1. The wingspan of the C-5 is approximately _____ feet.

a. 210
b. 222
c. 247
d. 259

2. The engine optical fire detector will provide: _______.

a. visual indications of an engine fire only
b. an automatic nitrogen discharge
c. an audible fire warning horn
d. both a and b are correct

3. Pilot indication(s) of an engine overheat is (are):__________.

a. an aural warning with an ENG OVHT message on the Engine and CWA displays

b. steady light in the associated engine fire handle

c. flashing light in the associated engine fire handle

d. both a and c are correct

4. An engine fire on the ground is indicated to the pilot by:____________.

a. steady illumination in the associated engine fire handle

b. a flashing light in the associated engine fire handle

c. an audible warning accompanied by an ENG FIRE and ENG OVHT CWA message

d. both a and c are correct

5. When pulling an engine fire handle, which of the following statements are correct?

a. Electrically closes the engine fuel control shutoff valve and turns off engine ignition

b. Deenergizes the generator by interrupting permanent magnet generator power

c. Closes valve in thrust reverser hydraulic pressure line in pylon leading edge

d. all the above are correct

6. The thrust reverser will not operate with its associated engine fire handle pulled.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

7. APU fire indications on the ground include: __________.

a. APU fire light on pilot's annunciator panel

b. steady light in APU fire control handle

c. audible warning horn

d. all the above are correct

8. Bleed air can be obtained from: ___________.

a. the main engines

b. the APU's

c. an external pneumatic power source

d. all the above are correct

9. A center duct overheat condition causes the pilot's BLEED DUCT HOT annunciator light to come on and it causes the following valves to receive close signals: ___________.

a. both wing isolation valves

b. both APU bleed and isolation valves

c. both floor heat temperature control valves

d. all the above are correct

10. With a Bleed Duct Hot, depressing an engine starter button: __________.

a. overrides all bleed air valve closing signals

b. extinguishes the BLEED DUCT HOT light on the pilot's annunciator panel

c. has no effect on bleed air valve closing signals

d. both a and b are correct

11. The RAT pump supplies pressure __________.

a. to hydraulic system number 2

b. to hydraulic system number 1 through the number 1-2 PTU for gear and flap operation

c. during ground operation with bleed air supplied by the APU's

d. both a and b are correct

12. The RAT: ___________.

a. is deployed in flight if both inboard and either outboard CSD underspeed relays are deenergized

b. deploys automatically when the emergency power relay is depowered

c. can be deployed manually at the No. 2 hydraulic system service center

d. both a and c are correct

13. The control circuit for the _____ PTU is deenergized whenever the RAT is deployed manually or automatically.

a. 1-2

b. 2-3

c. 3-4

d. both a and b are correct

14. Normal hydraulic pressure to extend the landing gear comes from system _____ for the nose landing gear, _____ for the forward main landing gear, and _____ for the aft main landing gear.

a. 1; 1; 4

b. 4; 1; 4

c. 4; 4; 1

d. 1; 4; 1

15. If a BOGIE PITCH annunciator light comes on with the gear up and locked: __________.

a. disregard - informative only

b. lower gear normally and visually confirm bogie position prior to landing

c. could cause structural damage if the gear handle is placed to the down position

d. refer to Section II procedures

16. During NLG extension, red wheels indicate: __________.

a. NLG doors open and NLG extended, but not rotated to 0 degrees

b. NLG doors in transit and NLG not down and locked

c. NLG doors not in the full open position

d. NLG doors fully open and NLG not down and locked

17. If the EMERG SW ON light is illuminated prior to gear extension: __________.

a. lower gear normally and enter a write-up in the 781

b. structural damage could occur if the gear is extended

c. an erroneous nose gear door open signal may exist

d. both b and c are correct

18. The EMER SW ON light will come on when the NLG emergency switch is placed to "EXTEND" from an up and locked condition __________.

a. when the switch is thrown

b. when the first door lock unlocks

c. when the first NLG door reaches the fully opened position

d. when the NLG is down and locked

19. The landing gear warning horn “HORN SILENCE” button may be used to silence the landing gear warning horn under any unsafe gear condition.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

