1. The maximum payload weight for a C-17 is ________ pounds.

A. 235,000

B. 164,900

C. 170,900

D. 185,000

C. 170, 900

2. Low EGT margin engines are more susceptible to ENG EGT X alerts on the WAP when OAT is at or above _________ and thrust is at or near maximum thrust?

A. 24 °C (75 °F)

B. 20 °C (68 °F)

C. 18 °C (65 °F)

D. 27 °C (81 °F)

A. 24 °C (75 °F)

3. The AP has two modes of operation; __________, and __________. 

      A. TAKEOFF, MSN

                   B. normal, AP DEGRADED

              C. standard, decluttered

D. MSN, PROF

B. normal, AP DEGRADED

4. AP DEGRADED mode will not engage below Vmma with invalid aircraft weights (both MC’s inop, etc).

A. True

B. False

B. False

5. The THRUST LOSS warning will extinguish when the ______ is reset.

   A. MASTER WARNING

  B. MASTER CAUTION

     C. EFCS PUSHBUTTON

D. AR READY LIGHT

B. MASTER CAUTION

6. In the event of boost pump failure, fuel can be suction fed by the engine driven fuel pump at ____ thrust rating up to an altitude of ____ feet and at a pitch angle no greater than 21.5 degrees.

                                  A. MAX; 20,000

                                  B. INT; 20,000

                                  C. MAX; 10,000

                                  D. INT; 10,000

C. MAX; 10,000

7. The engine starting system can be used in flight as well as on the ground.

A. True

 B. False

A. True

8. The starter is designed to start the engine with normal starting loads. Excessive loads are applied when the engine driven hydraulic pumps are on. A ______ may result if the pumps are on during engine start.

A. Hot Start

   B. Hung Start

  C. Cold Start

     D. Buddy Start

B. Hung Start

9. Engine Start Buttons: The button will stay in until engine N2 RPM reaches approximately _____ percent.

A. 18

B. 30

C. 51

D. 55

C. 51

10. The APU AUTO SHUT DN ORIDE switchlight will override all automatic shutdowns except ______.

                 A. an indicated Fire or overspeed

B. a fire and high EGT

         C. High EGT and overspeed

             D. Low oil press and high EGT

A. an indicated Fire or overspeed

11. To trigger an engine or APU fire annunciation,

     A. Both loops must be subjected simultaneously to fire for the warning system to be energized.

B. Only one of the loops must be exposed to a fire

  C. The fire detector control unit must be heated to a specific temperature and then the unit will energize the warning system

   D. The entire length of the sensing element must be exposed to direct flame

A. Both loops must be subjected simultaneously to fire for the warning system to be energized

12. The cargo compartment APU warning horn can be inhibited during ground operations by the ____ switch on the Entrance Light Panel.

A. OFF/ARM

B. AGENT DISCH

C. ORIDE

D. INTL HORN INHIBIT

D. INTL HORN INHIBIT

13. If FIREX AGENT DISCHARGE 1 POWER CB on the _________ is open, the ___________ will be

inoperative.

A. overhead panel, APU Fire Agent DISCH switch

B. right EPC, APU warning system

C. left EPC, the APU warning system

D. overhead panel, the APU fire and overspeed CAWS aural warning

A. overhead panel, APU Fire Agent DISCH switch

14. If an individual fuel tank indicator on the overhead is inoperative, the totalizer shows

A. Correct total fuel

B. A blank window

C. A series of dashes

D. Estimated fuel

A. Correct total fuel

15. When fuel quantities drop below approximately ____ lbs for the inboard tanks and ____ lbs for the outboard tanks, the respective transfer pumps become uncovered and ineffective.

A. 37,400; 24,500

B. 28,000; 12,000

C. 16,000; 4,000

D. 27,500; 16,000

B. 28,000; 12,000

16. With no source of electrical power to the aircraft and the battery switch OFF, only the __________ bus is powered since it is connected directly to the batteries.

A. AC Transfer

B. Battery

C. Battery Direct

D. DC Transfer

C. Battery Direct

17. The electrical system is normally operated in the ____ mode with generators No. 1 and No. 2 supplying left side

power and generators No. 3 and No. 4 supplying right side power.

A. Parallel

B. Alternate parallel

C. Split-parallel

D. Linked

C. Split-parallel

18. The battery switch must be ON to provide battery power to the _____.

A. Transformer rectifiers

B. Emergency buses

C. Transfer buses

D. AC buses

B. Emergency buses

19. As a minimum, the batteries are designed to provide emergency power for up to _____ of operation.

A. 15 minutes

B. 45 minutes

C. One half-hour

D. One hour

C. One half-hour

20. The aircraft batteries provide power to the __________ which provides power to the AC Emergency Bus.

A. Static inverter

B. Transformer rectifier

C. AC cross tie relay

D. Generator control unit

A. Static inverter

21. OBIGGS II: If there is a total loss of electrical power during high pressure pneumatic air supply operation, ___________ may result. Immediately shut down the pneumatic cart.

A. OBBIGS manifold failure

B. Fuselage fire

C. A hung start

D. Wing manifold failure

B. Fuselage fire

22. The _________ normally supplies conditioned air to the flight compartment, crew rest area, and avionics cooling system.

A. Trim air regulator

B. Ram air duct

C. Left air conditioning pack

D. Right air conditioning pack

C. Left air conditioning pack

23. If flight through contaminated air is experienced with the air conditioning pack(s) operating, the conditioned airflow used for avionics cooling _____.

