The movement of stabilized patients from forward medical location to another pre-arranged destination is the definition of

a. AEF

b. EMEDS

c. AE

d. AFTH

c. AE

What kind of change to casualty survival rates occures when AE is available?

a. Significantly increase with AE.

b. Significantly decrease with AE.

c. Inreased by only 10% with AE.

d. Decreased by only 10% with AE.

a. Significantly increase with AE.

What is the ratio of C-17's used for EMEDS versus 25 bed Air Transportable Hospital?

a. 1/2.

b. 1.7/3.

c. 3/1.

d. 4/2.

b. 1.7/3.

The EMEDS components are broken down into which 3 increments?

a. 25 bed STH, Clinical units and unit type codes.

b. AEF, EMEDS, AFTH

c. EMEDS intermediate, ATH, unit type codes.

d. EMEDS Basic, +10, +25.

d. EMEDS Basic, +10, +25.

Which EMEDS increment has no inpatient beds?

a. EMEDS Basic.

b. EMEDS +10.

c. EMEDS +25.

d. All EMEDS have inpatient beds.

a. EMEDS Basic.

Which EMEDS increment is capable of performing 10 major surgeries in 24 hours?

a. Only AFTHS have surgery capabilities.

b. EMEDS +25.

c. EMEDS +10.

d. EMEDS Basic.

d. EMEDS Basic.

UTC FFDAB, the Flight Medicine Team, provides care and treatment for a maximum of

a. 100 personnel.

b. 1000 personnel.

c. 2000 personnel.

d. 5000 personnel.

c. 2000 personnel.

EMEDS Basic requires both routine AE support and urgent AE support with in how many hours of notification?

a. 12 hours for routine AE support, and 2 hours for urgent AE support. 

b. 12 hours for routine AE support, and 4 hours for urgent AE support. 

c. 24 hours for routine AE support, and 12 hours for urgent AE support.

d. 36 hours for routine AE support, and 24 hours for urgent AE support.

c. 24 hours for routine AE support, and 12 hours for urgent AE support.

For what is the UTC FFGL2, the Medical Preventative and Aeromedical team responsible?

a. Security of base perimeter.

b. Ensuring safety of food & water supply.

c. Providing all personnel for EMEDS surgery team.

d. Only providing medical support for all AE personnel.

b. Ensuring safety of food & water supply.

What capabilities is the UTC FFMFS, Medical Mobile Field Surgical team responsible forproviding?

a. Only provides care for the battle injured using pain meds and blood transfusion.

b. Set up operations separate from main EMEDS locations.

c. Povide care to all battle wounded personel where they are found.

d. Provides primary disaster medical capability for EMEDS.

d. Provides primary disaster medical capability for EMEDS.

How many personnel are assigned to the EMEDS +10 increment?

a. 56 personnel.

b. 26 personnel.

c. 76 personnel.

d. 36 personnel.

a. 56 personnel.

How many tents make up the EMEDS +10 increment?

a. Two.

b. Four.

c. Six.

d. Eight.

b. Four.

How many critical care patients can be cared for by the EMEDS +10 increment?

a. 1

b. 3

c. 5

d. 7

b. 3

What is the total number of personnel assigned to the EMEDS +25?

a. 32.

b. 51.

c. 86.

d. 94.

c. 86.

EMEDS +25 provides primary care support for how many deployed personnel?

a. 3000 - 5000.

b. 6000 - 8000.

c. 9000 - 10000.

d. 11000 - 13000.

a. 3000 - 5000.

How many major surgeries is the EMEDS +25 team able to perform in 72 hours?

a. 10.

b. 15.

c. 20.

d. 25.

c. 20.

Which EMEDS increment provides advanced surgical and trauma support?

a. EMEDS intermediate.

b. EMEDS Basic.

c. EMEDS +10.

d. EMEDS +25.

d. EMEDS +25.

What funcion does the UTC FFEP 5, EMEDS Surgical Augmentation team, provide?

a. 24 hr sick call.

b. 24 hr surgery capability.

c. 24 hr aeromdical evacuation support.

d. 24 hr medical logistics.

b. 24 hr surgery capability.

Which UTC contains enough supplies for 30 days, operating 24 hrs/day, 7 days a week?

a. FFCCU - 4 bed ICU.

b. FFEE 3 - EMEDS +25 equipment.

c. FFEP 4 - EMEDS +25 Bed personnel.

d. FFCCS - Critical care air transport team support package.

a. FFCCU - 4 bed ICU.

Air Reserve Command has a total of how many personnel assigned?

a. 74.

b. 740.

c. 7400.

d. 74000.

d. 74000.

How many Individual mobilization Augmentess (IMA) are assigned to the Air Reserve?

a. 12,000.

b. 120,000.

c. 1,200.

d. 172,222.

a. 12,000.

