Term
| What are the three steps in the mission approval process? |
|
Definition
Step one: Initial mission approval
Step two: Mission planning and briefing
Step three: Final mission approval
95-23, 2-12 (b) |
|
|
Term
| The operational use missions for a UAS include: |
|
Definition
Actual or simulated tactical and/or combat operations.
Unmanned aircraft crewmember training.
Intelligence.
Counternarcotics activities.
Support to search and rescue.
Research and development.
Maintenance flights.
Flight tests.
Repositioning or reassignment of aircraft.
Special use (humanitarian, disaster relief, and deployments).
Aeronautical research and space and science application.
Exercise command and/or supervision authority.
95-23, 3-2 |
|
|
Term
| Prohibited missions include: |
|
Definition
1) Army UAS will not be used to conduct flights for personal use.
2) Army UAS operations will not be conducted outside of those areas identified in paragraph 2–9.
3) Army UAS will not be operated in a manner outside of the definition of public aircraft
95-23, 3-4 |
|
|
Term
| Procedures for investigating and reporting UAS mishaps are prescribed in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What DA Form will be used to notify commanders and safety councils of anything affecting the safety of Army UA or related personnel and equipment? |
|
Definition
DA Form 2696 (Operational Hazard Report)
AR 95-23, 3-9
detailed in AR 385-10 (Army Safety Program) |
|
|
Term
| The UAS ATP standardizes UAC training and evaluations to ensure? |
|
Definition
Combat readiness
95-23, 4-5 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
hours, tasks, and iterations identified in appropriate ATMs;
UAS simulator; readiness level (RL) progression; and the annual proficiency and readiness test (APART).
95-23, 4-5 |
|
|
Term
| When UAC's have not flown within the past ___, they will receive ____? |
|
Definition
180; Refresher Training
95-23, 4-6 (b) |
|
|
Term
| Can a SFE be completed in the sims? |
|
Definition
Yes; with the approval of O-5 and above
95-23, 4-9 |
|
|
Term
| When will a PFE be conducted? |
|
Definition
At the discretion of the commander.
(2) At the direction of HQDA.
(3) By an IO or SO per the appropriate ATM.
(4) To determine an individual’s proficiency and/or currency.
(5) To determine which phase of training is appropriate for entry into or continuing in the ATP.
95-23, 4-9 (b) |
|
|
Term
| When will a CM be administered a Postmishap eval? |
|
Definition
Involved in a Class A or B
Class C at the discretion of the commander
95-23, 4-9 |
|
|
Term
The commander will investigate when ATP requirements are not met. The commander will complete the
investigation within ___? |
|
Definition
30 day of notification of failure
95-23, 4-10 |
|
|
Term
| The commander will take the following actions for a CM who failed to meet ATP requirements? |
|
Definition
Authorize up to one 30-day extension granted by O-5 and above.
Request a waiver
Enter restrictions into IATF and IFRF
Restrict from AC duties
95-23, 4-10 |
|
|
Term
| The UAC whose currency has lapsed must complete a ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Can simulators be used to reestablish currency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aircraft Commanders will selected by a commander in the grade of ? |
|
Definition
O-5 and above
95-23, 4-18 |
|
|
Term
| Mission Coordinator will be selected by commanders in the grade of ? |
|
Definition
O-5 and above
95-23, 4-21 |
|
|
Term
| Who will primarily train and evaluate IO's? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are UT's prohibited from evaluating ATM base and special tasks? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How much fuel reserve is needed for day and night flights? |
|
Definition
(day)- 30 minutes at cruise
(night)- 45 minutes at cruise
95-23, 5-2 |
|
|
Term
| Who will obtain departure, en route, destination, and alternate weather information before takeoff? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Destination weather must be forecast to be equal to or greater than VFR minimums at estimated time of arrival (ETA) through _____ after ETA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When there are intermittent weather conditions, ________ weather will apply |
|
Definition
Predominant
95-23, 5-2 (4) |
|
|
Term
| What weight class is Shadow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How often must the weight and balance records be checked for accuracy? |
|
Definition
at lease every 90 days
95-23, 7-6 |
|
|
Term
| All weight and balance records shall, as a minimum, be reviewed every _____? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Each class 1b UA shall be weighed when? |
|
Definition
(1) Overhaul or major airframe repairs have been accomplished.
(2) Modifications of 1 percent or greater of the UA’s basic weight have been applied.
(3) Any modifications or component replacements (including painting) have been made for which the weight and center of gravity cannot be accurately computed.
(4) Weight and center-of-gravity data records are suspected to be in error.
(5) The period since the previous weighing reaches 36 months for a Class 1b UA and 24 months for a Class 2 UA.
95-23, 7-7 |
|
|
Term
| Is currency considered an element of the ATP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is the primary training manager and trainer for the unit? |
|
Definition
The Commander
TC 1-600, 1-1 |
|
|
Term
What are the three types of training per the TC 1-600?
|
|
Definition
Individual, Crew, and Collective Training
TC 1-600, 1-6 |
|
|
Term
| What is the goal of the ATP? |
|
Definition
The goal of the ATP is to produce mission-ready UAS units.
TC 1-600, 2-1 |
|
|
Term
| The ATP consists of what four types of training? |
|
Definition
Qualification, Refresher, Mission, and Continuation Training
TC 1-600, 2-1 |
|
|
Term
| Who does the ATP apply to? |
|
Definition
Crewmember that perform duties controlling the flight of a UAS or the operation of its mission equipment as well as preparation, launch, and recovery tasks essential to operate the UAS.
