Term
1. What purpose of modulation involves modulating low frequency signals for transmission over long distances? a.) Spectrum conservation b.) Channel allocation c.) Ease of radiation d.) Companding |
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Definition
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2.) What purpose of modulation prevents interference when sharing the same communications path? a.) Spectrum conservation b.) Channel allocation c.) Ease of radiation d.) Companding |
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Definition
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3.) What factor determines the spacing of the sidebands in an amplitude modulated signal? a.) Amplitude of the modulating signal b.) Frequency of the modulating signal c.) Amplitude of the carrier signal d.) Frequency of the carrier signal |
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Definition
b.) Frequency of the modulating signal |
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Term
4.) The relationship of the bandwidth required for double-sideband emitted carrier (DSBEC) AM to the bandwidth of the modulating signal of the AM bandwidth alone is a.) one-quarter of the modulating bandwidth b.) four times the modulating bandwidth c.) twice the modulating bandwidth d.) half the modulating bandwidth |
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Definition
c.) twice the modulating bandwidth |
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Term
5.) The output of the oscillator in a FM modulator increases in frequency with each a.) positive half cycle of the carrier b.) negative half cycle of the carrier c.) positive half cycle of the modulating carrier d.) negative half cycle of the modulating carrier |
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Definition
c.) positive half cycle of the modulating carrier |
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Term
6.) In FM, the amount of oscillator frequency change is a.) inversely proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal b.) directly proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal c.) inversely proportional to the phase of the modulating signal d.) directly proportional to the phase of the modulating signal |
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Definition
b.) directly proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal |
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Term
7.) A 10kHz modulating signal has enough peak voltage to cause a deviation of 30kHz. What is the modulation index? a.) 5 b.) 0.5 c.) 0.3 d.) 3 |
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Definition
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8.) What is the formula to find the modulating index? a.) Deviation/Frequency b.) Deviation x Frequency c.) Sideband/Modulating Frequency d.) Sideband x Modulating Frequency |
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Definition
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9. In PM, the carrier's a.) phase is shifted at the rate of the modulating signal b.) phase is shifted with the phase of the modulating signal c.) amplitude is shifted at the rate of the modulating signal d.) amplitude is shifted with the phase of the modulating signal |
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Definition
a.) phase is shifted at the rate of the modulating signal |
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Term
10. By using 8-PSK instead of binary phase shift keying, information capacity is increased a.) twice b.) three times c.) four times d.) five times |
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Definition
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11. By using 16-PSK, how many bit combinations are allowed to be used? a.) 2 b.) 3 c.) 4 d.) 5 |
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Definition
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Term
12. What is the first step in the pulse code modulation process? a.) Discrete amplitudes are assigned to the sampling pulses b.) A binary code number is assigned to the sample c.) The quantizer limits the amplitude of the pulses d.) The analog signal is band-limited |
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Definition
d.) The analog signal is band-limited |
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Term
13. What part of the pulse code modulation process converts a continuous time signal into a discrete time signal? a.) Sampling b.) Rectifying c.) Oscillating d.) Band Limiting |
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Definition
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14. Non-uniform quantizing and companding decreases the length of the code word from a.) 11 to 7 bits b.) 11 to 8 bits c.) 16 to 7 bits d.) 18 to 8 bits |
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Definition
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Term
15. How does synchronous transmission reduce the overhead costs of data transmission? a.) Communicates in parallel format b.) Blocks many characters together for transmission c.) Eliminates the control bits, so more message data can be sent d.) Equipment to support synchronous transmission is far less expensive |
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Definition
b.) Blocks many characters together for transmission |
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Term
16. When using vertical redundancy check, what significance does the amount of ones have in a data bit pattern? a.) Determines parity b.) Determines transmission rate c.) Determines whether transmission is in ASCII format d.) Determines whether transmission is synchronous or asynchronous |
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Definition
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17. Using the longitudinal redundancy check method of error correction, what does the receiver compare with the transmitter to ensure an accurate transmission of data? a.) The checksum b.) Block check character c.) The ASCII character set d.) The sum of transmitted bits |
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Definition
b.) Block check character |
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Term
18. What two error detection methods, when used together, are 98 percent effective in detecting errors? a.) Checksum and cyclic redundancy check b.) Longitudinal redundancy check and checksum c.) Cyclic redundancy check and vertical redundancy check d.) Vertical redundancy check and longitudinal redundancy check |
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Definition
d.) Vertical redundancy check and longitudinal redundancy check |
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Term
