151.            If an engine failure occurs immediately after take-off, the flaps shall be left at TAKE-OFF while climbing at minimum climbout speed or as commanded by the go-around pitch command bar.  Bank angles up to 30 degrees may be utilized for obstacle clearance; however, it must be noted that rate of climb is reduced by approximately ___________ feet/minute.

a.       100

b.       150

c.        152

d.       200

d.       200

152.            If an engine failure occurs during or immediately after take-off at heavy gross weights, climb performance may be marginal.  The landing gear should be retracted as soon as practical under these conditions because climb gradient is reduced 1.3 percent with gear down.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

153.            For an engine loss after take-off, minimum control airspeed is calculated based on _____ degrees of bank away from the failed engine.

a.       3

b.       5

c.        6

d.       8

154.            If an engine failure occurs immediately after take-off, the flaps shall be left at the TAKE-OFF setting while climbing at minimum climbout speed until at least _____ feet above the runway altitude or higher if terrain features dictate.

a.       500

b.       1000

c.        2000

d.       3000

155.            If an engine failure occurs at or above V_MCO during climbout prior to reaching obstacle clearance height, continue climbing at: __________.

a.       indicated airspeed existing when the engine failure occurred until clear of the obstacle

b.       V_MCO +10 KCAS until clear the of obstacle

c.        V_ROT + 10 KCAS until clear the of obstacle

d.       V_MCO until clear the of obstacle

a.       indicated airspeed existing when the engine failure occurred until clear of the obstacle

156.            When flying above three or two-engine cruise ceiling, driftdown should be accomplished at __________ with the remaining throttles set at __________.

a.       250 KCAS/M 0.60, whichever is less; NRT

b.       250 KCAS/M 0.60, whichever is less; TRT In-Flight

c.        280 KCAS/M 0.70, whichever is less; NRT

d.       280 KCAS/M 0.70, whichever is less; TRT In-Flight

157.            When landing with an engine running and leaking fluids from the engine/pylon area: __________.

a.       do not use thrust reversers unless required for stopping on landing

b.       taxi as necessary to clear the runway and then shut down unaffected engines

c.        do not use thrust reverse on the affected engine

d.       shut down affected engine after clearing the active runway

a.       do not use thrust reversers unless required for stopping on landing

158.            In the event of a compressor stall during flight with engine RPM above idle: __________.

a.       do nothing unless vibration is noted or any engine limits are exceeded

b.       pull the affected fire handle and run Emergency Engine Shutdown checklist

c.        immediately retard the affected throttle and run Precautionary Engine Shutdown checklist

d.       immediately retard the affected throttle to IDLE and do not re-advance except to sustain flight and then only to a power setting necessary to assure safe completion of the flight

d.       immediately retard the affected throttle to IDLE and do not re-advance except to sustain flight and then only to a power setting necessary to assure safe completion of the flight

159.            If an engine overheat occurs in-flight: __________.

a.       a pylon fire may exist if accompanied by a bleed duct overheat indication and/or FSS fire warning

b.       the pilot should check the engine instruments for indications of nacelle bleed air duct failure

c.        immediately shut the engine down using the precautionary engine shutdown checklist

d.       both a and b are correct

d.       both a and b are correct

160.            Indications of a nacelle bleed duct failure are:  an increase in TIT (up to 150 to 200 degrees above normal), probably accompanied by: __________.

a.       associated drop in N1 RPM

b.       and/or engine overheat

c.        and/or excessive engine vibrations

d.       both a and b are correct

d.       both a and b are correct

161.            If an engine flames out for unknown reasons, accomplish the Emergency Engine Shutdown checklist.  Air start should only be attempted if the engine is required for flight.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

162.            Excessive engine oil or oil vapor coming from the air-oil separator vent indicates a possible air-oil separator malfunction and necessitates an emergency engine shutdown.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

163.            An indication of a thrust reverser not locked light, unaccompanied by any other thrust reverser indications would necessitate accomplishing the precautionary engine shutdown checklist.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

a.       TRUE

164.            Three-engine range is reduced by approximately _____ percent if, after an emergency engine shutdown, the thrust reverser is left deployed on the inoperative engine.

a.       10

b.       15

c.        20

d.       5

165.            While operating on the RAT, the minimum speed required to power the flight instruments from the Emergency AC, Isolated AC, and Isolated Avionics AC buses is _____KCAS.