TC 1-600, 2-2 |
|
|
Term
| How many training periods are there in the ATP training year? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When does the first training period begin? |
|
Definition
First day following the end of their birth month
TC 1-600, 2-3 |
|
|
Term
| Who many FAC levels are there? |
|
Definition
Three
(FAC's do not apply to DAC's)
TC 1-600, 2-6 |
|
|
Term
| Can FAC 3 CM's perform duties with Army UAS's? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do FAC 3 have currency requirements? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Can simulator requirements be waived for FAC 3? |
|
Definition
SHOULD NOT be waived
TC 1-600, 2-9 |
|
|
Term
| Do FAC 3 CM's have to maintain a current flight physical? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How often must FAC 3 CM's demostrate their proficiency? |
|
Definition
Within 90 days after FAC 3 designation and once annually thereafter
TC 1-600, 2-9 |
|
|
Term
| What is the Commanders Eval for? |
|
Definition
Determines the initial RL of newly assigned crewmembers
TC 1-600, 2-10 |
|
|
Term
| What does a Commander's Eval consist of? |
|
Definition
Records review and possibly a PFE
TC 1-600, 2-10 |
|
|
Term
| Within how many days must a CM complete a Commander's Eval? |
|
Definition
45 calendar days
TC 1-600, 2-10 |
|
|
Term
| If the initial RL cannot be determined by the records review or if the commander desires, the crewmember will undergo a ___? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Can graduates of a UAS qualification course,
who are on their first utilization tour, solely on the basis of a records review be assigned initial RL 2 or RL 1?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If, at the time of initial RL designation, ____ has passed since the UAC has completed any element of an APART, they must complete that element before RL 1. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ identify the training phase in which the operator is participating and measure readiness to perform assigned missions. |
|
Definition
Readiness levels
TC 1-600, 2-15 |
|
|
Term
| How many days does a CM have to progress from one RL to the next? |
|
Definition
90 consecutive days
TC 1-600, 2-16 |
|
|
Term
| RL progression will exclude days lost because of? |
|
Definition
TDY
Medical or nonmedical suspension
Approved leave
Grounding of UAS
UAS unavailable or transit due to deployment
Tc 1-600, 2-16 |
|
|
Term
| If the exclusion period exceeds ____, operators must restart their current RL progression. |
|
Definition
45 consecutive days
TC 1-600, 2-16 |
|
|
Term
| RL 3 is considered what type of training? |
|
Definition
Qualification/Refresher Training
TC 1-600, 2-17 |
|
|
Term
| An operator progresses from RL 3 to PL 2 by demonstrating proficieny in all ____ to an SO/IO. |
|
Definition
Base tasks
TC 1-600, 2-17 |
|
|
Term
| A crewmember returning to an operational flying position after not having flown within the previous ___ must be designated RL for refresher training. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are there task or iteration minimums or APART requirements while RL 3? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of training is RL 2? |
|
Definition
Mission Training
TC 1-600, 2-18 |
|
|
Term
| To progress from RL 2 to RL 1, an operator must show proficieny in what tasks? |
|
Definition
Selected mission and additional task
TC 1-600, 2-18 |
|
|
Term
| What type of training is RL 1? |
|
Definition
Continuation Training
TC 1-600, 2-19 |
|
|
Term
Unit trainers and evaluators may credit toward their semiannual flying-hour minimums those hours they fly while performing their duties
True or False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Commanders prorate flying-hour/simulator minimums when a UAC? |
|
Definition
Is newly designated RL 1
Has primary UAS-redesignated
Change in duty position, which involes a change in FAC level
TC 1-600, 2-23 |
|
|
Term
If the minimums have not been met, commanders reduce minimums by 1 month for each 30 days the crewmember was unable to fly for the reason listed below. Then adds the total number of days lost because of______
|
|
Definition
TDY
Medical or nonmedical suspension
Grounding of UAS
UAS unavailable or in transit due to deployment
TC 1-600, 2-24 |
|
|
Term
| Can days in different categories may be added together for 30-day totals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Can concurrent days be added together? (simultaneous medical suspesion and TDY)
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is a crewamember removed from RL 1 for a training deficiency required to meet all RL 1 ATP requirements?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Can a task iteration performed at night may be substituted for a day task iteration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Can an LAO be given in the sims? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Annual chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) training is mandatory for all ___ and those ___ positions selected by the commander |
|
Definition
FAC 1
FAC 2
TC 1-600, 2-38 |
|
|
Term
| What does the APART consist of? |
|
Definition
Written examination and hands-on performance test
TC 1-600, 3-7 |
|
|
Term
| The Operators Manual Written Exam consists of how many questions? |
|
Definition
50 objective questions
TC 1-600, 3-8 |
|
|
Term
| The minimum passing score for the Operators Manual Written Exam is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| No notice eval may consist of? |
|
Definition
Flight or compatible sim
Oral
Written
TC 1-600, 3-10 |
|
|
Term
| A PFE is conducted to determine: |
|
Definition
Individual readiness level upon assignment to unit if RL cannot be determined by records review.
Proficiency when UAS curreny has lapsed.
Proficieny when quested by the commander.