19. What error detection method is used for checking a data block greater than 512 and is about 99 percent effective in most applications? a.) Checksum b.) Cyclic redundancy check c.) Vertical redundancy check d.) Longitudinal redundancy check |
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Definition
b.) Cyclic redundancy check |
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Term
20. When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction take place? a.) Receiving end b.) In the oscillator c.) Transmitting end d.) In the primary buffers |
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Definition
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Term
21. Which statement describes an advantage of using fiber optic cable? a.) The easy tap-ability of fiber optic cables presents security risks b.) Fiber optic cable has a higher attenuation than coaxial cable c.) Electromagnetic fields do not affect fiber optic cables d.) Nuclear radiation does not affect fiber optic cable |
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Definition
c.) Electromagnetic fields do not affect fiber optic cables |
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Term
22. Which statement describes a security feature of using fiber optic cable? a.) Easy to encrypt data b.) Low signal attenuation c.) Virtually impossible to tap a fiber optic cable unnoticed d.) Fiber optic cables are considerably smaller than metallic cables |
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Definition
c.) Virtually impossible to tap a fiber optic cable unnoticed |
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Term
23. What component of a fiber optic cable provides the reflective surface that allows light to propagate? a.) Core b.) Buffer c.) Jacket d.) Cladding |
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Definition
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Term
24. What type of buffer allows the fiber optic cable to be twisted or pulled with little stress on the fiber? a.) Ribbon b.) Composite c.) Tight tube d.) Loose tube |
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Definition
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Term
25. Most fiber optic links use infrared light that has a frequency range of a.) 400 to 750nm b.) 750 to 1500nm c.) 400 to 750mm d.) 750 to 1500mm |
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Definition
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Term
26. When considering light wave propagation, the normal is an imaginery line perpendicular to the interface of two materials. The angle between the normal in the first material and the ray that is bounced back in the first material is called the a.) angle of refraction b.) angle of incidence c.) angle of reflection d.) critical angle |
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Definition
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Term
27. Propagation of light as seen by Snell's law is known as a.) total internal reflection b.) refraction of light c.) light wavelengths d.) rays of incidence |
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Definition
a.) total internal reflection |
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Term
28. What logarithmic expression do we use to specify the ratio of power loss in fiber optic cables? a.) dB/nm b.) dB/km c.) dB/cm d.) dB/m |
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Definition
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Term
29. What results from the imperfection in an optical fiber's basic structure? a.) Absorption b.) Scattering c.) Reflection d.) Dispersion |
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Definition
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Term
30. The most useful way to classify fiber optic cable is by a.) fiber material and number of fibers b.) buffer type and application method c.) numerical aperture and cable elements d.) refractive index profile and number of modes |
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Definition
d.) refractive index profile and number of modes |
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Term
31. What type of fiber is the least efficient, with the highest dispersion and has a core diameter of 30µm to over 800µm? a.) Single-mode step-index fiber b.) Single-mode graded-index fiber c.) Multimode step-index fiber d.) Multimode graded-index fiber |
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Definition
c.) Multimode step-index fiber |
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Term
33. Which analog multimeter control compensates for the voltage of the internal batteries when calibrating for resistance measurements? a.) Range switch b.) Voltage switch c.) Function switch d.) Zero ohms control |
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Definition
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Term
34. When you make a resistance measurement, how do you electrically isolate a resistor from the circuit? a.) Remove power from the circuit b.) Short both sides of the resistor c.) Insulate both sides of the resistor d.) Disconnect one side of the resistor |
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Definition
d.) Disconnect one side of the resistor |
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Term
35. How do you place multimeter test leads in a circuit to measure voltage? a.) Series b.) Parallel c.) Series-parallel d.) Parallel-parallel |
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Definition
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Term
36. In which type of circuit would you measure the AC component of an output voltage where both AC and DC voltage levels exist? a.) Filter b.) Resonant c.) Amplifier d.) Differential |
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Definition
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Term
37. Which feature of the Fluke 8025A multimeter do you use to select various measurement functions? a.) Circuit jacks b.) Rotary switch c.) Range push button d.) Touch-hold button |
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Definition
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Term
38. Which part of the Fluke 8025A's display section indicates the absolute value of the input? a.) Digital b.) Annunciator c.) Range indicator d.) Analog bar graph |
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Definition
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Term
39. Which feature of the Fluke 8025A locks the measurement into the display for viewing and automatically updates the display when you take a few measurement? a.) Rotary switch b.) Range push button c.) Power-up self-test d.) Touch-holdpush button |
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Definition
d.) Touch-holdpush button |
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Term
