101.                Using the main gear emergency positioning switches (copilot’s side panel) with the landing gear lever up may result in mechanical damage.

a.       True

b.       False

102.                How is a rapid descent accomplished?

a.       throttles: idle; inboard engines: reverse idle thrust; gear: up; flaps: retracted; speed: not to exceed 350 KCAS/M 0.825, whichever is less; nose-down pitch: do not exceed 15 degrees

b.       throttles: idle; inboard engines: reverse idle thrust; gear: up; flaps: retracted; speed: not to exceed 350 KCAS/M 0.825, whichever is greater; nose-down pitch: do not exceed 10 degrees

c.        throttles: idle; inboard engines: reverse idle thrust if required; gear: down; flaps: 40%; speed: not to exceed 350 KCAS/M 0.825, whichever is less; nose-down pitch: do not exceed 15 degrees

d.       Throttles: idle; inboard engines: reverse idle thrust if required; gear: up; flaps: 40%; speed: not to exceed 350KCAS/M 0.825, whichever is greater; nose-down pitch: don't exceed 10 degrees

a.       throttles: idle; inboard engines: reverse idle thrust; gear: up; flaps: retracted; speed: not to exceed 350 KCAS/M 0.825, whichever is less; nose-down pitch: do not exceed 15 degrees

73.                During a rapid descent, do not exceed _____ degrees nose-down pitch.

a.       10

b.       15

c.        18

d.       25

104.                To provide adequate margin above stall, configured penetrations will not be initiated at altitudes above _____ feet or at gross weights above _____ pounds.

a.       20,000; 600,000

b.       20,000; 525,000

c.        18,000; 600,000

d.       15,000; 625,000

105.                When past the final approach fix at night or in IMC and an EGPWS aural or visual warning is received:

a.       climb immediately to minimum safe altitude

b.       immediately add power, execute a positive pullup until the warning stops, and verify terrain clearance, sink rate, and proper gear and flap configuration.  If the approach cannot be safely continued, execute a missed approach.

c.        continue on the approach until minimums are reached

d.       verify the validity of the signal and take appropriate action

b.       immediately add power, execute a positive pullup until the warning stops, and verify terrain clearance, sink rate, and proper gear and flap configuration.  If the approach cannot be safely continued, execute a missed approach.

106.                When a GPWS FAIL occurs, check the validity of the primary sensors and select a valid source if possible.  The cause of the failure can be determined by checking the MFDU BIT Status page.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

107.                If a radar altimeter malfunction causes the associated altitude readout to indicate less than 200 feet AGL, without a fail indication appearing in the radar altimeter window, the fault will be indicated by the rising runway symbol coming into view on the associated ADI.  Should this occur:

a.     If the approach is continued, and the selected radar altimeter drives to 75 feet AGL, or less, the autopilot pitch axis may not respond to further glideslope deviation signals, and will attempt to maintain an arbitrary nosedown pitch attitude.

b.     If the approach is continued, and the selected radar altimeter drives to 75 feet AGL, or less, the autopilot pitch axis may not respond to further glideslope deviation signals, and will attempt to maintain an arbitrary noseup pitch attitude

c.     Below 300 feet AGL, the pitch autopilot (if engaged) should be disconnected with the selected radar altimeter off or inoperative

d.     a & c

d.     a & c

108.                During high gross weight approaches, above 600,000 pounds, some thrust should be maintained during the approach and flare to preclude a high sink rate and possible damage to the airplane.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

109.                The following uncommanded changes in airspeed or flight path should be considered indication of severe wind shear or microburst onset.

a.       A rapid airspeed change of 10 knots

b.       A 500 ft/min increase or decrease in sink rate

c.        A 1 dot glideslope deviation

d.       all the above are correct

d.       all the above are correct

110.                If severe wind shear is encountered on approach, immediately accomplish a go-around.  Normal go-around procedures may not be sufficient to recover the airplane.  If sink rate has not been significantly reduced after initiating a go-around, increase engine power as necessary, not to exceed engine limits, and increase pitch attitude to 15 to 18 degrees, remaining below shaker onset until clear of the wind shear.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

111.                If an increasing performance wind shear is detected, a red WIND SHEAR message is displayed in the PFD special alerts window and a “WIND SHEAR” aural alert sounds.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

b.       FALSE

112.                VASI systems are designed as VFR approach aids only and not as aids to be flown continually to touchdown; therefore, the recommended procedure is to abandon VASI guidance at flare altitude or higher and to transition to runway references for landing.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

b.       FALSE

113.                The angle of attack indicator may be used in critical phases of flight as an additional crosscheck of computed airspeeds. Which AOA corresponds with the V_APP for a 100 percent flap approach?

a.       3°

b.       5°

c.        7.2°

d.       10°

114.                The angle of attack indicator may be used in critical phases of flight as an additional crosscheck of computed airspeeds. Which AOA corresponds with the V_STALL for a flaps down configuration?

