Shared Flashcard Set

Details

C Co DES
Academic subject areas
249
Other
Professional
10/27/2011

Additional Other Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
WARNING these flash cards are not updated for TC 3-04.11. Use at your own discretion
Definition
Term
Individuals may deviate from provisions of this regulation during emergencies to the extent necessary to meet the?
Definition

emergency

95-23, 1-6

Term
Individuals who deviate from the provisions of this regulation, Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) regulations,
or host-country regulations must report details of the incident directly to their ? The incident must
be reported within ? hours after it occurs.
Definition

Commander; 24

95-23, 1-6

Term
Each crewmember will hand carry between assignments and must present his or her individual flight records
folder (IFRF) and individual aircrew training folder (IATF) to the new unit to which assigned or attached for ATP
purposes within?
Definition

14 calendar days after reporting for duty

95-23, 2-7

Term
Unmanned aircraft anticollision lights will be on when?
Definition

UAS engines are operating, except when there may be
other hazards to safety

95-23, 2-10

Term
Unmanned aircraft position lights will be ON?
Definition

between official sunset and sunrise

95-23, 2-10

Term
Commanders in the grade of ? and above will develop and publish policies and procedures for
the mission approval process for those UAS units under their command.
Definition

O-5 and above

95-23, 2-12

Term
What are the three steps in the mission approval process?
Definition

Step one: Initial mission approval

Step two: Mission planning and briefing

Step three: Final mission approval

95-23, 2-12 (b)

Term
The operational use missions for a UAS include:
Definition

Actual or simulated tactical and/or combat operations.
Unmanned aircraft crewmember training.
 Intelligence.
Counternarcotics activities.
Support to search and rescue.
Research and development.
Maintenance flights.
Flight tests.
Repositioning or reassignment of aircraft.

Special use (humanitarian, disaster relief, and deployments).
Aeronautical research and space and science application.
Exercise command and/or supervision authority.

95-23, 3-2

Term
Prohibited missions include:
Definition

1) Army UAS will not be used to conduct flights for personal use.

2) Army UAS operations will not be conducted outside of those areas identified in paragraph 2–9.
3) Army UAS will not be operated in a manner outside of the definition of public aircraft

95-23, 3-4

Term
Procedures for investigating and reporting UAS mishaps are prescribed in?
Definition

DA Pam 385-40

 

95-23, 3-6

Term
What DA Form will be used to notify commanders and safety councils of anything affecting the safety of Army UA or
related personnel and equipment?
Definition

DA Form 2696

 

95-23, 3-9

Term
The UAS ATP standardizes UAC training and evaluations to ensure?
Definition

Combat readiness

95-23, 4-5

Term
The ATP includes?
Definition

hours, tasks, and iterations identified in appropriate ATMs;
UAS simulator; readiness level (RL) progression; and the annual proficiency and readiness test (APART).

95-23, 4-5

Term
Officers in the grade of ? may grant unit waivers and/
or extensions to ATP requirements for units under their command, or state and/or territory affected by operational
deployments.
Definition

Commander colonel (O-6) and above.

These commanders may grant unit extensions for up to 180 days from their self-established “start training
date” after redeployment.

95-23, 4-2

Term
Individual waivers to primary UAS ATP requirements may be granted by the first commander of what grade?
Definition

O-6 or above

95-23, 4-2

Term

What are the four phases of training?

 

Definition

Qualification/Refresher

Mission

Continuation

Term
When UAC's have not flown within the past ___, they will receive ____?
Definition

180; Refresher Training

95-23, 4-6 (b)

Term
What are the four types of hands-on eval's?
Definition

Standardization Flight Eval

Proficiency Flight Eval

Postmishap Flight Eval

Medical Flight Eval

95-23, 4-9

Term
Can a SFE be completed in the sims?
Definition

Yes; with the approval of O-5 and above

95-23, 4-9

Term
According to AR 95-23, When will a PFE be conducted?
Definition

At the discretion of the commander.
(2) At the direction of HQDA.
(3) By an IO or SO per the appropriate ATM.
(4) To determine an individual’s proficiency and/or currency.
(5) To determine which phase of training is appropriate for entry into or continuing in the ATP.

95-23, 4-9 (b)

Term
No-notice eval may be?
Definition

written examinations, oral examinations, UAS flight evaluations, or compatible UAS simulator
evaluations

95-23, 4-9

Term
When will a CM be administered a Postmishap eval?
Definition

Involved in a Class A or B

Class C at the discretion of the commander

95-23, 4-9

Term
The commander will investigate when ATP requirements are not met. The commander will complete the
investigation within ___?
Definition

30 day of notification of failure

95-23, 4-10

Term
The commander will take the following actions for a CM who failed to meet ATP requirements?
Definition

Authorize up to one 30-day extension granted by O-5 and above.