40. When you use the Fluke 8025A, which voltage range do you select to measure 50 volts DC? a.) Volts AC b.) Volts DC c.) Millivolts AC d.) Millivolts DC |
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Definition
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Term
41. Which current range on the Fluke 8025A do you select to measure 250 milliamps AC? a.) Microamps DC b.) Microamps AC c.) Milliamps/amp DC d.) Milliamps/amp AC |
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Definition
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Term
42. Low-insulation resistance between conductors can cause a.) high-attenuation, crosstalk, and noise b.) fresnal reflection, dispersion, and scattering c.) high-impedence, capacitance, and rectification d.) low-attenuation, electromagnetic immunity, and absorption |
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Definition
a.) high-attenuation, crosstalk, and noise |
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Term
43. With what values do we measure insulation resistance? a.) amps or megamps b.) Millivolts or volts c.) Ohms or megohms d.) Milliwatts or watts |
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Definition
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Term
44. Insulation resistance increases if a.) length of insulation increases b.) area of the conductor increases c.) thickness of the insulating material increases d.) both thickness and length of insulation material increases |
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Definition
c.) thickness of the insulating material increases |
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Term
45. When using the AN/PSM-2 megger, how do you know you are applying the correct regulated output voltage? a.) Turn the hand-crank until an arc is present b.) Turn the hand-crank until the needle set has stopped moving c.) Turn the hand-crank and monitor the megger's output with another meter d.) Turn the hand-crank at a rate to keep the indicator lights at a steady glow |
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Definition
d.) Turn the hand-crank at a rate to keep the indicator lights at a steady glow |
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Term
46. What type of megohmmeter do you use on paper insulated conductor cable? a.) 500 volt b.) 1000 volt c.) 1500 volt d.) 2500 volt |
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Definition
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Term
47. How are voltage, time, and depth represented on the oscilloscope display? a.) Voltage = intensity, time = vertical axis, and depth = horizontal axis b.) Voltage = intensity, time = horizontal axis, and depth = vertical axis c.) Voltage = horizontal axis, time = vertical axis, and depth = intensity d.) Voltage = vertical axis, time = horizontal axis, and depth = intensity |
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Definition
d.) Voltage = vertical axis, time = horizontal axis, and depth = intensity |
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Term
48. Which mode of triggering an oscilloscope causes a trace to be drawn on the screen at all times, whether there is an input signal or not? a.) Auto b.) Norm c.) External d.) Source |
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Definition
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Term
49. Which oscilloscope probe is essentially just a shielded piece of wire? a.) Current probe b.) Passive 1:1 probe c.) Passive divider, 1:10 probe d.) Active field effect transistor probe |
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Definition
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Term
50. Which probe lets you use the oscilloscope to measure higher voltage levels, raises the input impedance, does not require a bias voltage, and attenuates noise? a.) Current probe b.) Passive 1:1 probe c.) Active (FET) probe d.) Passive divider, 10:1 probe |
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Definition
d.) Passive divider, 10:1 probe |
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Term
51. Which probe does not need to actually make contact with the circuit under test? a.) Current probe b.) Passive 1:1 probe c.) Active (FET) probe d.) Passive divider, 10:1 probe |
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Definition
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Term
52. What digital storage oscilloscope circuit compensates for high sampling rates of high-frequency signals? a.) Analog-to-digital converter b.) Digital-to-analog converter c.) Charged coupled device d.) Cathode-ray tube |
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Definition
c.) Charged coupled device |
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Term
53. Sampled data points are stored in the memory of a digital storage oscilloscope as a.) sequential records b.) waveform points c.) record lengths d.) record points |
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Definition
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Term
54. What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and math computations? a.) Microprocessors b.) Acquisition c.) Memory d.) Input |
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Definition
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Term
55. What type of sampling does a digital storage oscilloscope normally use on single-shot or seldom-occurring signals? a.) Sequential b.) Repetitive c.) Real-time d.) Random |
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Definition
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Term
56. Which are the three types of digital storage oscilloscope acquisition modes, and which is the standard operating mode? a.) Sample, peak detect, averaging; sample b.) Real-time, peak detect, sample; real-time c.) Real-time, peak detect, sample; averaging d.) Sample, peak detect, averaging; peak detect |
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Definition
a.) Sample, peak detect, averaging; sample |
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Term
57. Which digital storage oscilloscope button controls all waveforms displayed in the STORE mode? a.) CURSORS control b.) MEMORY control c.) SELECT C1/C2 switch d.) SAVE/CONTINUE switch |
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Definition
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Term
58. In aquiring a 4K record length on a digital storage oscilloscope, how many samples can you view at one time?
a.) 1,000
b.) 2,000
c.) 3,000
d.) 4,000 |
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Definition
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Term
59. In the internal clock generator section of a typical bit error rate test set, what generates the basic clock that provides all clock phases, and is periodically frequency calibrated by a crystal controlled oscillator in the automatic calibration section?