TC 1-600, 3-11 |
|
|
Term
| What are the four phases in the evaluation sequence? |
|
Definition
Introduction
Academic's
Flight
Debrief
TC 1-600, 3-17 through 20 |
|
|
Term
| What are the four principles of Crew Coordination? |
|
Definition
Communicate effectively and timely
Sustain a climate of ready and prompt assistance
Effectively manage, coordinate, prioritize planned actions, unexpected events, and workload distribution
Provide situational aircraft control, obstacle avoidance, and mission advisories |
|
|
Term
| What are the four objectives in Crew Coordination? |
|
Definition
Establish and maintain team relations
Establish and maintain efficient workloads
Exchange mission information
Cross-monitor performance |
|
|
Term
| What is form number for the flight records folder? |
|
Definition
DA Form 3513
TC 1-500, 5-1 |
|
|
Term
| What form informs the CM ATP flying hour, task, and evaluation requirements? |
|
Definition
DA Form 7120
TC 1-600, 5-3 |
|
|
Term
What is the left side of the training folder?
|
|
Definition
DA form 7120 series
TC 1-600, Fig 5-1 |
|
|
Term
| Whats on the right side of the training folder? |
|
Definition
DA Form 7122
Grade slips
Miscellaneous
TC 1-600, Fig 5-1 |
|
|
Term
| When will units initiate a DA Form 7120? |
|
Definition
Crewmember integrated into a new ATP.
Crewmember begins a new ATP training year.
Crewmembers primary, additional, or alternate aircraft changes.
Amending the existing 7120 is impractical
TC 1-600, 5-4 |
|
|
Term
| What form is used to permanently record all individual CM evaluations and summaries? |
|
Definition
DA Form 7122
TC 1-600, 5-16 |
|
|
Term
| If an event is not entered at the proper time and several other events have been recorded, enter the date of the out-of-sequence in___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is the 7122 a permanent record? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What form is used with training programs that require a series of flight (RL progression, MC training, and aircraft qual)? |
|
Definition
DA Form 4507
TC 1-600, 5-24 |
|
|
Term
| What are the five steps in Risk Management? |
|
Definition
Identify the hazards
Assess the hazards
Develop controls and make decisions
Implement the controls
Supervise and evaluate
TC 1-600, 6-1 |
|
|
Term
| What are the semiannual flying requirements for FAC 1? |
|
Definition
24 hours/ 8 in each station
TC 1-600, B-1 |
|
|
Term
| What are the semiannual flying requirements for FAC 2? |
|
Definition
12 hours/ 4 in each station
TC 1-600, B-1 |
|
|
Term
| What are the semiannual flying requirements for FAC 3? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the semiannual simulation flying requirements for FAC 1? |
|
Definition
8 hours/ 3 in each station
|
|
|
Term
What are the semiannual simulation flying requirements for FAC 2?
|
|
Definition
| 4 hours/ 1 in each station |
|
|
Term
What are the semiannual simulation flying requirements for FAC 3?
|
|
Definition
3 hours either station
TC 1-600, B-1 |
|
|
Term
| How many sim hours may trainers and evaluators credit toward flying hours? |
|
Definition
12 simulation hours for FAC 1
6 simulation hours for FAC 2
TC 1-600, B-2 |
|
|
Term
| Can UTs, IOs, and SOs credit those hours flown while performing assigned duties at any crew position toward their semiannual flying-hours? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the Shadow currency requirements? |
|
Definition
Every 60 days a launch/recovery and 1 hour of operations of UAS or Sim
Every 180 consecutive days a launch/recovery and 1 hour operations of UAS |
|
|
Term
| What are the six elements for call for fire? |
|
Definition
Observer ID
Warning order
Target location
Target description
Method of engagement
Method of fire
TC 1-600, Task 2162 |
|
|
Term
| Who has the overall responsibility for temporary flying restrictions? |
|
Definition
Surgeon General
AR 40-8, 4 |
|
|
Term
| Aircrew will be restricted from flying duty for ___ hours after general, spinal, or epidural anesthesia and for a minimum of ____ hours after local or regional anesthesia, to include dental. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aircrew will not perform aviation duties for a minimum of ____ hours after the last drink consumed and until no residual effects remain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Medical restriction from flying duty will be for a minimum period of ____ hours following any immunization. If any type of reaction occurs, local or systemic, the aviator remains restricted from flying duties until cleared by a flight surgeon or APA. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aircrew members will not be regular (more than two times per year) blood or plasma donors. Following blood donation (____ cc or more), aircrew members will be restricted from flying duty for a period of ____ hours. Following plasma donation, aircrew members will be restricted from flying duty for a period of ____ hours. |
|
Definition
200 cc/72/24
AR 40-8, 2 (f) |
|
|
Term
| What type of vision must a crew member have? |
|
Definition
Correctable to 20/20
AR 40-8, 7 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Graphic representation of a portion of the earths surface drawn to scale, as seen from above.