Request a waiver

Enter restrictions into IATF and IFRF

Restrict from AC duties

95-23, 4-10

Term
The UAC whose currency has lapsed must complete a ?
Definition

PFE

95-23, 4-15

Term
Can simulators be used to reestablish currency?
Definition

No

95-23, 4-15

Term
Aircraft Commanders will selected by a commander in the grade of ?
Definition

O-5 and above

95-23, 4-18

Term
Mission Coordinator will be selected by commanders in the grade of ?
Definition

O-5 and above

95-23, 4-21

Term
Who will primarily train and evaluate IO's?
Definition

SO

95-23, 4-23

Term
Are UT's prohibited from evaluating ATM base and special tasks?
Definition

Yes

95-23, 4-24

 

Term
How much fuel reserve is needed for day and night flights?
Definition

(day)- 30 minutes at cruise

(night)- 45 minutes at cruise

95-23, 5-2

Term
Who will obtain departure, en route, destination, and alternate weather information before takeoff?
Definition

Operators

95-23, 5-2 (c)

Term
Destination weather must be forecast to be equal to or greater than VFR minimums at estimated time of arrival (ETA) through _____ after ETA
Definition

One hour

95-23, 5-2, (4)

Term
When there are intermittent weather conditions, ________ weather will apply
Definition

Predominant

95-23, 5-2 (4)

Term
Is currency considered an element of the ATP?
Definition

No

95-23, D-4

Term
Who is the primary training manager and trainer for the unit?
Definition

The Commander

TC 3-04.63 1-11

Term
What is the goal of the ATP?
Definition

The goal of the ATP is to produce mission-ready UAS units.

TC 3-04.63, 2-1

Term
The ATP consists of what four types of training?
Definition

Qualification, Refresher, Mission, and Continuation Training

TC 1-600, 2-1

Term
Who does the ATP apply to?
Definition
The ATP applies to crewmembers that perform duties controlling the flight of a UA or the operation
of its mission equipment as well as starting the engine, takeoff and/or landing the UA.

TC 3-04.63 2-2
Term
How many training periods are there in the ATP training year? 
Definition

Two

TC 3-04.63 2-11

Term
When does the first training period begin?
Definition

First day following the end of their birth month

TC 3-04.63 2-11

Term
Who many FAC levels are there?
Definition

Three

(FAC's do not apply to DAC's)

TC 3-04.63 2-13

Term
Can FAC 3 CM's perform crewmember duties with Army UAS's?
Definition

No

TC 3-04.63 2-18

Term
Do FAC 3 have currency requirements?
Definition

No 

TC 3-04.63 3-18

Term
Can simulator requirements be waived for FAC 3?
Definition

SHOULD NOT be waived

TC 3-04.63 2-18

Term
Do FAC 3 CM's have to maintain a current flight physical?
Definition

Yes

TC TC 3-04.63 2-18

Term
How often must FAC 3 CM's demostrate their proficiency?
Definition

Within 90 days after assigned FAC 3 and once annually thereafter

TC 3-04.63 2-18

Term
What is the Commanders Eval for?
Definition

Determines the proficiency and initial RL of newly assigned crewmembers

TC 3-04.63 2-23

Term
What does a Commander's Eval consist of?
Definition

Records review and possibly a PFE

TC 3-04.63 2-23

Term
Within how many days must a CM complete a Commander's Eval?
Definition

45 calendar days

TC 3-04.63 2-23

Term
If the initial RL cannot be determined by the records review or if the commander desires, the
crewmember will undergo a _____?
Definition

PFE

TC 3-04.63 2-25

Term

Can graduates of a UAS qualification course,

who are on their first utilization tour, solely on the basis of a records review be assigned initial RL 2 or RL 1?

Definition

No

TC 3-04.63 2-25

Term
If, at the time of initial RL designation, ____ has passed since the UAC has completed any element of an APART, they must complete that element before RL 1.
Definition

One year.

TC TC 3-04.63 2-26

Term
____ identify the training phase in which the operator is participating and measure readiness to perform assigned missions.
Definition

Readiness levels

TC 3-04.63 2-33

Term
How many days does an active duty CM have to progress from one RL to the next?
Definition

90 consecutive days

TC TC 3-04.63 2-33

Term
RL progression will exclude days lost because of_____
Definition

TDY or deployment to a location where the UAC is uable to operate UAS

Medical or nonmedical suspensionfrom operations

Approved leave

Grounding of UAS by HQDA

UAS unavailable or transit due to deployment/redeployment UA reset/preset

Flight cancellations due to weather/maintenance or no fly times

Tc TC 3-04.63 2-33

Term
If the exclusion period exceeds ____, operators must restart their current RL progression.
Definition

45 consecutive days

TC TC 3-04.63 2-34

Term
An operator progresses from RL 3 to PL 2 by demonstrating proficieny in all ____ from appendix A with an SO/IO.
Definition