a.       10°

b.       15°

c.        18°

d.       22°

115.                The Block In checklist is intended for: __________.

a.       engines running on/off loading

b.       engines running crew changes

c.        on/offload of passengers and/or small articles of cargo through the crew entrance door.

d.       all the above are correct

d.       all the above are correct

116.                Situation:  You've landed and accomplished your checklists for an Engine Running Offload (ERO); after block-in, it is determined all engines must be shutdown for an extended period.  You must: __________.

a.       accomplish the Operational Stop checklists

b.       leave two engines running on one side

c.        accomplish the full After Landing checklist

d.       accomplish only asterisked items on the Engine Shutdown checklist

c.        accomplish the full After Landing checklist

117.                The Alternate Main Landing Gear Retraction procedures (Standard Configuration) are used to: __________.

a.       retract one MLG only from a green wheels indication

b.       retract one MLG only from a barber pole indication

c.        retract a malfunctioning MLG after MADAR troubleshooting has extinguished the kneeling system light

d.       both a and b are correct

a.       retract one MLG only from a green wheels indication

118.                When the airplane is in motion, an in-flight alignment can be performed provided the EGI mode is set to INIT or NAV, and the GPS FOM is 4.0 or less.

                        a.     TRUE

                        b.     FALSE

119.                Each VIA/AIU is partitioned into four systems.  These systems include:

                   a.     core computer, autopilot, controls & displays, and CNS

                   b.     core processing, AFCS, controls & displays, and CNS

                   c.     AFCS, CNP, EGIs, and core processing

                   d.     core computer, CNP, CMF, AFCS

120.                Normally, VIA/AIU No.1 receives power from the ___________bus and VIA/AIU No. 2 receives power from the ____________ bus.  With the VIA/AIU ALT POWER control switch in the ALT position, power is removed from VIA/AIU No. 1 and VIA/AIU No. 2 power is switched to the _________ bus.

                        a.     emergency DC; ISO DC; emergency DC

                        b.     avionics DC; emergency DC; avionics DC

                        c.     emergency DC; avionics DC; emergency DC

                        d.     avionics battery; emergency DC, avionics battery

121.                The VIA/AIU ALT POWER switch ensures:

                        a.     at least one VIA is powered during 3 bus ops

                        b.     BIP is supported during 7-bus electrical power ops

                        c.     at least one VIA is powered during 7 bus ops

                        d.     Both a & b

122.                The WX INACCURATE annunciator will be displayed when the radar weather overlay is selected and HDG is the active UP option.

                        a.     TRUE

                        b.     FALSE

123.                Powering on TCN1, TCN2, or IFF may result in radiation exposure of personnel working next to antennas.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

124.                When ___ NMs inbound to the final approach fix, the FMS automatically determines the predicted RAIM availability at the final approach fix and the missed approach point.

                        a.     2

                        b.     3

                        c.     5

                        d.     4

125.                The preferred FMS selection order is: blended solution, GPS only, INU/RAD, INU only, DEAD RCKNG.

                        a.     TRUE

                        b.     FALSE

126.      If the EGI is ON, using the MCDU or the KYK-13 Zeroize function will cause the GPS keys and almanac to be zeroized.

                        a.     TRUE

                        b.     FALSE

127.                The ROUTE FULL scratchpad message will be displayed when more than 100 waypoints are entered in the flight plan.

                        a.     TRUE

                        b.     FALSE

128.                When flying a route or pattern with legs of less than 10 nm, the FMS:

                        a.     considers these points as fly-by points

                        b.     does not calculate an optimum path between points

                        c.     maintains RNP limits by not overshooting the intended course

                        d.     maintains the intended course

129.                To operate in RNP defined airspace, operation must be maintained within the RNP value 95 percent of the time.  The default values are as follows:  Enroute: RNP ___; Terminal: RNP___; Approach: RNP___

                        a.     5; 2, 0.5

                        b.     4; 2; 0.3

                        c.     4; 1; 0.3

                        d.     5; 1; 0.3

130.                During single VIA operation, the BIP automatically assumes the bus control function within __ second(s) after failure of the remaining VIA.

                        a.     5

                        b.     1

                        c.     3

                        d.     4

131.                In the backup system, the pilot left and copilot center MFDUs receive data from SCADC No. 2, EGI No. 2, and MMR No. 2.  The pilot center and copilot right MFDUs receive data from SCADC No. 1, EGI No. 1, and MMR No. 1.

                        a.     TRUE

                        b.     FALSE

132.  The LNAV approach mode is active when:          

a.     inbound to the destination airport and the active waypoint is part of an instrument approach procedure

b.     cleared for the approach

c.     when within 5 nm of the FAF

d.     Both a & c

d.     Both a & c

133.   On an ILS Category II approach between 500 to 200 feet check all AFCS indications and Flight Path Marker (FPM) displacement on the ADIs.

