Term
| What are the two components of blood and what are their constituents? |
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Definition
| Plasma consisting of dissolved nutrients, albumin, Ig, blood clotting factors; and, cellular consisting of RBC, WBC, and platelets. |
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Term
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Definition
| Plasma with clotting factors removed |
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Term
| What is the usefulness of testing blood plasma or serum? |
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Definition
| To check organ function or find evidence of cellular destruction |
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Term
| List 3 major features of RBC. |
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Definition
| Major function is O2 and CO2 transport by Hgb, cells are dead end (no nucleus, mitochon, division, protein synthesis), minimal metabolism, bi-concave for shape deformation, 120 circulation then cleared by macrophages in spleen |
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Term
| What are the 3 components of hemoglobin? |
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Definition
| 4 Globin chains(2alpha/beta), 4 heme poryphyrin rings, and 4 irons (to bind 4 O2 molecules) |
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Term
| Explain the binding affinities of O2 for hemoglobin. |
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Definition
| The higher the partial pressure of O2(lungs) more binding occurs, less pressure less affinity (tissues) |
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Term
| What are the indexes for men and women in RBC, Hemoglobin, Hematocrit? |
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Definition
| 4.4-6, 4.2-5.5; 14-18, 12-16; 40-54, 37-47 |
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Term
| When the RBC is degraded what happens to the poryphyrin ring and what happens when there is an excessive breakdown of RBC’s(hemeolysis)? |
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Definition
| Poryphyrin is broken down to bilirubin in spleen, excreted into bile from liver; excessive bilirubin can build up in blood causing jaundice |
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Term
| What is a normal WBC count? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the 5 types of WBCs aka leukocytes? |
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Definition
| Neutrophils (polymorphomuclear PMN), Basophils, Eosinophils, Lymphocyte (Tcell/Bcell), Monocyte (Dendritic cells/Macrophages) |
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Term
| What 3 types of cells are called granulocytes and why? |
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Definition
| Neutro/Baso/Eosinophils because they release cytoplasmic granules |
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Term
| What is the function of Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Basophils? |
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Definition
| Phago bacteria and secrete anti-microbials; phagocytic, secrete histamine, and anti-parasitic; release inflammatory mediators in allergic response |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
| What are the 2 important blood cell lineages and what distinguishes them? |
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Definition
| Lymphoid (lymphocytes) are long lived, and myeloid (all other blood cells) are short lived |
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Term
| True or False: A maturing erythrocyte is called a reticulocyte, stains more and more pink as Hgb is made, matures in 1-2 days, loses nucleus and organlles. |
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Definition
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Term
| True or Flase: a maturing PMN is in “band” form, develops granules, nucleus becomes segmented, can be seen in circulation is high demand for PMNs, last 5-7 hours when mature. |
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Definition
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Term
| All myeloid cells are terminally differentiated when released into circulation except…? |
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Definition
| Monocytes, they go to tissues to differentiate and turn on adaptive immune system |
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Term
| True or False: Platelets have a nuleus, have granules of clotting factors, last 10-12 days, and come from cytoplasm of megakaryocytes. |
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Definition
| True, except they have no nucleus. |
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Term
| What is cytopenia and therefore anemia, neutropenia, lymphopenia, thrombocytopenia, pancytopenia? |
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Definition
| Too few cells due to production or destruction; low RBC, neutros, lymphos, platelets, all cells. |
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Term
| What is cytosis/cytophilia? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the difference between Primary and Secondary cytosis/cytophilia? |
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Definition
| Primary is uncontrolled production with no stimulus that is either proliferative or neoplastic(leukemia); Secondary is normal response to stimulus |
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Term
| What is the difference in location of hematopoiesis in adults versus growing embryo/fetus? |
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Definition
| Adults all blood cells in marrow (less with age due to fat deposition), embryo in yolk sac, fetus in liver/spleen/marrow by 11 weeks and marrow is primary site at 24 weeks |
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Term
| Where are these growth factors made and what do they do to pluripotent stem cells: Erythropoietin, G-CSF/GM-CSF, Thrombopoietin? |
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Definition
| Kidney for RBCs, bone marrow stroma for granulo/monocytes, many tissues for megakaryocytes |
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Term
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Definition
| A reaction of tissues to injurious agents whereby fluid, WBC, and other blood elements accumulate at the site of injury |
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Term
| What is the difference between lectin, selectin, integrins? |
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Definition
| Lectins are proteins that specifically bind to a sugar group, selectins are cell adhesion molecules the bind to sugar, integrins are dimeric receptors and cell adhesion molecules |
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Term
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Definition
| Transudate fluid with higher protein content that that flows from the circulatory system to the site of inflammation |
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Term
| On the microscopic scale, what is the difference between acute and chronic inflammation? |
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Definition
| In chronic inflammation there is an accumulation of mononuclear cells and fibroblasts called granulomas, angiogenesis, fibrosis |
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Term
| What are the 5 steps of an acute inflammation reaction of blood vessels? |
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Definition
| Brief vasoconstriction of arterioles; vasodilation due to prostaglandin, endothelium relaing factor, and NO stimulated by stuff from mast cells; mast cells cause endothelial tight junctions to leak letting fluid out of venules; adherence of WBCs to endothelium due to signal molecules; WBCs exudates and move to inflammatory site via chemotaxis |