Base tasks

TC 3-04.63 2-39

Term
A crewmember returning to an operational flying position after not having flown flight simulator
or UA within the previous ____ days must be designated RL 3 for refresher training.
Definition

180 days

TC 3-04.63 2-39
Term
Are there task or iteration minimums or APART requirements while RL 3?
Definition

No, Unless redesignated from RL 1 because of a training deficiency

TC 3-04.63 2-42

Term
An operator progresses from RL 2 to RL 1 by demonstrating proficiency in _____ tasks.
Definition

Selected mission and additional task

TC 3-04.63 2-47

Term
Unit trainers and evaluators may credit toward their semiannual flying-hour minimums those hours they fly while performing their

True or False
Definition

True

TC 3-04.63 A-2

Term
what are the three instances where Commanders prorate flying-hour/simulator minimums ?
Definition

Is newly designated RL 1

Has primary UAS-redesignated

Change in duty position, which involes a change in FAC level

TC 3-04.63 2-70

Term

If the minimums have not been met, commanders reduce minimums by 1 month for each 30 days the crewmember was unable to fly for the reason listed below. Then adds the total number of days lost because of______

Definition

TDY or deployment to a location where the crewmember is unable to fly

Medical or nonmedical suspension

Grounding of UAS by HQDA

UAS unavailable due to movement to deployment/redeployment or reset/preset.

Leave approved by the commander

TC 3-04.63 2-71

Term
Can days in different categories may be added together for 30-day totals?  
Definition

Yes

TC 3-04.63 2-71

Term

Can concurrent days be added together? (simultaneous medical suspesion and TDY)

 

Definition

No

TC 3-04.63 2-71

Term
Does a crewamember removed from RL 1 for a training deficiency must still meet all RL 1 ATP requirements?
Definition

Yes

TC 1-600, 2-25

Term
Can a task iteration performed at night may be substituted for a day task iteration?
Definition

Yes

3-04.63 2-51

Term
Can an LAO be given in the sims?
Definition

No

TC 3-04.63 2-79

Term
Annual chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) training is mandatory for all ___ and those ___ positions selected by the commander 
Definition

FAC 1 

FAC 2

TC 3-04.63 2-105

Term
What does the APART consist of?
Definition

Written examination and hands-on performance test

TC 3-04.63 3-17

Term
The Operators Manual Written Exam consists of how many questions?
Definition

50 objective questions

TC 3-04.63 3-19

Term
The minimum passing score for the Operators Manual Written Exam is?
Definition

90%

TC 3-04.63 3-19

Term
No notice eval may consist of?
Definition

Flight or compatible sim

Oral

Written

TC 3-04.63 3-16

Term
What are three reasons a PFE will be given?
Definition
Individual readiness level upon assignment to unit if RL cannot be determined by records review.
Proficiency when UAS curreny has lapsed.
Proficieny when quested by the commander.
Term
What are the four phases in the evaluation sequence?
Definition

Introduction

Academic's

Flight

Debrief

TC 3-04.63 3-42

Term
What is form number for the flight records folder?
Definition

DA Form 3513

3-04.63 5-2

Term
What form informs the CM ATP flying hour, task, and evaluation requirements?
Definition

DA Form 7120

TC 1-600, 5-3

Term

What is the left side of the training folder?

 

Definition

DA form 7120 series

TC 1-600, Fig 5-1

Term
Whats on the right side of the training folder?
Definition

DA Form 7122

Grade slips

Miscellaneous

TC 1-600, Fig 5-1

Term
When will units initiate a DA Form 7120?
Definition

Crewmember integrated into a new ATP.

Crewmember begins a new ATP training year.

Amending the existing 7120 is impractical

A separate DA Form 7120-R series is required for each primary, additional, and alternate UA in which the crewmember performs duties.

TC 3-04.63 5-5

Term
What form is used to permanently record all individual CM evaluations and summaries?
Definition

DA Form 7122

TC 1-600, 5-16

Term
If an event is not entered at the proper time and several other events have been recorded, enter the date of the out-of-sequence in___
Definition

Red ink

TC 1-600, 5-18

Term
Is the 7122 a permanent record?
Definition

Yes

TC 1-600, 5-23

Term
What form is used with training programs that require a series of flight (RL progression, MC training, and aircraft qual)?
Definition

DA Form 4507

TC 1-600, 5-24

Term
What are the five steps in Risk Management?
Definition

Identify the hazards

Assess the hazards

Develop controls and make decisions

Implement the controls

Supervise and evaluate

TC 1-600, 6-1

Term
What are the semi-annual gray eagle simulator hour requirements for FAC 1?
Definition

24 hours/ 8 in each station

TC 3-04.63 A-2

Term
What are the semi-annual gray eagle simulator hour requirements for FAC 2?
Definition

12 hours/ 4 in each station

TC 3-04.63 A-2

Term
What are the semi-annual gray eagle simulator requirements for FAC 3?
Definition
6 hours/ 2 hours in each station

TC 3-04.63 A-2

Term
What are the semiannual gray eagle flying hour requirements for FAC 1?
Definition

12 hours/ 4 in each station

TC 3-04.63 A-1
Term

What are the semiannual gray eagle flying hour requirements for FAC 2?

