Term
When the Acedemy FDIO is OTS, what action must be taken by the FD position? |
|
Definition
Copy/Request IFR Clearances |
|
|
Term
FD relays tower visibility to other tower positions, McAlester AFSS, and ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In an emergency situation, an Alert #2 would indicate a(n) __________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In an emergency situation, an Alert #3 would indicate a(n) __________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An aircraft ID may contain up to how many characters? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The phraseology used to assign a Standard Instrument Departure (SID).... |
|
Definition
(SID Name and number) DEPARTURE
E.G. Rainy 1 Departure |
|
|
Term
An example of the phraseology used to add a transition onto a SID is.. |
|
Definition
(SID Name and Number) Departure, (Name) Transition.
E.G. 'STROUDSBURG ONE DEPARTURE, SPARTA TRANSITION' |
|
|
Term
What phraseology is used to tell a pilot what routing to expect beyond a short range clearance limit if the route differs from what was filed? |
|
Definition
Expect Further Clearance Via (Location)
"EXPECT FURTHER CLEARANCE VIA VICTOR TEN TULSA" |
|
|
Term
What phraseology is used for an abbreviated departure clearance? |
|
Definition
'CLEARED TO (AIRPORT) AS FILED. MAINTAIN (DEPARTURE ALTITUDE)'
E.G. "CLEARED TO DUPAGE COUNTY AIRPORT AS FILED. MAINTAIN ONE ONE THOUSAND" |
|
|
Term
What phraseology is used for clearing an aircraft to the Tulsa Airport via V14? |
|
Definition
CLEARED TO TULSA AIRPORT VIA VICTOR FOURTEEN |
|
|
Term
What phraseology is used for clearing an aircraft to the Tulsa Airport via J104? |
|
Definition
CLEARED TO TULSA AIRPORT VIA JAY ONE ZERO FOUR |
|
|
Term
If the altimeter is 29.89, what is the lowest usable flight level? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where a higher alitude is required because of a MEA and a MCA is specified at the fix, when must an aircraft be cleared to begin climb? |
|
Definition
Prior to the fix, as to cross the fix at or above the MCA. |
|
|
Term
What phraseology is used to amend a previously issued clearance? |
|
Definition
'(Amendment to Route), REST OF ROUTE UNCHANGED' |
|
|
Term
Amend the altitude on UAL666 to FL240 and to cross ollis intersection at or above 3000, and to cross Gordonsville VOR at or above 12,000. |
|
Definition
'UNITED SIX SIXTY-SIX, AMEND ALTITUDE. CROSS OLLIS INTERSECTION AT OR ABOVE THREE THOUSAND, CROSS GORDONSVILLE V-O-R AT OR ABOVE ONE TWO THOUSAND. MAINTAIN FLIGHT LEVE TWO FOUR ZERO.' |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a duty of the Clearance Delivery Postion? A. issuing departure clearances B. passing the strip when clearance has been issued C. conducting and receiving position relief briefings. D. Ensuring Separation of Aircraft |
|
Definition
D. Separation of Aircraft |
|
|
Term
Hold for Release (HFR) instructions are ______. |
|
Definition
used to infor a controller that a departure clearance is not valid. |
|
|
Term
What is always included when issuing a departure clearance for relay to an aircraft by an FSS dispatcher? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What should be specified when NOT included in the SID? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Identify the seven clearance item sequence, not including Mach number. (there would be 8 with mach) |
|
Definition
1. Aircraft ID 2. Clearance Limit 3. SID 4. Route of Flight 5. Altitude Data 6. Departure Frequency 7. Transponder Code |
|
|
Term
Upon initial contact, what phraseology would be issued to UAL655 when a FRC must be issued? |
|
Definition
UAL655, ACADEMY CLEARANCE, FULL ROUTE CLEARANCE, ADVISE READY TO COPY. |
|
|
Term
Relay Tower Visibility to who? (3) |
|
Definition
Other Tower Positions McAlester AFSS Academy Approach |
|
|
Term
Forward PIREPS/braking action reports to who? (4) |
|
Definition
Other Tower positions Academy Approach McAlester AFSS Airport Managment |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Alert #1 - Minor Alert #2 - Major Alert #3 - Accident |
|
|
Term
Is approval needed from Ground to proceed to the accident if there is an Alert #3? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
First character of an Aircraft ID must be a what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is an Instrument Departure Procedure (DP)? |
|
Definition
A preplanned IFR departure procedure published for pilot use, in graphic or textural format.