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Term
| What are the 3 steps involved in the interactions of leukocytes and endothelium in an acute inflammatory response? |
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Definition
| Weak adhesion of cells and endothelium due to selectins, strong adhesion of integrins, selective adhesion of each WBC depending on stimulus; all steps regulated by amount of inflammatory mediators present which affect affinity and receptors |
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Term
| What is the difference between a cytokine and a chemokine? |
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Definition
| Cytos are any hormone secreted by immune system, chemos are ctyos that also are chemotactic |
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Term
| What is the acute phase reaction? |
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Definition
| The change in protein composition of plasma during inflammation |
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Term
| What is respiratory burst? |
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Definition
| The increase in O2 consumption by phagos that make the oxygen into microbicides |
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Term
| True or False: These are all chemoattractant factors released by inflammatory cells and endothelium - interleukin-8 (IL8), monocyte chemo peptide (MCP), leukotriene (B4), platelet activating factor (PAF) |
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Definition
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Term
| True or False: High concentrations of chemotactic factors inhibit activated state of phagos, increasing receptors, releasing secretory granules, and generate ROS. |
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Definition
| False, they induce activated state |
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Term
| True or False: These are the least common phagocytic receptors - Fc, C3b, C3bi, sugar recognizers |
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Definition
| False, these are most common |
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Term
| Elaborate on phagocytosis when a phago receptor is stimulated. |
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Definition
| Phago receptors stim the cytoskeleton, membrane extension occurs and engulfs pathogen, creates phagosome inside cell, this induces the fusion of granules to phagosome, activation of NADPH oxidase |
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Term
| What is CGD, chronic granulomatous disease? |
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Definition
| Genetic absence of respiratory burst in phagos |
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Term
| In regards to neutrophils, what do their primary and secondary granules contain? |
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Definition
| Phagocytic granules that work in the cell, secretory granules like lactoferrin and antimicrobial peptides that work outside the cell |
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Term
| List the key features of a virus. |
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Definition
| Made of either RNA or DNA, contain a capsid shell, some have membrane envelope around capsid, viral proteins bind to cell receptors, completely dependent on host for energy/protein synthesis/replication |
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Term
| Define an obligate intracellular parasite. |
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Definition
| A parasite, like viruses, that can only exist as a parasite, not an independent entity. They cannot generate energy, they do not have ribosomes or membranes with ionic potential. |
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Term
| Which of the following are eukaryote pathogens: fungi, yeast, molds, unicellular parasites (protozoans), multicellular parasites (worms)? |
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Definition
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Term
| Bacteria are unicellular, with no nucleus, one chromosome, and have a 70S ribosome: is it eukaryotic or prokaryotic? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the 3 components of immune response? |
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Definition
| Innate immunity, adaptive immunity, immunological memory (part of adaptive) |
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Term
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Definition
| The fast, non-specific gene encoded response to general classes of pathogens; molecules on the pathogen called PAMP (pathogen associated molecular pattern) activate Toll-like receptors in body, which then secrete cytokines which induce an immune response and inflammation. |
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Term
| Define adaptive immunity. |
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Definition
| A highly specific process that takes 3 days to start and 5-7 days to be operational, which is composed of activated T-cells and B cell antibody production. |
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Term
| What is immunological memory? |
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Definition
| The part of adaptive immunity involving a rapid response to specific pathogens previously encountered due to endogenous antibodies. |
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Term
| What is the difference between our bodies adaptive response to extracellular pathogens versus intracellular? |
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Definition
| Extra-paths, like bacteria, are neutralized by antibodies and complements; intra-paths, like fungi and viruses, are killed by CD4 Th1 cells that upregulate intra-cell toxins and CD8 cytotoxic cells, respectively. |
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Term
| What is a protease cascade? |
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Definition
| One protease activates many molecules of proteases by cleaving inhibitory fragments. |
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Term
| In the complement system there are 3 pathways, what are they and how are they induced? |
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Definition
| Classical by antibody-anitgen complexes, alternative by contact with microbes, and lectin by contact with microbial sugars. |
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Term
| True or False: the three sensor proteins for the classical, alternative, and lectin pathways of the complement system are - C1q, C3, and MBP (mannose binding protein). |
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Definition
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Term
| In the complement system the three pathways all come together in which series of steps? |
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Definition
| C3->C5->C6-C9->C5b-C9 attack complex, these also induce other bioactive fragments |
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Term
| The complement system creates opsonins (C3b) and anaphylotoxins (C3a/C5a), what are they? |
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Definition
| Opsonins bind to microbial surfaces and neutrophil receptors to induce phagocytosis; anaphylotoxins are chemotactic, increase vascular permeability, and release histamine from mast cells |
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Term
| Which protease inhibitors is used to confine the effects of complement, kinins, and neutrophil proteases to inflamed sites: a1-antitrypsin or a2-macroglobulin? |
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Definition