Definition
6 hours/ 2 in each station
TC 3-04.63 A-1
Term

What are the semiannual gray eagle flying hour requirements for FAC 3?

Definition

no crew duties authorized

TC 3-04.63 A-1
Term
A minimum of __hours (___ hours in each crew station) must be completed
in the flight simulator for FAC 1 and FAC 2 operators (this can primarily be used to train emergencies).
Definition
4/2
TC 3-04.63 A-2
Term
How many aircraft hours flown in a semi-annual period may FAC 1 UACS credit towards simulator requirements?
Definition
20
TC 3-04.63 A-2
Term
How many aircraft hours flown in a semi-annual period may FAC 2 UACS credit towards simulator requirements?
Definition
8
TC 3-04.63 A-2
Term
Can UTs, IOs, and SOs credit those hours flown while performing assigned duties at any crew position toward their semiannual flying-hours?
Definition

Yes

TC 1-600, App B

Term
What are the Gray eagle currency requirements?
Definition
 Perform, every 60 consecutive days, a takeoff and landing while operating the UAS or an approved flight simulator from the A seat.
 Perform, every 120 consecutive days, a takeoff and landing while operating the UAS from the A
seat.

TC 3-04.63 A-3
Term
What are the six elements for call for fire?
Definition

Observer ID

Warning order

Target location

Target desciption

Method of engagement

Method of fire

TC 1-600, Task 2162

Term
Who has the overall responsibility for temporary flying restrictions?
Definition

Surgeon General

AR 40-8, 4

Term
Aircrew will be restricted from flying duty for ___ hours after general, spinal, or epidural anesthesia and for a minimum of ____ hours after local or regional anesthesia, to include dental. 
Definition

48/12

AR 40-8, 2

Term
Aircrew will not perform aviation duties for a minimum of ____ hours after the last drink consumed and until no residual effects remain 
Definition

12

AR 40-8, 2 (c)

Term
Medical restriction from flying duty will be for a minimum period of ____ hours following any immunization. If any type of reaction occurs, local or systemic, the aviator remains restricted from flying duties until cleared by a flight surgeon or APA. 
Definition

12

AR 40-8, 2 (d)

Term
Aircrew members will not be regular (more than two times per year) blood or plasma donors. Following blood donation (____ cc or more), aircrew members will be restricted from flying duty for a period of ____ hours. Following plasma donation, aircrew members will be restricted from flying duty for a period of ____ hours. 
Definition

200 cc/72/24

AR 40-8, 2 (f)

Term
What type of vision must a crew member have?
Definition

Correctable to 20/20

AR 40-8, 7

Term
What are three causes of Fratricide?
Definition

Lack of situational awareness

Lack of positive ID

Other (Weapons Errors)

Call 92-3

Term
Name at least 3 effects  of fratricide?
Definition

Hesitation to conduct limited vis ops

Loss of confidence in units leadership

Increase of leader self-doubt

Hesitation to use supporting combat systems

Oversupervision of units

Loss of initiative

Loss of aggressiveness during fire and maneuver

Disrupted ops

Needless loss of combat power

General degradation of cohesion and morale

Call 92-3

Term
What is a map?
Definition

Graphic representation of a portion of the earths surface drawn to scale, as seen from above.

FM 3-25.26

Term
How accurate does a 4-6-8 digit grid square give you?
Definition

4- w/in 1,000 meters

6- w/in 100 meters

8- w/in 10 meters

 

Term
What are the major terrain features?
Definition
Hill, Valley, Saddle, Ridge, Depression
Term
What are the minor terrian features?
Definition
Cliff, Draw, Spur
Term
What are the supplementary features?
Definition
Cut, Fill
Term
Class B visibility
Definition

3 SM vis

Clear clouds

Term
Class C Visibility
Definition

3 SM

1,000 ft above

500 ft below

2,000 ft horizontal

Term
Class D Visibility
Definition

3 SM

1,000 ft above,

500 ft below

2,000ft horizontal

Term
Class E below 10,000 MSL
Definition

3 SM

1,000 ft above

500 ft below

2,000 ft horizontal

Term
Class E above 10,000 ft MSL
Definition

5 SM

1,000 ft above

1,000 ft below

1 SM horizontal

Term
Class G 1,200 ft or less
Definition

Day: 1SM, clear clouds

 

Night: 3 SM

1,000 ft above

500 ft below

2,000ft horizontal

Term
Class G more than 1,200 ft but less than 10,000 ft MSL
Definition

Day: 1 SM

1,000 ft above

500 ft below

2,000 ft horizontal

 