A. Is unaffected

B. Will be contaminated

C. Is filtered

D. Is partially filtered

B. Will be contaminated

24. If ambient temperatures are above _____, avionics cooling air flow must be supplied from conditioned air augmentation (APU or air conditioner ground unit).

A. 100 degrees F

B. 95 degrees F

C. 90 degrees F

D. 85 degrees F

C. 90 degrees F

25. (Pressurization) If the primary controller malfunctions or fails, the

A. system can be semi-automatically controlled during climbs and descents

B. system must be manually controlled

C. monitor controller automatically performs the function of the primary controller

D. other automatic controller must be manually selected

C. monitor controller automatically performs the function of the primary controller

26. The cabin pressurization SEMI mode controls cabin pressure according to

A. The baro-corrected altitude set in the LDG ALT-FT display window

B. An optimum schedule determined by the A/PDMC

C. A schedule of 3000 ft. AGL along the mission computer flight plan

D. The altitude set in the window on the AFCS panel adjusted for terrain elevation from the NAV database

A. The baro-corrected altitude set in the LDG ALT-FT display window

27. If the cabin pressure differential exceeds 8.2 delta P, the _____ will automatically open.

A. Negative pressure relief valves

B. Cabin pressure relief valves

C. FEDS hatches

D. Maintenance/ditching hatch

B. Cabin pressure relief valves

28. A self-contained ice detector located in the No. _____ engine inlet detects ice formation on a sensing element within the detector strut.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

B. 2

29. Engine anti-ice provides icing protection to the engine fan blades.

A. True

B. False

B. False

30. The primary purpose of the transfer pump is to _____ in the event of No 2 or No 3 engine loss

A. Assist in cargo door/ramp closing

B. Assist in landing gear retraction

C. A & B

D. None of the above

C. A & B

31. When the RAT is the sole means of hydraulic pressure, do not slow below ____ as the RAT may stall and result in loss of aircraft control

A. 150 KCAS

B. 200 KCAS

C. 180 KCAS

D. 130 KCAS

D. 130 KCAS

32. The HSC determines the on demand pump operation in the following sequence of priority for hydraulic system No. 3

A. Primary, secondary, XFER, AUX pump

B. Primary, secondary, AUX, XFER pump

C. Primary, secondary, XFER, AUX pump, RAT

D. Primary, secondary, XFER pump, RAT

A. Primary, secondary, XFER, AUX pump

33. If steering commands from the tillers and rudder pedals are in disagreement

A. The rudder command will be overridden.

B. The tiller command will be overridden.

C. The system blends the rates to provide steering

D. The greater command is used

A. The rudder command will be overridden

34. If the nose gear torque link is disconnected:

A. Rudder pedals will not move

B. Nose wheel steering is not available

C. The nosewheel will not center upon retraction

D. EOCS is not available

B. Nose wheel steering is not available

35. Which hydraulic system powers the normal brakes?

A. No. 1

B. No. 2

C. No. 3

D. No. 4

B. No. 2

36. If ground speed on the MFD ND appears excessive:

A. No action is required

B. All four IRU's should be realigned if on the ground

C. In-flight turn off the IRU being used for navigation

D. Re-align only the IRU in large font on the appropriate NAV SENSORS page

B. All four IRU's should be realigned if on the ground

37. In the event of large disparity between the IRU ground speed and the anti-skid brake controller sensed ground speed, braking capability will be reduced. If in flight, accomplish the landing using ______.

A. Normal procedures

B. One brake inoperative procedures

C. Landing with Erroneous Ground Speed procedure.

D. Anti-skid inop procedures

C. Landing with Erroneous Ground Speed procedure.

38. Pitch Reference Trim is available _____.

A. Only with APPR mode engaged

B. With the FCS ACTR Panel PITCH TRIM switch in EFCS

C. With the FCS ACTR Panel PITCH TRIM switch in MECH

D. B & C

D. B & C

39. If the ________________ fails, automatic ground spoilers may not deploy during a rejected takeoff or subsequent landing.

A. TOGA switch

B. Speedbrake/DLC switch

C. GND SPLR/LAPES switch

D. Autothrottle disengage button

C. GND SPLR/LAPES switch

40. Which of the following will not disengage the autopilot?

A. Movement of the mechanical STAB TRIM handles

B. Retracting slats while the AFCS is engaged in TOGA mode

C. Aircraft exceeds 37 degree angle of bank

D. Actuating the flap index switch before engaging Approach Mode

D. Actuating the flap index switch before engaging Approach Mode

41. In frontside flight the default or basic mode for the AFCS pitch axis is the ______ mode.

A. Altitude select or capture

B. Vertical Speed/Altitude Hold

C. Speed Hold or select

D. Split axis or turbulence

B. Vertical Speed/Altitude Hold

42. If the F/D is used with the slats retracted and flaps extended, ensure that airspeed command is at ____ or above.

A. V_mma

B. V_mfr

C. V_msr

D. V_mco

A. V_mma

43. You may modify an RNAV or GPS route waypoint's lateral definition after loading from the WWNDB.

A. True

B. False

B. False

44. The F/D Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) submode is engaged by pressing the ____ when a TCAS

Resolution Advisory (RA) is present and the A/R mode is not engaged.

A. PPI button on the MFD

B. AP disengage switch on either control stick

C. TCAS button on the MCK

D. TOGA button

B. AP disengage switch on either control stick

45. When the FPV drift angle exceeds the limit of the HUD or PFD field of view, pitch information from the flashing FPV is __________ and only the _________ FPV symbol will provide correct vertical path information.

A. Unusable, caged

B. Useable, actual

C. Unusable, actual

D. Useable, caged

A. Unusable, caged