FM 3-25.26 |
|
|
Term
| How accurate does a 4-6-8 digit grid square give you? |
|
Definition
4- w/in 1,000 meters
6- w/in 100 meters
8- w/in 10 meters
|
|
|
Term
| What are the major terrain features? |
|
Definition
| Hill, Valley, Saddle, Ridge, Depression |
|
|
Term
| What are the minor terrian features? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the supplementary features? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
3 SM
1,000 ft above
500 ft below
2,000 ft horizontal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
3 SM
1,000 ft above,
500 ft below
2,000ft horizontal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
3 SM
1,000 ft above
500 ft below
2,000 ft horizontal |
|
|
Term
| Class E above 10,000 ft MSL |
|
Definition
5 SM
1,000 ft above
1,000 ft below
1 SM horizontal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Day: 1SM, clear clouds
Night: 3 SM
1,000 ft above
500 ft below
2,000ft horizontal |
|
|
Term
| Class G more than 1,200 ft but less than 10,000 ft MSL |
|
Definition
Day: 1 SM
1,000 ft above
500 ft below
2,000 ft horizontal
Night: 3 SM
1,000 ft above
500 ft below
2,000 ft horizontal |
|
|
Term
| Class G more than 1,200 above surface and above 10,000 ft MSL |
|
Definition
5 SM
1,000 ft above
1,000 ft below
1 SM horizontal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Contains high volum of pilot training activities or an unuasual type of aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Activities are conducted under conditions so controlled as to eliminate hazards to nonparticipation aircraft |
|
|
Term
| Military Operations Area (MOA) |
|
Definition
| separate or segregate certain nonhazardous military activities from IFR traffic and to identify for VFR traffic where these activities are conducted |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| No person may operate an aircraft without the permission of the using agency |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Airspace which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restriction. Are designated joint use and IFR/VFR operations |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Extending from 3 nautical miles outward from the coast |
|
|
Term
| What are Newton's three laws of motion? |
|
Definition
Inertia, Acceleration, Action/Reaction
FM 3-04.203, 1-1 |
|
|
Term
| A body at rest will remain at rest, and a body in motion will remain in motion is which law of motion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Force required to produce a change in motion of a body is directly proportional to its mass and rate of change in its velocity is which law of motion? |
|
Definition
Acceleration
FM 3-04.203, 1-3 |
|
|
Term
| For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction is which law of motion? |
|
Definition
Action/Reaction
FM 3-04.203, 1-4 |
|
|
Term
| What principle describes the relationship between internal fluid pressure and fluid velocity? |
|
Definition
Bernoulli's Principle
FM 3-04.203, 1-5 |
|
|
Term
| As velocity of the airflow increases, ____ decreases above and below the airfoil. |
|
Definition
Static pressure
FM 3-04.203, 1-7 |
|
|
Term
| Static pressure differential on the upper and lower surfaces produces about ____ of the aerodynamic force called lift. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The remaining ____ of the force is produced as a result of action/reaction. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four forces of flight? |
|
Definition
Lift, Weight, Thrust, Drag
FM 3-04.203, Fig 1-8 |
|
|
Term
| The angle measured between the resultant relative wind and chord line is? |
|
Definition
Angle of Attack (AOA)
FM 3-04.203, Table 1-1 |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of airfoils? |
|
Definition
Symmetrical and nonsymmetrical
FM 3-04.203, 1-17 |
|
|
Term
| What is the component of the airfoil's TAF perpendicular to the resultant relative wind? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the component of the airfoil's TAF parallel to the resultant relative wind? |
|
Definition
Drag; the force opposing the motion of an airfoil through the air
FM 3-04.203, 1-65 |
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of drag? |
|
Definition
Parasite, Profile, Induced
FM 3-04.203, 1-68 |
|
|
Term
| What type of drag is incurred from the nonlifting portions of the aircraft (fuselage, engine cowlings, ect)? |
|
Definition
Parasite Drag
FM 3-04.203, 1-69 |
|
|
Term
| What type of drag is incurred from frictional resistance of the blades passing through the air? |
|
Definition
Profile Drag
FM 3-04.203, 1-70 |
|
|
Term
| Does parasite drag increase with airspeed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of drag is incurred as a result of production of lift? |
|
Definition
Induced
FM 3-04.203, 1-71 |
|
|
Term
| The vertical axis about which the aircraft ____ ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Lateral axis about which the aircraft ____? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Longitudinal axis about which the aircraft ____? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two forms of icing? |
|
Definition
Structural or induction icing
FM 3-04.203, 8-2 |
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of icing? |
|
Definition
Rime, clear, and mixed
FM 3-04.203, 8-4 |
|
|
Term
| What are the four levels of ice accumulation intensity? |
|
Definition
Trace
Light
Moderate
Severe
FM 3-04.203, 8-7 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
"The nonspecific response of the body to any demand"
TC 3-04.93, 3-1 |
|
|
Term
| Identify the four types of stressors |
|
Definition
Psychosocial, Environmental, Physiological (self-imposed), Cognitive (mental)
TC 3-04.93, 3-3 |
|
|
Term
| What is considered Phychosocial stressors? |
|
Definition
Job stress
Illness
Family issues
TC 3-04.93, 3-4 |
|
|
Term
| What is considered Physiological (Self-Imposed) Stressors? |
|
Definition
"DEATH"
Drugs
Exhaustion
Alcohol
Tobacco
Hypoglycemia
TC 3.04-93, 3-17 |
|
|
Term
| What are the four stress responses? |
|
Definition
Physical
Emotional
Behavioral
Cognitive
TC 3.04-93, 3-42 |
|
|
Term
| What are ways to manage stress? |
|
Definition
Avoiding stressors
Changing thinking
Learning to relax
Ventilation stress
TC 3-04.93, 3-60 |
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of fatigue? |
|
Definition
Acute
Chronic
Motivational Exhaustion (burnout)
TC 3-04.93, 3-65 |
|
|
Term
| Acute Fatigue can be chracterized by? |
|
Definition
Inattention
Distractibility
Errors in timing
Neglect of secondary tasks
Loss of accuracy and control
Lack of awareness of error accumulation
Irritability
TC 3-04.93, 3-67 |
|
|
Term
| Chronic fatigue can be characterized by? |
|
Definition
Insomnia
Depressed mood
Irritability
Weight loss
Poor judgement
Loss of appetite
Slowed reaction time
Poor motivation and performance on the job
TC 3-04.93, 3-68 |
|
|
Term
| What are the effect of fatigue on performance? |
|
Definition
Reaction-time changes
Reduced attention
Diminished memory
Changes in mood and social interaction
Impaired communication
TC 3.04-93, 3-70 |
|
|
Term
| What are some ways to prevent fatigue? |
|
Definition
Control the sleep environment
Adjust to shift work
Maintain good health and physical fitness
Practice good eating habits
Practice moderate, controlled use of alcohol and caffeine
Plan and practice good time management
Practice realistic planning
Maintain optimal working conditions
Take naps!!!
TC 3-04.93, 3-86 |
|
|
Term
What are Maslow's Hiearchy of needs?