Night: 3 SM

1,000 ft above

500 ft below

2,000 ft horizontal

Term
Class G more than 1,200 above surface and above 10,000 ft MSL
Definition

5 SM

1,000 ft above

1,000 ft below

1 SM horizontal

Term
Alert Area
Definition
Contains high volum of pilot training activities or an unuasual type of aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft
Term
Controlled Firing Area
Definition
Activities are conducted under conditions so controlled as to eliminate hazards to nonparticipation aircraft 
Term
Military Operations Area (MOA)
Definition
separate or segregate certain nonhazardous military activities from IFR traffic and to identify for VFR traffic where these activities are conducted
Term
Prohibited Area
Definition
No person may operate an aircraft without the permission of the using agency
Term
Restricted Area
Definition
Airspace which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restriction. Are designated joint use and IFR/VFR operations
Term
Warning Area
Definition
Extending from 3 nautical miles outward from the coast
Term
What are Newton's three laws of motion?
Definition

Inertia, Acceleration, Action/Reaction

FM 3-04.203, 1-1

Term
A body at rest will remain at rest, and a body in motion will remain in motion is which law of motion?
Definition

Inertia

FM 3-04.203, 1-2

Term
Force required to produce a change in motion of a body is directly proportional to its mass and rate of change in its velocity is which law of motion?
Definition

Acceleration

FM 3-04.203, 1-3

Term
For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction is which law of motion?
Definition

Action/Reaction

FM 3-04.203, 1-4

Term
What principle describes the relationship between internal fluid pressure and fluid velocity?
Definition

Bernoulli's Principle

FM 3-04.203, 1-5

Term
As velocity of the airflow increases, ____ decreases above and below the airfoil.
Definition

Static pressure

FM 3-04.203, 1-7

Term
Static pressure differential on the upper and lower surfaces produces about ____ of the aerodynamic force called life.
Definition

75%

FM 3-04.203, 1-7

Term
The remaining ____ of the force is produced as a result of action/reaction.
Definition

25%

FM 3-04.203, 1-7

Term
What are the four forces of flight?
Definition

Lift, Weight, Thrust, Drag

FM 3-04.203, Fig 1-8

Term
The angle measured between the resultant relative wind and chord line is?
Definition

Angle of Attack (AOA)

FM 3-04.203, Table 1-1

Term
What are the two types of airfoils?
Definition

Symmetrical and nonsymmetrical

FM 3-04.203, 1-17

Term
What is the component of the airfoil's TAF perpendicular to the resultant relative wind?
Definition
Lift
Term
What is the component of the airfoil's TAF parallel to the resultant relative wind?
Definition

Drag; the force opposing the motion of an airfoil through the air

FM 3-04.203, 1-65

Term
What are the three types of drag?
Definition

Parasite, Profile, Induced

FM 3-04.203, 1-68

Term
What type of drag is incurred from the nonlifting portions of the aircraft (fuselage, engine cowlings, ect)?
Definition

Parasite Drag

FM 3-04.203, 1-69

Term
What type of drag is incurred from frictional resistance of the blades passing through the air?
Definition

Profile Drag

FM 3-04.203, 1-70

Term
Does parasite drag increase with airspeed?
Definition

Yes

FM 3-04.203, 1-69

Term
What type of drag is incurred as a result of production of lift?
Definition

Induced

FM 3-04.203, 1-71

Term
The vertical axis about which the aircraft ____ ?
Definition

Yaws

FM 3-04.203, 7-1

 

Term
Lateral axis about which the aircraft ____?
Definition

Pitches

FM 3-04.203, 7-1

Term
Longitudinal axis about which the aircraft ____?
Definition

Rolls

FM 3-04.203, 7-1

Term
What are the two forms of icing?
Definition

Structural or induction icing

FM 3-04.203, 8-2

Term
What are the three types of icing?
Definition

Rime, clear, and mixed

FM 3-04.203, 8-4

Term
What are the four levels of ice accumulation intensity?
Definition

Trace

Light

Moderate

Severe

FM 3-04.203, 8-7

Term
Stress is defined as?
Definition

"The nonspecific response of the body to any demand"

TC 3-04.93, 3-1

Term
Identify the four types of stressors
Definition

Psychosocial, Environmental, Physiological (self-imposed), Cognitive (mental)

TC 3-04.93, 3-3

Term
What is considered Phychosocial stressors?
Definition

Job stress

Illness

Family issues

TC 3-04.93, 3-4

Term
What is considered Physiological (Self-Imposed) Stressors?
Definition

"DEATH"

Drugs

Exhaustion

Alcohol

Tobacco

Hypoglycemia

TC 3.04-93, 3-17

Term
What are the four stress responses?
Definition

Physical

Emotinal

Behavioral

Cognitive

TC 3.04-93, 3-42

Term
What are ways to manage stress?
Definition

Avoiding stressors

Changing thinking

Learning to relax

Ventilation stress

TC 3-04.93, 3-60

Term
What are the three types of fatigue?
Definition

Acute

Chronic

Motivational Exhaustion (burnout)