a.) VCO
b.) Countdown
c.) Code converter
d.) DAC and decode range |
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Definition
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Term
60. Which pattern simulator section of a bit error rate test set controls the clock selector and selects either the external clock or the internal clock for processing?
a. Clock drivers
b. Code converter
c. Data/sync selector
d. Data/clock select encoder |
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Definition
d. Data/clock select encoder |
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Term
61. What pattern simulator section of the bit error rate test set accepts a 48-bit parallel word and generates a serial pattern?
a.) PRN generator
b.) PRN comparator
c.) 48-bit transmitter only
d.) 48-bit register and 8-bit word display |
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Definition
c.) 48-bit transmitter only |
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Term
62. What pattern simulator section of the bit error rate test set converts the NRZ-L data into the desired coding, such as NRZ-M?
a.) Data drivers
b.) Code converter
c.) PRN generator
d.) External data comparator |
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Definition
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Term
63. What pattern synchronizer and error counter section of the bit error rate test set internally generates its own pattern to compare with the received data from the data/click receivers?
a.) 48-bit transmitter
b.) 48-bit synchronizer/comparator
c.) PRN pattern synchronizer/comparator
d.) External data pattern synchronizer/comparator |
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Definition
c.) PRN pattern synchronizer/comparator |
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Term
64. Which is the primary means of measuring the quality of transmitted digital information, and how is this meaning derived?
a.) Bit error rate (BER), the ratio of the number of bits in error to the total number of bits transmitted
b.) Bit error rate (BER), the difference between the number of bits transmitted and the total number of bits received
c.) Distribution of errors, the ratio of the number of bits in error to the total number of bits transmitted
d.) Distribution of errors, the difference between the number of bits transmitted and the total number of bits received. |
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Definition
a.) Bit error rate (BER), the ratio of the number of bits in error to the total number of bits transmitted |
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Term
65. What is the first step in the basic bit error rate testing procedure?
a.) A noise signal is generated at the receiving end of the data channel or equipment under test and is compared with the channel
b.) A noise signal is generated at the sending end of the data channel or equipment under test and is transmitted through the channel
c.) A known bit pattern, usually pseudo-random, is generated at the receiving end of the data channel or equipment under test and is compared with the channel
d.) A known bit pattern, usually pseudo-random, is generated at the sending end of the data channel or equipment under test and is transmitted through the channel |
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Definition
d.) A known bit pattern, usually pseudo-random, is generated at the sending end of the data channel or equipment under test and is transmitted through the channel |
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Term
66. During a basic bit error rate testing procedure, an error signal is generated when
a.) any bit in the received signal is not the same as the timing bit
b.) any bit in the received signal is not the same as the generated bit
c.) 100 bits in the received signal are not the same as the timing bits
d.) 100 bits in the received signal are not the same as the generated bits |
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Definition
b.) any bit in the received signal is not the same as the generated bit |
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Term
67. Which of these data circuit speeds would normally use the shorter generated bit error rate (BER) test pattern lengths, and what is the data circuit bit rate?
a.) Low to intermediate, 1200 to 9600 bps
b.) Low to intermediate, 9600 to 12 Kbps
c.) Higher speed circuits, 5000 to 64 Kbps
d.) Higher speed circuits, 50 Kbps to 64 Kbps |
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Definition
a.) Low to intermediate, 1200 to 9600 bps |
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Term
68. Which of these bit rates do you use for a bit error rate test on a 64 Kbps data circuit?
a.) 511 bps
b.) 9600 bps
c.) 64 Kbps
d.) 1.544 Mbps |
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Definition
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Term
69. On a bit error rate test set, the 25-pin connectors are designed to operate with data modems to
a.) simplify connection of test equipment to the modem under test and to transmit the test pattern
b.) simplify connection of test equipment to the modem under test and to carry the necessary signaling and handshake signals for modem operations
c.) isolate test equipment from the data circuit under test and to transmit the test pattern
d.) isolate test equipment from the data circuit under test and to carry the necessary signaling and handshake signals for modem operations |
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Definition
b.) simplify connection of test equipment to the modem under test and to carry the necessary signaling and handshake signals for modem operations |
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Term
70.What is the frequency range of an audio signal generator?