Provides Obstruction Clearance from the Terminal area to the appropriate en route structure. |
|
|
Term
When do you assign a Preferential Departure Route (PDR) or the route filed by the pilot? |
|
Definition
A DP is not established
The pilot does not wish to use a DP |
|
|
Term
What must a pilot do if they do not wish to use a SID issued in an ATC Clearance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Altimeter setting for FL180?
(Lowest Usable Flight Level) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Altimeter setting for FL190?
(Lowest Usable Flight Level) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Altimeter Setting for FL200?
(Lowest Usable Flight Level) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Altitude and distance over mountainous terrain where MEA's have NOT been established? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If the requested altitude is NOT available, what is the pilot informed of? |
|
Definition
What to expect. When to expect it. Where to expect it. |
|
|
Term
Where MEA's have not been established, what action should be taken by the controller? |
|
Definition
Clear an aircraft at or above the minimum IFR operations |
|
|
Term
When 'FRC' is on a strip what action must be taken? |
|
Definition
Issue the Full Route Clearance |
|
|
Term
Abbreviated departure clearances should be issued to reduce ______? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What action is taken when 'FRC/(fix)' appears on a flight strip |
|
Definition
Issue the full route clearance to the specified fix. |
|
|
Term
What must be restated when the route or altitude in a previously issued clearance is amended? |
|
Definition
All applicable altitude restrictions. |
|
|
Term
Two ways to amend a route of flight. |
|
Definition
1. Portion being amended, then state amended. 2. State amendment, rest of route unchanged. 3. |
|
|
Term
What does EDCT stand for? |
|
Definition
Expected Departure Clearance Time |
|
|
Term
Who issues a time check to a pilot who has received a void time? |
|
Definition
Facility delivering the clearance. |
|
|
Term
When aircraft elect to take a delay on the ground, issue departure clearances in the order ___________. |
|
Definition
in which requests for clearance were originally made, if practicable. |
|
|
Term
If you suggest than an IFR aircraft take a delay on the ground, but the pilot insists on taking off VFR, what should be relayed to the approach control facility? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When a pilot reports an inflight equipment malfunction, controllers must determine the _________. |
|
Definition
nature and extent of special handling desired |
|
|
Term
An air traffic controller's first priority is separation of aircraft and _________. |
|
Definition
issuance of safety alerts |
|
|
Term
Controllers are required to provide additional services to the extent possible, contingent upon higher priority duties, radar limitations, traffic volume, and ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When must you issue a safety alert? |
|
Definition
When you observe an aircraft in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft. |
|
|
Term
What is the first action to take when an aircraft reports a NAVAID Malfunction? |
|
Definition
Request a report from a second aircraft. |
|
|
Term
MARSA. Provide separationg between participating military aircraft and ______. |
|
Definition
nonparticipating IFR aircraft |
|
|
Term
Control formation flights as ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When should use of another controller's airspace be coordinated for an aircraft under your control? |
|
Definition
Prior to entering the other controller's airspace. |
|
|
Term
When can you assume control of an aircraft being transferred to you? |
|
Definition
After it enters you area of jurisdiction.