TC 3-04.93, 3-65

Term
Acute Fatigue can be chracterized by?
Definition

Inattention

Distractibility

Errors in timing

Neglect of secondary tasks

Loss of accuracy and control

Lack of awareness of error accumulation

Irritability

TC 3-04.93, 3-67

Term
Chronic fatigue can be characterized by?
Definition

Insomnia

Depressed mood

Irritability

Weight loss

Poorr judgement

Loss of appetite

Slowed reaction time

Poor motivation and performance on the job

TC 3-04.93, 3-68

Term
What are the effect of fatigue on performance?
Definition

Reaction-time changes

Reduced attention

Diminished memory

Changes in mood and social interaction

Impaired communication

TC 3.04-93, 3-70

Term
What are some ways to prevent fatigue?
Definition

Control the sleep environment

Adjust to shift work

Maintain good health and physical fitness

Practice good eating habits

Practice moderate, controlled use of alcohol and caffeine

Plan and practice good time management

Practice realistice planning

Maintain optimal working conditions

Take naps!!!

TC 3-04.93, 3-86

Term

What are Maslow's Hiearchy of needs?

(From bottom to top)

Definition

Physiological needs

Safety and security

Love and belonginess

Self-esteem

Self-actualization

IP Handbood Fig 1-2

Term
List four of the eight defense mechanisms
Definition

Compensation

Projection

Repression

Denial

Reaction Formation

Fantasy

Displacement

Rationalization

IPH, Fig 1-4

Term
What are the characteristics of learning?
Definition

Purposeful

Result of experience

Multifaceted

Active Process

IPH, Fig 2-1

Term
Define learning
Definition

A change in the behavior of the learner as a result of experience

IPH, 2-2

Term
What are the factors the affect perception?
Definition

Goals and values

Self concept

Physical organism

Opportunity and time

Threat

IPH, 2-7

Term
What are the law of learning?
Definition

Readiness

Exercise

Effect

Primacy

Intensity

Recency

IPH, 2-10

Term
What are the domains of learning?
Definition

Cognitive (thinking)

Affective (feeling)

Psychomoter (doing)

IPH, 2-12

Term
What are the levels of learning?
Definition

Rote

Understanding

Application

Correlation

IPH, Fig 2-10

Term
What are the characteristics of learning?
Definition

Purposeful

Result of experience

Multifaceted

Active Process

IPH, 2-16

Term
What are the types of practice?
Definition

Deliberate

Blocked

Random

IPH, 2-22

Term
What are the two types of multitasking?
Definition

Attention switching

Simultaneous performnace

IPH, 2-24

Term
What are the two types of errors?
Definition

Slip

Mistake

IPH, 2-28

Term
What are four ways to reduce errors?
Definition

Learning and practice

Taking time

Checking for errors

Using reminders

Developing routines

Raising awareness

IPH, 2-28

Term
What is the dominant force that governs the students progress and ability to learn and can be used to advantage by the instructor?
Definition

Motivation

IPH, 2-30

Term
What are the three types of memory?
Definition

Sensory

Short-term

Long-term

IPH, 2-32

Term
According to the IPH, what are the theories of forgetting?
Definition

Retrieval failure

Repression or suppression

Interference

Fading

IPH, 2-34

Term
What are the basic elements of communication?
Definition

Source

Symbols

Receiver

IPH, 3-2

Term
What are the barriers to effective communication?
Definition

Lack of common experience

Confusion between the symbol and symbolized object

Overuse of abstractions

Interference

IPH, 3-4

Term
What are the phases of the demonstration performce method?
Definition

Explanation

Demonstration

Student performance

Instructor supervision

Evaluation

IPH, Ch 4

Term
What are the four essential teaching skills?
Definition

Management skills

Assessment skills

People skills

Subject matter expertise

IPH, 4-2

Term
What are four characteristics of an effective question?
Definition

Specific purpose

Clear in meaning

Contains single idea

Stimulates thought

Definite answers

Relates to perviously covered info

IPH, 4-14

Term
What are four characteristics of a good test?
Definition

Reliability

Validity

Useability

Objectivity

Comprehensiveness

Discrimination

IPH, Fig 5-3

Term
What are four obstacles of learning?
Definition

Unfair treatment

Discomfort, illness, fatigue, and dehydration

Impatience

Anxiety

Lack of interest

Apathy due to inadequate instruction

IPH, 8-3

Term
What are the Pilot's Self Assessment steps?
Definition

Illness

Medication

Stress

Alcohol

Fatigue

Eating

Term
According to B Co SOP, what is the minimum safe altitude for Shadow ops?
Definition
500 FT, unless otherwise directed by the MC
Term
Only designated mission essential personnel will approach within ____ of an AV that has been inspected for flight ops?
Definition