20. The landing gear warning horn will sound to indicate an unsafe gear condition when the flaps are extended beyond approximately 80 percent and the nose gear is not down and locked or any of the main gear collar locks are not engaged.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

21. The time delay when switching from nose gear steering wheel to rudder pedal steering is approximately ________.

a. there is no delay

b. 3 seconds

c. 2 seconds

d. 7 seconds

22. Rudder pedal steering is the secondary steering command and only provides _____ degrees nose gear steering either side of center.

a. 5 (+2/-1)

b. 10 (+-5)

c. 15 (+5/-2)

d. 20 (+2/-1)

23. Which statement(s) is/are correct concerning the nose gear emergency steering system?

a. If hydraulic pressure is not available from system No. 1, system No. 4 pressure may be selected.

b. If neither system No.1 nor system No. 4 is available, the nose gear will caster and the airplane may be steered by asymmetrical thrust and differential braking

c. Rudder pedal steering is engaged only by hydraulic system No. 1

d. all the above are correct

24. In the event hydraulic pressure is not available from system No. 1 or system No. 4, the fully charged accumulator will provide __________ full brake application(s).

a. one

b. two

c. three

d. four

25. Do not perform any operation requiring anti-skid protection (take-off, landing, or taxi) with the anti-skid switch in the "TEST ARM" position. To do so will make available only partial anti-skid modulation.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

26. Under what conditions does the ANTI-SKID OFF light on the pilots' center instrument panel come on?

a. ANTI-SKID switch is "OFF" or BRAKE SUP switch is in "EMER"

b. Loss of two electrical power sources supplying the anti-skid control box

c. ANTI-SKID switch is "ON" and an over-voltage condition exists

d. all the above are correct

27. If the airspeed exceeds _____ or _____ with the ALDCS engaged, the ALDCS positions the ailerons to a fixed 6 degrees wing down (uprig) and turns on the 6 DEGREE UPRIG annunciator light.

a. 300 KCAS; Mach 0.77

b. 350 KCAS; Mach 0.825

c. 375 KCAS; Mach 0.875

d. 402 KCAS; Mach 0.875

28. Before flaps are extended past _____, flight spoilers move ____ degrees in response to full control inputs; after that, spoiler deflection increases to _____ degrees.

a. 37%; 30; 67

b. 40%; 12.5; 25

c. 60%; 25; 40

d. 80%; 22.5; 60

29. Below 153 KCAS, rudder deflection is up to _____ degrees. When airspeed reaches 153 KCAS, normal rudder authority decreases to _____ degrees. When airspeed reaches _____ KCAS and above, normal rudder authority is 4 degrees.

a. 37; 14; 253

b. 35; 12; 238

c. 30; 12.5; 235

d. 37; 12; 230

30. YAW AUG MAN TRIM provides ____ degrees of rudder trim per second.

a. 40

b. 20

c. 5

d. 1

31. Time for flap extension to, or retraction from, the 100 percent flap position, with both hydraulic systems operating, is _____ seconds. With one hydraulic system inoperable the time is _____ seconds.

a. 33; 66

b. 33; 66

c. 37; 60

d. 29; 58

32. The SLAT-FLAP SYNC light will illuminate if: __________.

a. the slats are not fully extended by the time the flaps reach 40%

b. the slats are fully extended before the flaps reach 37%

c. the slats are not fully retracted within 10 seconds after the flaps are fully retracted

d. both a and c are correct

33. Normal fuel jettison is from the __________ tanks. The maximum fuel jettison rate for these tanks with all boost pumps on is: _____.

a. main and extended range tanks; 4500 PPM

b. main and auxiliary; 5560 PPM

c. auxiliary and extended range; 5360 PPM

d. auxiliary and extended range; 9000 PPM

34. The purpose of the MAIN SUMP LOW lights is to __________.

a. visually remind the pilot that the main tank fuel quantity is below 75 percent full

b. warn of possible adverse wing loading unless airspeed restrictions in Section V are complied with

c. warn of possible adverse wing loading unless airspeed restrictions in Section V are complied with and to indicate impending loss of fuel to the engine

d. indicate to the engineer the sump is one-third full

35. Once disconnected, a CSD cannot be reconnected in flight.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

36. The EMERG PWR ON light comes on when: __________.

a. all four engine generators are lost

b. the emergency generator is operating and supplying power to the associated buses

c. No. 2 hydraulic system is lost

d. when the RAT is extended

37. Landing lights must be out of their retracted position before they are used as taxi lights. Do not operate __________ when the light is less than fully extended.