                        a.     TRUE

                        b.     FALSE

134.        Which of the following operations/functions are still possible with a VIA cabinet failure:

                        a.     Autopilot

                        b.     ALDCS

                        c.     DUAL (CAT II) operations

                        d.     RNP operations

135.            Which of the following is the proper warning horn signal for ground evacuation, ditching, or crash landing immediately after takeoff?

a.       one short blast

b.       six short blasts

c.        three short blasts

d.       one long sustained blast

d.       one long sustained blast

136.            FSS nitrogen should be discharged under the following conditions except:

a.       When a zone alarm light comes on, indicating that a fire has been detected

b.       Brake fires

c.        When a zone alarm light does not come on, but a fire is suspected

d.       When smoke comes from the forward avionics bay

137.            The following procedures are general in nature and should be used in the event of a ground operation emergency:

a.       If wheel chocks are not in place, ensure that the parking brake is set with emergency brakes selected.  Have chocks installed if available

b.       Attempt to control the malfunction by isolating the affected system(s)

c.        Shut down all systems not required to control the malfunction or facilitate the evacuation

d.       all the above are correct

d.       all the above are correct

138.            In the event of a ground operation emergency when wheel chocks are not in place, the pilot shall ensure the parking brake is set with emergency brakes selected.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

139.            The primary ground exit for flight deck evacuation is the crew entrance door.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

140.            If an escape slide does not inflate automatically, the proper action(s) is (are): __________.

a.       grasp green lanyard tube and follow toward slide

b.       locate the red metal link assembly T-Bar marked “PULL”

c.        pull T-Bar out of green lanyard until manual inflation commences

d.       all of the above

d.       all of the above

141.            The escape slides may deploy at an unsafe angle if wind speed exceeds:

a.       15 knots

b.       13 knots

c.        20 knots

d.       None of the above.

142.            After an engine fire has been extinguished by using one bottle only, you should move the Bottle Select switch to its ALTERNATE position.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

b.       FALSE

143.            During a ground emergency, if an APU or external power is not available, you should keep an outboard engine running (preferably No. 4) until the evacuation order is given.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

144.            In the event of a compressor stall on the ground with engine RPM above idle: __________.

a.       Immediately clear the stall by retarding the throttle to idle and shut down the engine

b.       Immediately clear the stall by placing the throttle to idle and leave the engine running

c.        Perform the precautionary engine shutdown checklist

d.       none of the above are correct

145.            When accomplishing the Loss of Fluids on the Ground checklist, if loss of fluid can be isolated to a wing or an engine, unaffected engines may be shut down using: __________.

a.       normal shutdown procedures when fire equipment is standing by

b.       normal shutdown procedures anytime

c.        emergency engine shutdown procedures when fire equipment is standing by

d.       all engines must be shutdown at the same time using emergency engine shutdown procedures

146.            During a rejected take-off, the pilot flying the airplane will simultaneously (first actions): __________.

a.       retard unaffected symmetrical throttles to REV IDLE, state "SPOILERS", and apply brakes

b.       retard all throttles to REV IDLE, state "SPOILERS", and apply brakes as required

c.        retard all throttles to REV IDLE, state "SPOILERS", and apply full reverse thrust

d.       retard all throttles to IDLE, state "SPOILERS", and apply brakes

b.       retard all throttles to REV IDLE, state "SPOILERS", and apply brakes as required

147.            Which of the following is/are part of the Reject Procedure?

a.       The pilot flying shall simultaneously retard all throttles to REVERSE IDLE, state "SPOILERS" and apply brakes as required

b.       The pilot monitoring shall deploy the ground spoilers when directed by the pilot flying

c.        After rollout, determine reason for reject, take necessary corrective action as needed and accomplish the After Landing checklist

d.       all the above are correct

d.       all the above are correct

148.            After an engine failure during take-off, take-off continued, the pilot flying shall ensure the throttles are at the planned __________ as a minimum.

a.       NRT

b.       TRT inflight N1 RPM

c.        take-off inflight N1 RPM

d.       engine TIT limits

149.            What is the maximum power setting during a takeoff with engine failure after go-speed? 

a.       Takeoff inflight

b.       TRT inflight

c.        Engine limits

d.       None of the above.

c.        Engine limits

150.            For an engine failure during enroute climb at 635,000 lbs initial climb speed will be_________ whichever is less.  When time permits, adjust airspeed to climb at _________ whichever is less.

a.       210 KCAS/0.45 Mach, 250 KCAS/0.60 Mach

b.       230 KCAS/0.45 Mach, 250 KCAS/0.60 Mach

c.        250 KCAS/0.60 Mach, 230 KCAS/0.60 Mach

d.       250 KCAS/0.60 Mach, 210 KCAS/0.60 Mach

c.        250 KCAS/0.60 Mach, 230 KCAS/0.60 Mach