50 FT

B Co SOP

Term
Stryker UA's will depart/enter A&E at  minimum of ____?
Definition

8,000 FT MSL

B Co SOP

Term
Prior to commanding UA to A&E, the AO MUST ensure points nav radius defaul of ____ is loaded.
Definition

1200m

B Co SOP

Term
TALS planned Abort procedures will only be conducted when previously coordinated with ATC by requesting?
Definition

TALS ___ approach with option

B Co SOP

Term
Staff journal logs will be kept for ___?
Definition

30 Days

B Co SOP

Term
When performing weekly inspections on the gear, slack will be pulled out every ____?
Definition

50 feet

B Co SOP

Term
Is the MC authorized to launch an aircraft without the gear being fully emplaced while Hunter is in the hold position?
Definition

Yes, the energy absorbers must be torqued, 13-1 completed and a minimum of two gear personnel in position

B Co SOP

Term
Fire points will be marked with?
Definition
Red Chem-lites or Runway lights

B Co SOP

Term
Flights into West Range will maintain an assigned altitude of?
Definition

9,000 FT MLS

B Co SOP

Term
Flights into East Range will maintain a minimum altitude of?
Definition

10,000 FT MSL as required for transition from West to East Range

B Co SOP

Term
Flights between ____ and ___ should maintain an altitude of at least 10,000 FT MSL in East or West Range.
Definition

2100 and 0600

B Co SOP

Term
Transition between East and West Range will be done at 10,000 FT MLS utilizing the ___ ____ or as directed by ATC.
Definition

North Corridor

B Co SOP

Term
Flight ops will end as soon as possible when any weather ___ has been issues from LAAF.
Definition

Warning (not advisory)

B Co SOP

Term
All UAS flight ops will be suspended ASAP when lightning activity is within ____ of ops.
Definition

25 NM 

B Co SOP

Term
All oudoor training ops will begin preparations for suspending ops when lighting is within ___ of L&R site.
Definition

10 NM

B Co SOP

Term
All ground ops will cease when lighting is within ___ of the L&R site.
Definition

5 NM 

B Co SOP

Term
IAW with B Co Standardization SOP, the four 2000 series tasks are?
Definition

2000- Cold weather ops

2005- Desert and hotweather ops

2010- Turbulence and thunderstorm ops

2015- Mountain ops

B Co Stands SOP

Term
No-Notice evals will be conducted at least ____?
Definition

Once annually

B Co Stands SOP

Term
CM's may not progress to RL 1 until ACT-E qual/sustainment is completed if it has been more than ____ since the last ACT training.
Definition

12 months

B Co Stands SOP

Term
AC must pass a written exam with at least ___?
Definition

80%

B Co Stands SOP

Term
All MOI observations and instruction will be conducted under the supervision of ____
Definition
An SO

B Co Stands SOP

Term
MOI training and evaluation will not exceed _____ unless authorized by the ATP commander/GFR
Definition

30 Calendar days

B Co Stands SOp

Term
What are the Simulation MOI minimums?
Definition

Observe and instruct Three solo and three crew flight under the guidance of an SO.

B Co Stands SOP

Term
What are the simulation refresher MOI minimums?
Definition

Instruct TWO total flights (any combination)

B Co Stands SOP

Term
What are the flightline MOI minimums?
Definition
Observe and instruct one AO, PO, and L/R

B Co Stands SOP

Term
Who is responsible to ensure all scheduled CM's are in compliance with AIRF Flip Card System prior to flight ops?
Definition

The Aircraft Commander

B Co Stands SOP

Term
No shadow launches will be attempted ____ prior to the close of airspace.
Definition
20 minutes

B Co SOP
Term
What are the seven colors on a map?
Definition
Black, Red-Brown, Blue, Green, Brown, Red and other
Term
What does the color "Black" indicate on a map?
Definition
Cultural (man-made) features 
Term
What does the color " Red-Brown" indicate on a map?
Definition
Identify cultural features, all relief features, nonsurveyed spot elevations
Term
What does the color "Blue" indicate on a map?
Definition
Identifies hydrography or water features
Term
What does the color " Green" indicate on a map?
Definition
Vegetation
Term
What does the color "Red" indicate on map?
Definition
Cultural features, such as populated areas, main roads, and boundaries
Term
What level of accuracy does a 10 MGRS grid give you?
Definition
1 square meter
Term
What are the three types of North?
Definition
True, Magnetic, and Grid
Term
What are the two types of tactical airspace control?
Definition
Positive and Procedural
Term
Spins highlist, modifies, or supplements data contained in the ____?
Definition
Air Tasking Order
Term
What is used principally to separate fixed and rotary winged aircraft?
Definition

Coordinating Altitude 

Coordinating Levels

Term
What are the two types of weather forecasts?
Definition

TAF

Area

Term
Within what time period must a birth month DA Form 759 series closeout in the IFRF be completed?
Definition
Within 10 working days after birth month
Term
What are the three types of airspace separtion in Tactial Airspace?
Definition
Lateral, Vertical, and Time
Term
What must occur for a FAC 3 UAC to perform flying duties?
Definition
Change in FAC level/Duty Position
Term

During RL progression, CM's must demonstrate proficiency in each mode of flight (Day or Night) required by ATM & CTL for each task. The provision pertaining to the more demanding mode of flight does not apply.

