqualification reasons include
a. Fear of flying.
b. Conscientious objector.
c. A flying evaluation board (FEB) action.
d. Failure to maintain professional standards. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
After a member has been suspended for failure to accomplish a flight preventative health
assessment (PHA), the member has how many days to accomplish a flight PHA before facing
disqualification?
a. 30 days from the date of suspension.
b. 45 days from the date of suspension.
c. 60 days from the date the flight PHA expires.
d. 90 days from the date the flight PHA expires. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If the medical disqualification is less than one year, a member may obtain medical
certification for requalification by
a. notifying the MAJCOM/SG.
b. submitting a formal application.
c. submitting a letter to HQ USAF/A3O-AT.
d. obtaining certification from the local flight surgeon’s office. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A rated officer who has been disqualified for at least one year but less than five years due to
failure to maintain medical fitness may be requalified for aviation service when
a. appearing before a flying evaluation board (FEB).
b. certified by HQ AFMOA/SG3PF.
c. approved by HQ USAF/A3O-AT.
d. certified by the local flight surgeon. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Aviation service date (ASD) adjustment is mandatory for members
a. returning to aviation service before 1 Aug 02.
b. returning to aviation service on or after 1 Aug 02.
c. who are suspended from aviation service before 1 Aug 02.
d. who are suspended from aviation service on or after 1 Aug 02. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) report must be audited after each
ARMS- Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) interface?
a. Consolidated host aviation resource management system (CHARMS) Report Audit List.
b. Aviation Service Suspense List.
c. Permanent duty station (PDS) Interface Summary Report.
d. Aviation Management Suspense List. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When the consolidated host aviation resource management system (CHARMS) transfer file
is not received during a system interface, HQ USAF/A3O-AT will
a. backup the current data available.
b. send an emergency action message.
c. wait until the next end-of-month transfer takes place.
d. notify the appropriate host aviation resource management (HARM) office. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The 120-day notification policy before involuntarily terminating the aviation service
applies to
a. non-career enlisted aviator (CEA) enlisted members.
b. all aircrew members.
c. rated officers.
d. CEAs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which part of the aviation management suspense list (AMSL) lists all members who are in
duty not involving flying (DNIF) status?
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 4.
d. 5. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which part of the aviation management suspense list (AMSL) displays aircrew members
who have gone three months without performing an operational flying duty accumulator
(OFDA)-creditable flight?
a. 0.
b. 4.
c. 6.
d. 8. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Part 9 of the aviation management suspense list (AMSL) is used to
a. determine if an aircrew member should be disqualified from aviation service.
b. identify individuals who are currently assigned Aviation Service Code (ASC) “06”.
c. track individuals who are projected inbound into the Aviation Resource Management System
(ARMS).
d. determine if aircrew members in flying status code (FSC) “S” recently performed an
operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA)-creditable flight. |
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Definition
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Term
Which office is responsible for establishing flight record folders (FRF)?
a. squadron aviation resource management (SARM).
b. tenant aviation resource management (TARM).
c. host aviation resource management (HARM).
d. Stan Eval |
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Definition
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Term
Flight record folders (FRF) for members who have been disqualified for eight years or more
are
a. given to the member.
b. maintained in an inactive file cabinet.
c. sent to the staging facility for disposition.
d. destroyed to protect the privacy of the individual. |
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Definition
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Term
Which document is filed on the right side of the flight record folder (FRF)?
a. Operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) waiver.
b. Flying history report (FHR).
c. Military pay order (MPO).
d. Aeronautical order (AO). |
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Definition
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Term
When conducting a flight record folder (FRF) audit, verify that the date of the AF IMT 702,
Individual Physiological Training Record, matches the date on the member’s
a. aeronautical order (AO).
b. Individual Data Summary (IDS).
c. flying history report (FHR).
d. military pay order (MPO). |
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Definition
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Term
When auditing a flight record folder (FRF), ensure all aeronautical orders (AO) are filed in
chronological order by
a. request date.
b. effective date.
c. published date.
d. termination date. |
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Definition
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Term
Members who are in active flying status must complete a records review every year by the
end of the
a. fiscal year.
b. calendar year.
c. member’s birth month.
d. month it was last completed. |
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Definition
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Term
Members who are in inactive status are
a. required to complete an annual records review.
b. not required to complete an annual records review.
c. required to complete a records review every 5 years.
d. required to complete a records review every 15 months. |
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Definition
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Term
You must handle all information pertaining to the aircraft mishap as
a. For Your Eyes Only.
b. For Official Use Only.
c. Privileged information.
d. Classified information. |
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Definition
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Term
During an aircraft mishap, what action must be taken before the host aviation resource
management (HARM) office prints out all the required reports for the Aircraft Investigation
Board?
a. Complete an AF Form 64, Charge Out Record.
b. Identify all members of the Aircraft Investigation Board.
c. Ensure all family members and friends have been notified.
d. Ensure all flying time and training accomplishments have been entered into the Aviation
Resource Management System (ARMS). |
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Definition
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Term
Within how many days prior to departure must a member notify the host aviation resource
management (HARM) office of a pending assignment?
a. One duty day.
b. Three calendar days.
c. At least five duty days.
d. At least five calendar days. |
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Definition
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Term
For how many months should you maintain a copy of the member’s outprocessing
products?
a. 6.
b. 12.
c. 15.
d. 24. |
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Definition
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Term
The member must acknowledge receipt of the flight record package by signing
a. the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) Record Transfer Acknowledgement
Letter.
b. the certification section of the individual data summary (IDS).
c. the outprocessing logbook.
d. a memorandum for record. |
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Definition
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Term
If you must normalize and make changes to a member’s record after it has been
outprocessed to the gaining host aviation resource management (HARM) office, you must
advise the gaining HARM office to
a. inprocess the record until the updated record is received.
b. delete the record before you resend the updated record.
c. outprocess the record and forward to “FGWD”.
d. make the necessary changes. |
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Definition
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Term
What mail option must you choose if you were to mail a flight record folder (FRF) to a
member?
a. Registered.
b. First Class.
c. Certified.
d. Priority. |
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Definition
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Term
No later than how many days after receipt of a member’s record must the host aviation
resource management (HARM) office inprocess the flight record folder (FRF) into the Aviation
Resource Management System (ARMS)?
a. 15 duty days.
b. 10 duty days.
c. 10 calendar days.
d. 15 calendar days. |
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Definition
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Term
Once the member’s Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) record has been
inprocessed,
a. complete the ARMS Record Transfer Letter and mail it to the losing host aviation resource
management (HARM) office.
b. print the member’s ARMS products and give them to the member.
c. normalize the member’s record and print all products.
d. transfer the member’s record to “FGWD”. |
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Definition
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