(From bottom to top) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List four of the eight defense mechanisms |
|
Definition
Compensation
Projection
Repression
Denial
Reaction Formation
Fantasy
Displacement
Rationalization
IPH, Fig 1-4 |
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of learning? |
|
Definition
Purposeful
Result of experience
Multifaceted
Active Process
IPH, Fig 2-1 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A change in the behavior of the learner as a result of experience
IPH, 2-2 |
|
|
Term
| What are the factors the affect perception? |
|
Definition
Goals and values
Self concept
Physical organism
Opportunity and time
Threat
IPH, 2-7 |
|
|
Term
| What are the law of learning? |
|
Definition
Readiness
Exercise
Effect
Primacy
Intensity
Recency
IPH, 2-10 |
|
|
Term
| What are the domains of learning? |
|
Definition
Cognitive (thinking)
Affective (feeling)
Psychomotor (doing)
IPH, 2-12 |
|
|
Term
| What are the levels of learning? |
|
Definition
Rote
Understanding
Application
Correlation
IPH, Fig 2-10 |
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of learning? |
|
Definition
Purposeful
Result of experience
Multifaceted
Active Process
IPH, 2-16 |
|
|
Term
| What are the types of practice? |
|
Definition
Deliberate
Blocked
Random
IPH, 2-22 |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of multitasking? |
|
Definition
Attention switching
Simultaneous performance
IPH, 2-24 |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of errors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are four (of 6) ways to reduce errors? |
|
Definition
Learning and practice
Taking time
Checking for errors
Using reminders
Developing routines
Raising awareness
IPH, 2-28 |
|
|
Term
| What is the dominant force that governs the students progress and ability to learn and can be used to advantage by the instructor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of memory? |
|
Definition
Sensory
Short-term
Long-term
IPH, 2-32 |
|
|
Term
| According to the IPH, what are the theories of forgetting? |
|
Definition
Retrieval failure
Repression or suppression
Interference
Fading
IPH, 2-34 |
|
|
Term
| What are the basic elements of communication? |
|
Definition
Source
Symbols
Receiver
IPH, 3-2 |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 barriers to effective communication? |
|
Definition
Lack of common experience
Confusion between the symbol and symbolized object
Overuse of abstractions
Interference
IPH, 3-4 |
|
|
Term
| What are the phases of the demonstration performance method? |
|
Definition
Explanation
Demonstration
Student performance
Instructor supervision
Evaluation
IPH, Ch 4 |
|
|
Term
| What are the four essential teaching skills? |
|
Definition
Management skills
Assessment skills
People skills
Subject matter expertise
IPH, 4-2 |
|
|
Term
| Name 4 of 6 characteristics of an effective question? |
|
Definition
Specific purpose
Clear in meaning
Contains single idea
Stimulates thought
Definite answers
Relates to perviously covered info
IPH, 4-14 |
|
|
Term
| What are four characteristics of a good test? |
|
Definition
Reliability
Validity
Useability
Objectivity
Comprehensiveness
Discrimination
IPH, Fig 5-3 |
|
|
Term
| Name 4 of 6 obstacles to learning? |
|
Definition
Unfair treatment
Discomfort, illness, fatigue, and dehydration
Impatience
Anxiety
Lack of interest
Apathy due to inadequate instruction
IPH, 8-3 |
|
|
Term
| What are the Pilot's Self Assessment steps? |
|
Definition
Illness
Medication
Stress
Alcohol
Fatigue
Eating |
|
|
Term
| According to B Co SOP, what is the minimum safe altitude for Shadow ops? |
|
Definition
| 500 FT, unless otherwise directed by the MC |
|
|
Term
| Only designated mission essential personnel will approach within ____ of an AV that has been inspected for flight ops? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Stryker UA's will depart/enter A&E at minimum of ____? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Prior to commanding UA to A&E, the AO MUST ensure points nav radius defaul of ____ is loaded. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| TALS planned Abort procedures will only be conducted when previously coordinated with ATC by requesting? |
|
Definition
TALS ___ approach with option
B Co SOP |
|
|
Term
| Staff journal logs will be kept for ___? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When performing weekly inspections on the gear, slack will be pulled out every ____? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is the MC authorized to launch an aircraft without the gear being fully emplaced while Hunter is in the hold position? |
|
Definition
Yes, the energy absorbers must be torqued, 13-1 completed and a minimum of two gear personnel is position
B Co SOP |
|
|
Term
| Fire points will be marked with? |
|
Definition
| Red Chem-lites or Runway lights
B Co SOP |
|
|
Term
| Flights into West Range will maintain an assigned altitude of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Flights into East Range will maintain a minimum altitude of? |
|
Definition
10,000 FT MSL as required for transition from West to East Range
B Co SOP |
|
|
Term
| Flights between ____ and ___ should maintain an altitude of at least 10,000 FT MSL in East or West Range. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Transition between East and West Range will be done at 10,000 FT MLS utilizing the ___ ____ or as directed by ATC. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Flight ops will end as soon as possible when any weather ___ has been issues from LAAF. |
|
Definition
Warning (not advisory)
B Co SOP |
|
|
Term
| All UAS flight ops will be suspended ASAP when lightning activity is within ____ of ops. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| All oudoor training ops will begin preparations for suspending ops when lighting is within ___ of L&R site. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| All ground ops will cease when lighting is within ___ of the L&R site. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| IAW with B Co Standardization SOP, the four 2000 series tasks are? |
|
Definition
2000- Cold weather ops
2005- Desert and hotweather ops
2010- Turbulence and thunderstorm ops
2015- Mountain ops
B Co Stands SOP |
|
|
Term
| No-Notice evals will be conducted at least ____? |
|
Definition
Once annually
B Co Stands SOP |
|
|
Term
| CM's may not progress to RL 1 until ACT-E qual/sustainment is completed if it has been more than ____ since the last ACT training. |
|
Definition
12 months
B Co Stands SOP |
|
|
Term
| AC must pass a written exam with at least ___? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| MOI training and evaluation will not exceed _____ unless authorized by the B Co Commander. |
|
Definition
30 Calendar days
B Co Stands SOp |
|
|
Term
| What are the Simulation MOI minimums? |
|
Definition
| Observe and instruct 3 solo flights and 3 crew rides under the guidance of an SO.