T or F

Definition

True, this only applies to Annual Task and Iteration Requirements

 

TC 1-600, 2-16

Term

Individuals are the best judge of their own impairment resulting from sleep loss.

T or F

Definition

False

TC 3-04.93, 3-13

Term
Class 4 lasers are defined as...
Definition

Pulsed, visible, near-infrared lasers that produce diffuse reflections, fire, and skin and eye hazards, with the eyes being especially vulnerable

 

Shadow LP is Class 3b, LD is Class 4

 

TB MED 524, 4-2 and Table 4-1

Term
Squawk Codes 7500, 7600, 7700 are set for what event?
Definition

7500- Hijack (Air Piracy)

7600- Loss of Communication

7700- General Emergency

 

AIM, 6-3-4, 6-4-2, and 6-2-2

Term
Risk management process begins at mission _____ and continues until mission ____.
Definition

Conception

Completion

 

AR 95-23, 3-7 (CRM) 

Term
What are the three types of reconnaissnace UAS can provide?
Definition

Route (ground and aerial)

Zone

Area 

FM 3-04.15, IV (2)

Term

Name 4 of the 8 qualities of Aircrew Coordination.

Definition

-Announce & acknowledge decisions & actions

-Ensure statements & directives are clear, timely, relevant, complete and verified

-Be explicit

-Direct assistance

-Prioritize actions & equitably distribute workload

-Situational Awareness

-Mission changes and updates

-Offer assistance

TC 1-600, Chapter 4

Term
Per the AR 95-23, what are the two primary references governing the operation of a specific UAS?
Definition

Operator's manuals and checklist

 

AR 95-23, 4-3

Term
When operating in noise sensitive area (Wildlife Refuges), all Army aircraft will maintain a minimum of ____ feet about the surface.
Definition

2,000 FT

 

AR 95-23, 5-4

 

Term
Describe how an out of sequence event is entered on the DA Form 7122-R.
Definition

The date in red ink

 

TC 1-600, 5-18

Term
A Shadow 200 System consists of...
Definition

The Shadow 200 TUAS System consists of the following:
4 AV, 

2 OSGCS with 2 GDT,

1 PGCS with 1PGDT,  

1 RVT/OSRVT

 

TM 1-1550-689-10-1, Pg 1-1

Term
In tactical airspace, whick key document directs the use of joint airspace and details the approved requests for airspace control measures?
Definition

Airspace Control Order (ACO)

 

FM 3-52, 1-77

Term
In Tactical Airspace, whick key document summarizes the Joint Force Commander's (JFC) guidance on airspace control, defines the joint force airspace control organization, and outlines the airspace control process?
Definition

Airspace Control Plan (ACP)

 

FM 3-52, 1-76

Term

 

In Tactical Airspace, which key document includes sensor employment, identification procedures, engagement procedures, weapon control procedures, and early warning dissemination?

Definition

Air Defense Plan

 

FM 3-52, 1-80

Term
What describes and directs the overall air operation, it provides the details for individual sorties to include targets, mission timing, weapons loads, air refueling data, call signs, and special instructions (SPINS)?
Definition

Air Tasking Order (ATO)

 

FM 3-52, 1-79

Term
The Nominal Ocular Hazard Distance (NOHD) is the minimum safe direct bean viewing distance. The NOHD for the Pop 300 Laser is?
Definition

328 yards (300m)

 

Shadow TM 1-1550-689-1,  Pg 4-12

Term
Which part(s) of the electromagnetic spectrum does the sun emit energy across?
Definition
The entire electromagnetic spectrum
Term
What are the four subgroups of the electromagnetic spectrum located between the visible light and the microwaves portions?
Definition

Near-Infrared

Mid-Infrared

Far-Infrared

Sub-MMW (Millimeter wave)

Term
The degradation of an IR signal is defined as?
Definition

Attenuation

 

FM 3-04.203, 4-101

Term
What are some considerations of FLIR optimization?
Definition

-The FLIR should be allowed to cool to proper operating temp before optimizing.

-Operator selects a scene that is rich in detail or best respresents the planned flight env.

-The operator selected the desired polarity.

-Only one control should be adjusted at a time, never simultaneously.

Term
What 6 variables could affect the ability to see with thermal imaging systems?
Definition

IR Crossover

FLIR sensor optimization

MRT

Aviator's proficiency and capabilities

Humidity

Obscurations (dust, haze, smoke)

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