a.) 10 Hz to 10 kHz
b.) 20 Hz to 20 kHz
c.) 10 kHz to 10 GHz
d.) 20 kHz to 35 MHz |
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Definition
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Term
71. Which one of these is not an application of a radio frequency generator?
a.) Verifying transmitter frequencies
b.) Troubleshooting receivers
c.) Checking antenna systems
d.) Aligning galvanometers |
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Definition
d.) Aligning galvanometers |
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Term
72. A radio frequency generator is used to
a.) monitor odd harmonics
b.) align telemetry receivers
c.) modulate subcarrier oscillators
d.) check galvanometer frequency response |
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Definition
b.) align telemetry receivers |
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Term
73. What is the variable voltage range of signals output from the HP 3325B synthesizer/function generator?
a.) 1 mV to 10 V peak-to-peak
b.) 1 mV to 10 V peak
c.) 1 V to 10 V peak-to-peak
d.) 1 V to 10 V peak |
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Definition
a.) 1 mV to 10 V peak-to-peak |
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Term
74. The output of the HP 3325B function generator may generate only DC voltages, to a maximum of
a.) ±1 V
b.) ±4.5 V
c.) ±5 V
d.) ±10 V |
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Definition
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Term
75. In using the phase modulation controls of the HP 3325B function generator, an input of a ±5 V peak would result in what approximate phase deviation?
a.) ±42.5° per volt for sine wave
b.) ±42.5° per volt for square wave
c.) ±425° per volt for sine wave
d.) ±425° per volt for square wave |
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Definition
d.) ±425° per volt for square wave |
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Term
76. The 10:1 power ratio represented by 1 bel can also be represented by how many decibels (dB)?
a.) 1 dB
b.) 3 dB
c.) 6 dB
d.) 10 dB |
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Definition
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Term
77. A power reading that uses the abbreviation dBm indicates that
a.) ratio of decibels relative to a 1-millwatt standard
b.) ratio of decibels relative to a 1-megawatt standard
c.) actual power level expressed in millwatts
d.) actual power level expressed in megawatts |
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Definition
c.) actual power level expressed in millwatts |
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Term
78. The measurable frequency and power ranges of the HP 436A power meter are determined by the
a.) digital display
b.) power sensor
c.) power meter
d.) interface |
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Definition
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Term
79. During what operation is the radio frequency blanking output used on the HP 436A power meter?
a.) While in WATT mode operation
b.) While in REMOTE mode operation
c.) During the automatic zeroing operation
d.) During the calibration adjustment operation |
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Definition
c.) During the automatic zeroing operation |
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Term
80. Which measurement is not made with a sprectrum analyzer?
a.) Frequency stability
b.) Peak-peak voltage
c.) Amplitude modulation
d.) Subcarrier oscillator outputs |
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Definition
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Term
81. Which measurement do you make with a spectrum analyzer?
a.) Subcarrier oscillator outputs
b.) Transducer output voltage
c.) Time between two events
d.) Pulse width |
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Definition
a.) Subcarrier oscillator outputs |
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Term
82. Which electronic counter measurement represents the average bit-to-bit time of an input signal?
a.) Period
b.) Scaling
c.) Frequency
d.) Time interval |
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Definition
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Term
83. Which electronic counter measurement counts the number of bits in a pulse train?
a.) Period
b.) Scaling
c.) Totalize
d.) Time interval |
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Definition
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Term
84. Which are the correct four classes of electronic counters?
a.) Frequency counters, time counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters
b.) Frequency counters, universal counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters
c.) Frequency counters, universal counters, period counters, and reciprocal counters
d.) Scaling counters, universal counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters |
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Definition
b.) Frequency counters, universal counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters |
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Term
85. What principle does the time domain reflectometer use to test cables?
a.) Amplitude
b.) Frequency
c.) Audio
d.) Radar |
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Definition
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Term
86. Which push-button(s) would you select to get 125Ω impedance on the time domain reflectometer?
a.) None
b.) 75Ω only
c.) 125Ω only
d.) 50Ω and 75Ω |
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Definition
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Term
87. What type of deflection return on the TDR CRT would indicate a cable "short?"
a.) No "pip"
b.) Smeared "pip"
c.) Upward deflections "pip"
d.) Downward deflections "pip" |
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Definition
d.) Downward deflections "pip" |
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Term
88. While using a time domain reflectometer (TDR), what cable fault causes delays in pulses of propagation velocity making accurate measurements difficult?
a.) Short
b.) Open
c.) Grounded
d.) Moisture in cables |
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Definition
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Term
89. What do we call the power that is reflected back to an optical source in the time domain reflectometer?
a.) Reflection
b.) Backscatter
c.) Scatter coefficient
d.) Reflection coefficient |
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Definition
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Term
90. How is the signal loss represented in an optical time domain reflectometer display?
a.) Watts
b.) Power
c.) Candles
d.) Decibels |
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Definition
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