B Co Stands SOP |
|
|
Term
| What are the simulation refresher MOI minimums? |
|
Definition
| instruct two flights (any combination)
B Co Stands SOP |
|
|
Term
| What are the flightline MOI minimums? |
|
Definition
instruct one AO, PO, and L&R
B Co Stands SOP |
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible to ensure all scheduled CM's are in compliance with AIRF Flip Card System prior to flight ops? |
|
Definition
The Aircraft Commander
B Co Stands SOP |
|
|
Term
| No shadow launches will be attempted ____ prior to the close of airspace. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the seven colors on a map? |
|
Definition
| Black, Red-Brown, Blue, Green, Brown, Red and other |
|
|
Term
| What does the color "Black" indicate on a map? |
|
Definition
| Cultural (man-made) features |
|
|
Term
| What does the color "Red-Brown" indicate on a map? |
|
Definition
Identifies cultural features, all relief features, nonsurveyed spot elevations and elevations such as contour lines on red-light readable maps.
FM 3-25.26 |
|
|
Term
| What does the color "Blue" indicate on a map? |
|
Definition
| Identifies hydrography or water features |
|
|
Term
| What does the color " Green" indicate on a map? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the color "Red" indicate on map? |
|
Definition
Cultural features, such as populated areas, main roads, and boundaries on older maps.
FM 3-25.26 |
|
|
Term
| What level of accuracy does a 10 MGRS grid give you? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of North? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of tactical airspace control? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Spins highlist, modifies, or supplements data contained in the ____? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is used principally to separate fixed and rotary winged aircraft? |
|
Definition
Coordinating Altitude
Coordinating Levels |
|
|
Term
| What are the four things that affect the amount of IR energy an object will radiate? |
|
Definition
Transmittance
Emissivity
Absorbtance
Reflectance |
|
|
Term
| What does "IR" stand for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the lowest thermal difference that can be resolved called? |
|
Definition
| Minimum Resolvable Temperature (MRT) |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a variable affecting the ability to see with thermal imaging systems?
Visible Light
MRT
Thermal Crossover
Humidity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of weather forecasts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Within what time period must a birth month DA Form 759 series closeout in the IFRF be completed? |
|
Definition
| Within 10 working days after birth month |
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of airspace separtion in Tactial Airspace? |
|
Definition
| Lateral, Vertical, and Time |
|
|
Term
| What must occur for a FAC 3 UAC to perform flying duties? |
|
Definition
| Change in FAC level/Duty Position |
|
|
Term
During RL progression, CM's must demonstrate proficiency in each mode of flight (Day or Night) required by ATM & CTL for each task. The provision pertaining to the more demanding mode of flight does not apply.
T or F |
|
Definition
True, this only applies to Annual Task and Iteration Requirements
TC 1-600, 2-16 |
|
|
Term
Individuals are the best judge of their own impairment resulting from sleep loss.
T or F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Class 4 lasers are defined as... |
|
Definition
Pulsed, visible, near-infrared lasers that produce diffuse reflections, fire, and skin and eye hazards, with the eyes being especially vulnerable
Shadow LP is Class 3b, LD is Class 4
TB MED 524, 4-2 and Table 4-1 |
|
|
Term
| Squawk Codes 7500, 7600, 7700 are set for what event? |
|
Definition
7500- Hijack (Air Piracy)
7600- Loss of Communication
7700- General Emergency
AIM, 6-3-4, 6-4-2, and 6-2-2 |
|
|
Term
| Risk management process begins at mission _____ and continues until mission ____. |
|
Definition
Conception
Completion
AR 95-23, 3-7 (CRM) |
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of reconnaissnace UAS can provide? |
|
Definition
Route (ground and aerial)
Zone
Area
FM 3-04.15, IV (2) |
|
|
Term
Name 4 of the 8 qualities of Aircrew Coordination. |
|
Definition
-Announce & acknowledge decisions & actions
-Ensure statements & directives are clear, timely, relevant, complete and verified
-Be explicit
-Direct assistance
-Prioritize actions & equitably distribute workload
-Situational Awareness
-Mission changes and updates
-Offer assistance
TC 1-600, Chapter 4 |
|
|
Term
| Per the AR 95-23, what are the two primary references governing the operation of a specific UAS? |
|
Definition
Operator's manuals and checklist
AR 95-23, 4-3 |
|
|
Term
| When operating in noise sensitive area (Wildlife Refuges), all Army aircraft will maintain a minimum of ____ feet about the surface. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe how an out of sequence event is entered on the DA Form 7122-R. |
|
Definition
The date in red ink
TC 1-600, 5-18 |
|
|
Term
| A Shadow 200 System consists of... |
|
Definition
The Shadow 200 TUAS System consists of the following:
4 AV,
2 OSGCS with 2 GDT,
1 PGCS with 1PGDT,
1 RVT/OSRVT
TM 1-1550-689-10-1, Pg 1-1 |
|
|
Term
| In tactical airspace, whick key document directs the use of joint airspace and details the approved requests for airspace control measures? |
|
Definition
Airspace Control Order (ACO)
FM 3-52, 1-77 |
|
|
Term
| In Tactical Airspace, whick key document summarizes the Joint Force Commander's (JFC) guidance on airspace control, defines the joint force airspace control organization, and outlines the airspace control process? |
|
Definition