a.       155

b.       175

c.        190

d.       b is correct below 15,000 feet; c is correct above 15,000 feet

166.            An engine can probably be air started without starter assist (hydraulic pumps depressed) if N2 RPM indicates _____ percent or more below _____ feet or if airspeed is a minimum of _____ KCAS above _____ feet.

a.       10; 10,000; 210; 10,000

b.       10; 15,000; 220; 10,000

c.        15; 10,000; 200; 15,000

d.       15; 15,000; 215; 15,000

167.            In the event of a wing fire, the pilot may: __________.

a.       decrease airspeed to aid in extinguishing the fire.

b.       direct the engineer to dump fuel out of the affected wing

c.        direct the engineer to depressurize the airplane

d.       increase airspeed or sideslip the airplane to aid in extinguishing the fire.

d.       increase airspeed or sideslip the airplane to aid in extinguishing the fire.

168.            When a PRESS DOOR OPEN light illuminates on the pilots' annunciator panel, the pilot directs the copilot to turn on the SEAT BELTS light and directs all crewmembers to don oxygen masks and use oxygen as required.  Following these actions the pilot flying shall: __________.

a.       begin descent and immediately direct the scanner to don the personnel restraint harness and locate the malfunctioning door if possible

b.       begin descent and/or depressurization - after depressurization, direct the scanner/loadmaster to locate the malfunctioning door if possible

c.        have the scanner/loadmaster check which door is causing the door light to be on

d.       none of the above are correct

b.       begin descent and/or depressurization - after depressurization, direct the scanner/loadmaster to locate the malfunctioning door if possible

169.            In a two-engine landing pattern on downwind, maintain two-engine approach speed plus _____ kts minimum.

a.       25

b.       30

c.        40

d.       60

170.            Emergency extension of any main landing gear using Section III procedures should be accomplished at what flap setting?

a.       the flap setting when the malfunction occurred

b.       40 percent flaps

c.        0 percent flaps

d.       none of the above are correct

171.            Normal brakes may not be available if the MLG Emergency Extend switches are left in the EXTEND position.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

172.            Alternate brakes may not be available if the MLG Emergency Extend switches are left in the EXTEND position.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

173.            When emergency brakes have been selected, use the brakes cautiously because the anti-skid is not available.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

174.            When emergency brakes are selected for landing: __________.

a.       select emergency nose gear steering

b.       taxi only as necessary to clear the active runway

c.        do not attempt to taxi the airplane

d.       pump the brakes to ensure maximum number of applications

175.            The brake system check (in-flight) must be accomplished: ________.  (Provided hydraulic system 1 or 4 is intact.)

a.       after a MLG circuit breaker has been opened

b.       after extending any MLG with an emergency extend switch

c.        after the Alternate Landing Gear Retraction procedures in Section II have been used

d.       all the above are correct

d.       all the above are correct

176.            With loss of #4 hydraulic system, #1 hydraulic quantity should be monitored for loss any time: __________.

a.       emergency nose wheel steering is selected

b.       alternate brakes are selected

c.        emergency brakes are selected

d.       none of the above are correct

b.       alternate brakes are selected

177.            If the recommended configuration (for ditching purposes) cannot be achieved, the priority order is: __________.

a.       flaps up, main landing gear retracted, nose landing gear extended

b.       flaps down, main landing gear extended, nose landing gear extended

c.        flaps down, main landing gear extended, nose landing gear retracted

d.       dependent upon the sea state

178.            If the flight engineer reports high oil temperature with oil pressure normal, the pilot flying should: __________.

a.       retard the throttle to decrease fuel flow

b.       shut down engine using Precautionary Engine Shutdown checklist

c.        advance the throttle to increase fuel flow

d.       do nothing until oil pressure exceeds Section V limits

179.            Use the Precautionary Shutdown checklist under the following conditions:

a.       oil pressure is 10 psi

b.       oil pressure increases 5 psi while at a constant N2 RPM

c.        oil pressure decreases 5 psi while at a constant N2 RPM

d.       All of the above

180.            If uncommanded flight control inputs are experienced, immediately _____. 

a.       Disengage the AUG PWR switch on the AFCS control panel

b.       Disengage the AFCS PWR switch on the AFCS control panel

c.        Depress the trim disconnect button

d.       Both a & b

d.       Both a & b

181.            If the slats fail to reach the extend position, the stallimiters remain reliable due to the AOA vanes.

a.       True

b.       False

b.       False

182.            Following the loss of the #1 hydraulic system, it would be appropriate to: __________.

a.       select emergency brakes

b.       select alternate brakes

c.        select emergency NLG steering

d.       use #1 and #4 thrust reversers only

183.            Loss of hydraulic system No. _____ fluid will cause loss of manual control of the secondary climb/dive valves of the fuel tank inerting system.