Unless specified in an LOA or facility directive |
|
|
Term
When should radio communications of an aircraft under your control be transferred? |
|
Definition
Before entering the receiving controller's area of jurisdiction. |
|
|
Term
When are traffic advisories NOT provided to an aircraft. |
|
Definition
Class A Airspace
Omission requested by the pilot |
|
|
Term
A controllers responsibility for applying Traffic Management Initiatives and programs do NOT have priority over _________. |
|
Definition
maintaining seperation of aircraft |
|
|
Term
Aircraft assigned an EDCT should depart as close as possible to the EDCT but NO earlier than ____ minutes before and NO later than _____ minutes after the EDCT |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
One of the methods employed by Traffic Management personnel to minimize delays is ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When informed that an aircraft is responding to a TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA), do NOT ______ |
|
Definition
issue control instructions contrary to that advisory. |
|
|
Term
A ____________ must be made for any occurence involving air traffic services for which the collection of associated safety-related data and conditions is mandatory. |
|
Definition
Mandatory Occurrence Report. |
|
|
Term
When an aircraft is responding to an RA, traffic advisories and safety alerts regarding terrain and obstructions should be provided for _________. |
|
Definition
the aircraft responding to the RA and all other aircraft under your control jurisdiction. |
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of the four-step position relief briefing process? |
|
Definition
To ensure complete transfer of information |
|
|
Term
Who conducts the verbal briefing? |
|
Definition
The specialist being relieved. |
|
|
Term
When doess assumption of the position take place? |
|
Definition
After the relieving specialist makes a statement that responsibility has been assumed. |
|
|
Term
The Status Information Area (SIA) ________. |
|
Definition
displays current position-related information. |
|
|
Term
A list of items to be covered during a position relief briefing is called a ________. |
|
Definition
position relief checklist |
|
|
Term
When giving or receiving a position relief briefing, a specialist should NOT ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Problems may occur during the position relief briefing when there is heavy reliance on _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Both specialists are equally responsible for the completeness and accuracy of the _______. |
|
Definition
Position relief briefing. |
|
|
Term
During which step in the position relief briefing process does the relieving specialist review the SIA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During which step in the position relief briefing process does the relieving specialist verify the correctness of information received? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Before observing the operational situation and work environment that you are to relieve, you should review the ________. |
|
Definition
Status Information Area (SIA) |
|
|
Term
What is not a use of CRU-X Information? |
|
Definition
determining position responsibility. |
|
|
Term
After the relieving specialist indicates to the specialist being relieved that the position has been previewed, _______ may begin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ground Control shall ensure strip marking is completed for instructions or _____ issued or received. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ground Control must obtain approval from _____ before authorizing an aircraft or vehicle to cross or use any portion an an active runwway. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Local Control must verbally specify a runway to be crossed preceded by the word ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Departure information for departing aircraft includes braking action for the runway in use when _________ |
|
Definition
Braking action advisories are in effect. |
|
|
Term
What is the phraseology used to issue the time a pilot can expect to start engines when gate hold procedures are in effect? |
|
Definition
EXPECT ENGINE START (time) |
|
|
Term
Helicopter ground taxiing uses less fuel than hover-taxiing and _____. |
|
Definition
minimizes air turbulence. |
|
|
Term
Helicopter moveent above the surface at slow speed, generally below 20 knots and 25 feet AGL, is called ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Avoid clearances that require small aircraft or helicopters to taxi in proximity to taxiing or ______ helicopters. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When an emergency occurs on the airport proper, _______________________. |
|
Definition
control other air and ground traffic to avoid conflicts in the area where the emergency is being handled. |
|
|
Term
When you receive inforation that an emergency landing will be made with explosive cargo aboard, infor the pilot of the _________. |
|
Definition
Safest or least congested ariport areas |
|
|
Term
Who muct be notified of a departing aircraft that is being taxied to a nonactive runway? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
At Academy Tower, Ground Control Shall pass requests to close VFR flight plans to _______ for relay to the FSS. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