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Term
| Name the test useful in determining the course of chronic inflammatory disease by measuring the rate at which red blood cells settle from blood that have been treated to prevent clotting. |
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Definition
| Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate, if there is inflammation the sediment will occur faster due to fibrinogen and immunoglobins. |
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Term
| What does the C-reactive protein do in the complement system? |
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Definition
| Activates complement on bacterial surfaces, useful marker for inflammation |
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Term
| Which major organ produces acute phase proteins in response to cytokines IL-1, TNF-a, IL-6? |
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Definition
| Liver, they induce fever and neutrophilia |
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Term
| List the steps in the Kinin system, which causes vasodilation, edema, and pain. |
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Definition
| Vascular Injury/Bacteria->Hageman factor(factor XII)->preKallikrein->Kinnogen->bradykinin |
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Term
| Among lipid mediators, what is the difference between an autocoid and an eicosanoids? |
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Definition
| Autacoids are rapidly, locally synthesized chemicals that degrade quickly, whereas eicosanoids are an arachidonic acid derived group of autacoids. |
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Term
| What enzyme removes arachidonic acid from membranes? |
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Definition
| A2 phospholipases, which are the rate limiting step in eicosanoid synthesis |
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Term
| What are the 2 major groups of eicosanoids and which enzyme creates them from arachidonic acid? |
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Definition
| Leukotrienes from LOX, and Prostanoids (prostaglandin, prostacyclin, thromboxane) from COX |
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Term
| The end product of the LOX and COX enzymes depend on what? |
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Definition
| The terminal synthase which is cell dependent |
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Term
| All NSAIDS exert their effects by blocking which enzyme COX-1 (constitutive in cells) or COX-2 (inducible by stimuli/cytokines)? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Coxib drugs are able to effectively block inflammation but seem to tip the cardiovascular balance towards which direction: pro or antithrombotic? |
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Definition
| Prothrombotic, because they block COX2 selectively |
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Term
| What is the major roles played by leukotrienes versus prostanoids? |
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Definition
| Luekotrienes play a large role in chemotaxis, vasoconstriction, vasopermeability (released from mast cells/eosin/basophils); prostanoids are used in normal physiological functions as well as vasodilation, pain, edema( but thromboxane creates vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation) |
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Term
| What is the function of NO and how is it stimulated? |
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Definition
| Bradykinin or histamines (directly act as vasoconstrictors) act on endothelial cells in blood vessels releasing NO, causing smooth muscle relaxation. |
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Term
| Where are the similarities and differences between the serotonin and histamine? |
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Definition
| They both induce inflammation and vasodilation via NO, but histamine is stored in mast cells and serotonin is released from platelets |
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|
Term
| What is the function of neuropeptides like Substance P? |
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Definition
| They are released from nerve endings to regulate inflammation, induce vasodilation and permeability, and release histamines from mast cells |
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Term
| What structural feature between bacteria determines whether or not they stain Gram + or Gram - ? |
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Definition
| The positive (blue) bacteria have peptidoglycan cell wall and negative (pink) have lipopolysaccharide LPS outer membrane |
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|
Term
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Definition
| A component of gram negative bacteria’s lipopolysaccharide layer that induces fever, malaise, vasodilation, inflammation |
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Term
| In regards to innate immune response, can all of the following initiate and inflammation/immune response: flagellin, LPS, Double-stranded RNA, Unmethylated CpG, peptidoglycan, lipopeptides. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| How are LPS and other signals from pathogens recognized? |
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Definition
| Toll-like receptors, Complement mannose binding lectin, peptidoglycan recognition protein |
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Term
| List a few settings where chronic inflammation sets in when the acute inflammation fails. |
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Definition
| Pathogen is resistant to acute phase reaction, pathogen lives inside macrophages, autoimmune diseases, weakened acute inflammatory response |
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Term
| What is the role of interferon-gamma in the acute response? |
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Definition
| It is released by lymphocytes to activate macrophages (TNF-a also activates macros) |
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Term
| Which of these are morphologic patterns of acute and chronic inflammation: Serous fluid build-up(blister), Fibrinous deposition, Purulent/Supprative disruption, Ulcerated epithelial tissue. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What is a granuloma and what is a common disease that forms them? |
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Definition
| Chronic inflammatory response to stimulus causing an aggregate of epithelioid macrophages and lymphocytes around indigestible material; seen in tuberculosis with a necrotic center (caseating center) |
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Term
|
Definition
|
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Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between enveloped and non-enveloped viruses? |
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Definition
| Enveloped are less stable and tend to be transmitted host to host, non-enveloped are more environmentally stable and tend to be transmitted by the fecal oral route. |
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Term
| Which of these are the acute phase proteins released by the liver: complement proteins, c-reactive protein, serum amyloid A, a-1-antitrypsin, a-2-macroglobulin, coagulation factors. |
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Definition
| all of them are released. |
|
|
Term
| what is the function of albumin? |
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Definition
| maintain osmotic pressure |
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