a. for any length of time

b. longer than 15 minutes

c. longer than 25 minutes

d. longer than 35 minutes

38. Which exterior lights are illuminated when the TAXI light switch is placed to "ON"?

a. Nose gear taxi light

b. Four main landing gear door taxi lights

c. Wing leading edge and engine inlet inspection lights

d. all the above are correct

39. When fully charged, emergency exit light batteries provide only _____ minutes of power.

a. 15

b. 30

c. 45

d. 60

40. Which set of circuit breakers are located on the pilot’s emergency circuit breaker panel?

a. VIA 1; AIU 1; IFF; pilot instrument flood light; CADC 1

b. Micro IRU; Standby Attitude Indicator; BSIU 1; Pilot Left and Center MFDU

c. Pilot MCDU; autopilot/pitch; autopilot/roll; Tacan 1; V/UHF 1

d. both a and b are correct

41. Which set of circuit breakers are located on the navigator’s circuit breaker panels?

a. ADF 1; IFF; VIA 1 fan; UHF 3; V/UHF 1

b. MMR 1; VIA 2; AIU 2; EGI 2; BSIU 2; PACS roll

c. VIA 1; Pilot MCDU; IFF; Radar Alt 1; Emergency Depressurization

d. flap position indicator; LH/RH slat position indicator; optical fire detection

42. If critical data is determined to be unreliable or missing from the PFD, the affected instrument or indication is removed and replaced with a white failure legend displayed against a red background.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

43. Once engaged, the heading select mode can be disengaged only by engaging lateral CWS, engaging another lateral mode, or by disengaging the autopilot and both FDs. Pressing the HDG SEL mode button will not result in disengagement.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

44. Which of the following is/are true concerning the HSI?

a. the bearing pointer indicates bearing to selected VOR or TACAN station, with VOR or TACAN selected

b. the bearing pointer indicates bearing to the active waypoint with FMS selected

c. with VOR or TACAN selected, each green dot on the CDI scale indicates 5 degrees of course deviation.

d. all of the above

45. Which of the following is/are true concerning the HSI?

a. both pilot’s and copilot’s CDIs are solid when the AFCS is engaged in the dual approach mode

b. a 1 dot CDI deviation during localizer/ILS operation equals 1.25 degrees of course deviation

c. the bearing pointer indicates bearing to the active waypoint with FMS selected

d. all of the above

46. There a five critical airspeed markers used during takeoff and landing. Three markers are available for takeoff: Vgo; Vrot; and Vmfr. Two markers are available for landing: Vapp; and Vga.

e. TRUE

f. FALSE

47. Minimum maneuvering airspeed is variable depending on airplane gross weight, configuration, bank angle, maneuvering load factor and pressure altitude but is based on 1.2 Vstall.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

48. When flying an ILS approach, what conditions must exist for the DUAL approach mode to be armed?

a. Both FDs engaged; dual split logic satisfied; both EGIs providing valid data

b. Localizer and glideslope engaged; radar altitude between 600 and 1500 feet

c. Pilot’s CDI selected to MMR No. 1; copilot’s CDI selected to MMR No. 2; HSI course arrows set within 2 degrees.

d. Both a and c

49. The following criteria must be met to transition from DUAL ARM to DUAL mode:

a. Localizer and glidepath engaged

b. Radar altitude between 600 and 1,500 feet

c. DUAL mode status internal checks completed

d. All of the above

50. With VIA/AIU No. 1 failed, the following will happen:

a. Communication with BSIU No. 1 is lost resulting in failure of associated equipment.

b. VIA/AIU No. 2 is automatically powered by the emergency DC bus to prevent DUAL VIA/AIU failure during 7 bus ops.

c. Radar antenna stabilization is provided by the operating cabinet, requiring the operating side to be selected.

d. Both a and c