Airspace Control Plan (ACP)
FM 3-52, 1-76 |
|
|
Term
In Tactical Airspace, which key document includes sensor employment, identification procedures, engagement procedures, weapon control procedures, and early warning dissemination? |
|
Definition
Air Defense Plan
FM 3-52, 1-80 |
|
|
Term
| What describes and directs the overall air operation, it provides the details for individual sorties to include targets, mission timing, weapons loads, air refueling data, call signs, and special instructions (SPINS)? |
|
Definition
Air Tasking Order (ATO)
FM 3-52, 1-79 |
|
|
Term
| The Nominal Ocular Hazard Distance (NOHD) is the minimum safe direct bean viewing distance. The NOHD for the Pop 300 Laser is? |
|
Definition
The Nominal Ocular Hazard Distance (NOHD) is the
minimum safe direct beam viewing distance. This
NOHD is the safe distance when viewing without the
use of magnifying optics (such as binoculars). The
NOHD for the laser is:
328 yards (300m) for the Lase Pointer (LP)
9.32 miles (15 km) for the Laser Designator (LD)
65.62 yards (60m) for the Laser Range Finder)
Shadow TM 1-1550-689-1, Pg 4-12 |
|
|
Term
| Which part(s) of the electromagnetic spectrum does the sun emit energy across? |
|
Definition
| The entire electromagnetic spectrum |
|
|
Term
| What are the four subgroups of the electromagnetic spectrum located between the visible light and the microwaves portions? |
|
Definition
Near-Infrared
Mid-Infrared
Far-Infrared
Sub-MMW (Millimeter wave) |
|
|
Term
| The degradation of an IR signal is defined as? |
|
Definition
Attenuation
FM 3-04.203, 4-101 |
|
|
Term
| What are some considerations of FLIR optimization? |
|
Definition
-The FLIR should be allowed to cool to proper operating temp before optimizing.
-Operator selects a scene that is rich in detail or best respresents the planned flight env.
-The operator selected the desired polarity.
-Only one control should be adjusted at a time, never simultaneously. |
|
|
Term
| What 6 variables could affect the ability to see with thermal imaging systems? |
|
Definition
IR Crossover
FLIR sensor optimization
MRT
Aviator's proficiency and capabilities
Humidity
Obscurations (dust, haze, smoke) |
|
|
Term
| This type of KILL BOX permits the integration of surface-to-surface indirect fires with air-to-surface fires into the purple kill box without further coordination with the establishing headquarters |
|
Definition
Purple Kill Box
FM 3-09.34, Chapter 2 |
|
|
Term
| This type of KILL BOX permits air-to-surface fires in the kill box without further coordination with the establishing headquarters. |
|
Definition
Blue
FM 3-09.34 Chapter 2 |
|
|
Term
| Per AR 95-23, UAS will not be intentionally flown into known or forecast _________ turbulence or into known _______ turbulence. |
|
Definition
| Per AR 95-23 (5-2c) UAS will not be intentionally flown into known or forecast extreme turbulence or into known severe turbulence. |
|
|
Term
| Per AR 95-23, Aircraft will not be intentionally flown into forecast _______ turbulence .... |
|
Definition
Per AR 95-23 (5-2c)Aircraft will not be intentionally flown into forecast severe turbulence unless the ACOM, ASCC, or DRU commander, or the Chief, NGB has established clearance procedures and—
(a) Weather information is based on area forecasts.
(b) Flights will be made in areas where encountering severe turbulence is unlikely.
(c) Flights are for essential training or essential missions only.
(d) Flight approval authorities are specified.
(e) Flights are terminated or depart turbulence if severe turbulence is encountered. |
|
|
Term
| What are the most important actions for the treatment of fatigue? |
|
Definition
The most important actions for treating fatigue are resting and getting natural (not drug-induced) sleep.
TC 3-04.93 (3-96) |
|
|
Term
| Name 3 typical Cognitive (mental) stressors |
|
Definition
"Musts" and "Shoulds"
Responsibility of Choice
Failure to focus on the here and now
TC 3-04.93 (3-39, 3-40, 3-41, 3-42) |
|
|
Term
| How long are Crewmembers restriced from flying after an immunization that they had a reaction to? |
|
Definition
Medical restriction from flying duty will be for a minimum period of 12 hours following any immunization. If any type of reaction occurs, local or systemic, the aviator remains restricted from flying duties until cleared by a flight surgeon or APA.
AR 40-8, 6 (2)d |
|
|
Term
| Out of concrete, soil, vegetation, and water, which items do not cross over with each other? |
|
Definition
Soil, concrete, and water cross over twice daily. However, soil and concrete do not cross over with vegetation.
FM 3-04.203 4-105 |
|
|
Term
| What determines the ammount of IR energy an object will radiate when exposed to X level of thermal energy for x amount of time? (4 parts to answer) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
According to Maslow, there are 6 human needs that must be met to encourage Learning. List the first 4 from bottom to top (of the pyramid). THe last two are:
1.____________________
2.____________________
3.____________________
4.____________________
5. Cognitive and Aesthetic
6. Self Actualization_____ |
|
Definition
1.Physiological Needs
2.Safety and Security
3.Love and Belongingness
4.Self-Esteem
5. Cognitive and Aesthetic
6. Self Actualization |
|
|
Term
| According to FAA-H-8083-9A (Aviation Instructor's Handbook), what are the 8 Characteristics of Effective Assessment? |
|
Definition
1. Objective
2. Flexible
3. Acceptable
4. Comprehensive
5. Constructive
6. Organized
7. Thoughtful
8. Specific
Page 5-3 |
|
|
Term
| UAS ground crewmember that are authorized to start up, launch, and recover aircraft must be evaluated by an IO how often? |
|
Definition
Semi-annually on all functions they are required to perform.