At Academy Tower, Ground Control receives the emergency checlist from _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
At Academy Tower, an emergency with low hydraulic pressure is considered an Alert #___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A determination can be made as to whether an aircraft on the ground has an operable receiver, but NO transmitter, by asking the pilot to _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When you believe an aircraft is experiencing a communications failure, broadcast clearances through any available eans of communication, including the voice feature of _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Do not issue ______ instructions dependent upon the moveent of arrival aircraft on the runway. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
DO not use the word "______" in conjunction with authorization for aircraft to taxi. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Issue the easured distance from the intersection to the runway end rounded down to the nearest ______ feet to any pilot who requests and to all military aircraft. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When a taxi clearance to a runway is issued to an aircraft, confirm that the aircraft has the correct ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A taxi clearance to an assigned takeoff runway, authorizes the aircraft to 'cross' all taxiways ______. |
|
Definition
The taxi route intersects. |
|
|
Term
Request a readback of runway hold short instructions when _______. |
|
Definition
it is not received from the pilot/vehicle operator. |
|
|
Term
Avoid clearances that ______. |
|
Definition
require heavy jet aircraft to use greater than normal taxiing power. |
|
|
Term
ILS Critical Area reported ceiling ____ feet, or visiblity ____ miles |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Four yellow lines. two solid and two dashed, extending across the width of a taxiway. |
|
Definition
Runway holding position marking. |
|
|
Term
Correct phraseology used to request Cheyenne 34T to hold short of RWY28R at charlie. |
|
Definition
CHEYENNE THREE FOUR TANGO, HOLD SHORT OF RUNWAY TWO EIGHT RIGHT AT TAXIWAY CHARLIE. |
|
|
Term
When would you use the word "IMMEDIATELY"? |
|
Definition
Only when expeditious compliance is required to avoid an imminent situation. |
|
|
Term
When would you use the word "EXPEDITE"? |
|
Definition
To avoid development of an imminent situation. |
|
|
Term
What is the first priority of duty for an Air traffic controller? |
|
Definition
Seperation and Safety Alerts |
|
|
Term
In most instances, controllers provide air traffic control services on a ____ basis. |
|
Definition
First Come First Serve Basis |
|
|
Term
Who has the right of way over all other air traffic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Are 'additional services' optional? |
|
Definition
No, Mandatory within limits. |
|
|
Term
When is a safety Alert issued? |
|
Definition
In your judgement an aircraft is in an unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft. |
|
|
Term
Two types of safety alerts are what? |
|
Definition
Terrain/Obstruction Alert (Low Altitude Alert)
Aircraft Conflict/Mode C Intruder Alert (Conflict Alert) |
|
|
Term
When an aircraft reports an inflight equipment malfunction, a controller must determine ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Two situations to avoid issuing frequency changes..... |
|
Definition
During critical phases of flight
Single Piloted, low level helicopters |
|
|
Term
When must use of airspace be coordinated? |
|
Definition
Before entering another controllers airspace. |
|
|
Term
Transfer control at a prescribed time, fix, location, and altitude and only afer_______. |
|
Definition
all potential conflicts have been resolved |
|
|
Term
When should a traffic advisory be issued? |
|
Definition
When proximity is leass than applicable minima. |
|
|
Term
Aircraft subject to a Ground Delay Program are issued a(n) ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Local and Ground control must exchange ______ as necessary for the safe and efficient use of runways. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ground Control must notify Local Control when an aircraft is taied to _____. |
|
Definition
an intersection for departure. |
|
|
Term
Departure delay information is issued to aircraft when delays exceed or are expected to exceed _______ minutes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Issue departure information to departing aircraft by including the time when _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The official ceiling and visibility is issued to departing IFR aircraft when the weather is _______. |
|
Definition
below VFR conditions or the highest takeoff minima. |
|
|
Term
Departure information about runway, wind, and altimeter may be omitted if a pilot uses the phrase "_____" |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Two pieces of information needed for emergency assistance. |
|
Definition
Fuel remaining in terms of time.
Number of people on board. |
|
|
Term
When an ELT (Emergency Locator Transmitter) is received by or reported to a terminal facility, immediately notify the _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When it is determined that an emergency aircraft has explosive material aboard, who should be notified? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What position at Academy Tower has the responsibility of collecting data listed on the emergency checklist? |
|
Definition
|
|