a.       1

b.       2

c.        3

d.       4

184.            Following the loss of  the #4 hydraulic system, it would be appropriate to: __________.

a.       select emergency NLG steering

b.       select alternate brakes

c.        select emergency brakes

d.       use #1 and # 4 thrust reversers only

185.            The first stage of your #2 engine-driven fuel boost pump has failed.  What light on the fuel panel indicates this failure and what have you lost?

a.       PUMP OUT light, #2 fuel heater, and #2 fuel filter

b.       PRESS LOW light, #2 fuel/oil cooler, and #2 fuel heater

c.        PUMP OUT light and #2 fuel filter

d.       none of the above are correct

a.       PUMP OUT light, #2 fuel heater, and #2 fuel filter

186.            For a Fuel Tank Pressure Warning, the pilot flying should: __________.

a.       maintain level flight to avert potential wing damage

b.       discontinue climb or descent if practical

c.        do not climb or descend after the malfunction is cleared

d.       both a and b are correct

d.       both a and b are correct

187.            If a TIT/RPM engine limit is exceeded, the engine should be shutdown ________.

a.       after a 5-minute cooling period

b.       immediately

c.        prior to touchdown if landing within 5 minutes

d.       both a & c.

a.       after a 5-minute cooling period

188.            Maximum TIT limit for engines at NRT:

a.       910

b.       915

c.        930

d.       875

189.            The 30 second transient TIT range is:

a.       915 to 930

b.       950 to 960

c.        940 to 950

d.       960 to 970

d.       960 to 970

190.            A power setting resulting in a TIT of 920 degrees may be maintained: __________.

a.       for 30 seconds

b.       for 5 minutes

c.        for 30 minutes

d.       continuously

191.            For any number of cycles, the starter duty cycle is 2 minutes on, _____ minutes off.

a.       2

b.       3

c.        4

d.       5

d.       5

192.            Do not extend inboard thrust reversers in flight while the flaps are deployed as large changes in airplane lift will result, particularly at speeds associated with traffic pattern and final approach operations.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

193.            To increase the service life of the engine and accessories, operation between _____ and _____ percent N1 and/or N2 should be kept to an absolute minimum. Operation with split throttles may be necessary to avoid the resonant range at lower altitudes during descent.

a.       65, 75

b.       74, 88

c.        75, 85

d.       78, 88

194.            With a tailwind or crosswind from the two rear quadrants of 30 to 40 knots, taxi is permitted with N1 limited to:

a.       70%

b.       77%

c.        87%

d.       90%

195.            For the hydraulic system heat exchangers to function properly, a minimum of _____ pounds of fuel  is required in each inboard main fuel tank.

a.       3,850

b.       4,500

c.        5,000

d.       9,000

196.            For an airplane gross weight over 732,500 pounds, the maximum nose landing gear steering angle using asymmetrical thrust and moderate asymmetric braking is: __________.

a.       60° fixed; 60° castered

b.       45° fixed; 60° castered

c.        45° fixed; 45° castered

d.       30° fixed; 45° castered

d.       30° fixed; 45° castered

197.            If the airplane is stopped in a turn with the aft main landing gear castered, the nose gear must not be turned more than _____ degrees from the stopped position.

a.       15

b.       30

c.        45

d.       60

198.            The maximum clean configuration airspeed for severe turbulence is: __________.

a.       240 KCAS / M 0.740

b.       240 KCAS / M 0.825

c.        280 KCAS / M 0.825

d.       300 KCAS / M 0.825

c.        280 KCAS / M 0.825

199.            The recommended turbulence penetration airspeed is: __________.

a.       240 KCAS / M 0.740, whichever is less

b.       240 KCAS / M 0.825, whichever is less

c.        280 KCAS / M 0.770, whichever is less

d.       280 KCAS / M 0.825, whichever is less

a.       240 KCAS / M 0.740, whichever is less

200.            The maximum pitch angle below 200 feet is __ degrees and the maximum bank angle below 50 feet is __ degrees.

a.       5;5

b.       10;5

c.        10;10

d.       15;10