AR 95-23, 4-26 |
|
|
Term
| Bernoulli's principle (simple definition) |
|
Definition
| As fluid velocity increases, static pressure decreases. |
|
|
Term
| What are SPINS and how do they apply to Army UAS? |
|
Definition
| In tactical airspace, they are Special Instructions which highlight, modify, and supplement data in Air Tasking Order (ATO). |
|
|
Term
Which item listed below is NOT part of the Aircrew Training Program (ATP)?
a. Readiness Level Progression
b. APART
c. Currency Requirements
d. Tasks |
|
Definition
c. Currency Requirements
AR 95-23, 4-5 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
T-54/T-55
Main battle tank for Soviet Union |
|
|
Term
Per the TC 1-600, Name 2 of 3 times a Profiency Flight Evaluation (PFE) will be conducted?
|
|
Definition
1. Commander's Evaluation when RL cannot be determined by records review.
2. When currency has lapsed, or
3. When proficiency is questioned by the commander.
TC 1-600, 3-11 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The employment of friendly weapons and munitions with
the intent to kill the enemy or destroy his equipment or
facilities, which results in unforeseen and unintentional
death or injury to friendly personnel. (FM 5-19 Glossary) |
|
|
Term
| What does HIRTA stand for? |
|
Definition
| High Intensity Radio Transmission Areas |
|
|
Term
| What does LASER stand for? |
|
Definition
| Light Amplification Stimulated Emission Radiation. |
|
|
Term
| Aircrew members requiring correcting lenses in order to achieve 20/20 vision will be restricted from flying duties unless they are wearing either __________ or ________ ________ which provide 20/20, or better, near and far vision bilaterally. |
|
Definition
| Spectacles or contact lenses AR 40-8 |
|
|
Term
| The three types of vision are? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For the Army National Guard (ARNG) crewmembers, when is the ATP training year? |
|
Definition
The training year coincides with the fiscal year. The first training period begins 1 October and ends 31 March. The second training period begins 1 April and ends 30 September.
TC 1-600, 2-4 |
|
|
Term
| Class E Airspace map simbols |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In a METAR, what do the following weathr phenomena symbols mean:
RA, SN, UP, FG, FZFG, BR, HZ, SQ, FC, TS, GR, GS, FZRA, and VA |
|
Definition
RA: liquid precipitation that does not freeze
SN: frozen precipitation other than hail
UP: precipitation of unknown type
FG: fog
FZFG: freezing fog
BR: mist
HZ: haze
SQ: squall
FC: funnel cloud/tornado/waterspout
TS: thunderstorm
GR: hail
GS: small hail (<1/4 inch)
FZRA: freezing rain
VA: volcanic ash |
|
|
Term
| In a METAR, what do the terms R04/P1500N and R22/P1500U mean? |
|
Definition
- R04/P1500N indicates the Runway Visual Range (RVR) along runway 04 is 1,500 m (4,900 ft) and not changing significantly.
- R22/P1500U indicates RVR along runway 22 is 1,500 m (4,900 ft) and rising.
NOTE: if feet are used, the distance is appended with FT (e.g. R11/P6000FT) |
|
|
Term
| When attempting to recover from 24 to 48 hours of sleep deprivation, the individual should not sleep longer than ____ hours. |
|
Definition
10 hours
TC 3-04.93, 3-98 |
|
|
Term
| What's on the right side of the Individual Flight Records Folder (IFRF)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Class B Airspace symbology |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Class C Airspace Symbology |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Class D Airspace symbology |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is on the left side of the Individual Flight Records Folder (IFRF)? |
|
Definition
From top to bottom:
1. Supplemental documents
a. 120-day notices (termination)
b. Miscellaneous
c. ATP extensions/waivers
d. CAFRS DISK
2. Medical
a. DA Form 4186
b. Temporary med waivers
c. Permanent med waivers
3. Orders
a. All flight orders
b. DA Form 7120-R (CTL)
c. Basic/senior/master aviator badge orders |
|
|
Term
| Before a Non-Uniformity Correction (NUC) is performed, the PO must determine the most suitable background for the NUC. What are the 4 suggested backgrounds to be used for the NUC? |
|
Definition
Large body of water
Sky
Ground
Internal
TM 1-1550-689-10-1, Pg 4-54 |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 types of lighting in the GCS? |
|
Definition
Normal
Blackout
Maintenance
TM 1-1550-689-10-1, Pg 2-360 |
|
|
Term
| Per the IPH (2008), which defense mechanism is present when 'a person fakes a belief opposite to the true belief because the true belief produces anxiety'? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Per the IPH (2008), which defense mechanism is present when using 'a subconscious technique for justifying actions that otherwise would be unacceptable'? |
|
Definition
Rationalization
IPH (2008) Pg 1-7 |
|
|
Term
| Per the IPH (2008), which defense mechanism is present when there is an 'unconcious shift of emotion, affect, or desire from the original object to a more acceptable, less threatening substitute'? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Per the IPH (2008), which defense mechanism is present when 'a student engages in daydreams about how things should be rather than doing anything about how they are'? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Defense mechanism when a person places uncomfortable thoughts into inaccesible areas of the unconcious mind |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 4 steps of the teaching process (per IPH) |
|
Definition
Preparation
Presentation
Application
Review and Evaluation
2008 IPH 6-8 |
|
|