How many AF Reserve units are located in the US?

a. 60.

b. 600.

c. 6,000.

d. 60,000.

b. 600.

On what type of schedule do the IMA fulfill their work commitment?

a. IMA's work only when their active duty counterpart is deployed.

b. IMA's need only to work 2 weeks in the summer.

c. IMA's work when they need the extra income.

d. IMA's work during the normal work week.

d. IMA's work during the normal work week.

The Air Force Career Field Manager has what skill level?

a. 4N000.

b. 4N031.

c. 4N051.

d. 4N071.

a. 4N000.

The Senior NCO Board evaluates based on what concept?

a. The one with the most in grade is the first to pormote.

b. The higher the education, the first to promote.

c. Senior NCOs just look out for themselves.

d. The whole person concept.

d. The whole person concept.

What percentage of SMSgt makes up the enlisted ranks?

a. 1 percent.

b. 2 percent.

c. 3 percent.

d. 4 percent.

b. 2 percent.

How is the AFCFM selected?

a. Applications are taken and reviewed by the surgeon general.

b. All CMSgt are interviewed by the Air Force Chief Nurse and the chosen.

c. The current Career Field Manager interviews any SMSgt interested.

d. Must volunteer and have a broad breath of experience needed for the position.

d. Must volunteer and have a broad breath of experience needed for the position.

What conference can you attend where you will have input to the CFETP?

a. Utilization and Training Workshop.

b. Executive Leadership Symposium.

c. Medical Service Managers Conference.

d. SKT rewrite.

a. Utilization and Training Workshop.

The AFCFM utilizes what survey to determine jobs currently being performed by the career field?

a. Occupational Survey Report and Job Inventory Survey.

b. Health Evaluation Assessment Review and Enlisted Stratification Report.

c. Occupational Survey Report and Enlisted Strafification Report.

d. Health Evaluation Assessment Review and Job Inventory Survey.

a. Occupational Survey Report and Job Inventory Survey.

Who develops and maintains currency of the CFETP?

a. Group Superintendent.

b. Surgeion General.

c. Career Field Manager.

d. CDC Writer.

c. Career Field Manager.

Who is responsible for forecasting unit supplies requirements?

a. The unit NCOIC.

b. Resource Management Office.

c. Integrated Health Administrator.

d. Medical Material.

d. Medical Material.

Who has the final approval authority for equipment requests?

a. Flight Chief.

b. Medical Equipment Management Office.

c. MTF Commander.

d. Resource Manager.

c. MTF Commander.

A list of supply items that are used routinely with in a duty section are found on what issuing report/list?

a. Pre-issue list.

b. Back order report.

c. Emergency issue report.

d. Shopping guide issue list.

d. Shopping guide issue list.

The automatic restocking of primary supply storage is accomplished under what medical logistics system?

a. Internal distribution operation.

b. Emergency issues.

c. Supply issues.

d. Turn over operations.

a. Internal distribution operation.

What type of logistics issue is accomplished for the request of a one-time order with no foreseeable demand for one year?

a. Emergency issue.

b. Turn-in issue.

c. Non-Routine issues.

d. Controlled medical issue.

c. Non-Routine issues.

What transaction must be completed before an item previously on back order shows up on the using activity issue list?

a. Back order release issue.

b. Pre-issue.

c. Turn-in-issue.

d. Shopping guide issue.

a. Back order release issue.

When there is a change in procedures or mission, how do you manage the equipment NOT in use?

a. Throw it away.

b. Give it to another MTF.

c. Contact MEMO for turn-in action.

d. Never get rid of it, you may need it in the future.

c. Contact MEMO for turn-in action.

Who appoints property custodians?

a. Flight chief.

b. MTF commander.

c. NCOIC.

d. OIC

b. MTF commander.

When taking over as the custodian for a new supply account, what is the first task to be accomplished?

a. Contact MEMO so they can perform an inventory.

b. Contact the group superintendent to perform an inventory.

c. Ensure you involve the entire duty section to perform an inventory.

d. Ensure you and the losing custodian perform a thorough inventory.

d. Ensure you and the losing custodian perform a thorough inventory.

While performing an inventory of all equipment what else should be checked?

a. To see if there is a newer piece of equipment you can upgrade to.

b. The serviceablilty, maintenance & calibration of equipment.

c. All unserviceable itmes are not turned over until repair is complete.

d. The previous custodians have signed for the dame equipment.

b. The serviceablilty, maintenance & calibration of equipment

When can the AF Form 601 be destroyed?

a. When an item is correctly listed on the new custodial action list or custody receipt/locator list.

b. Whe the new custodian physically has the piece of equipment in place on the unit.

c. When the losing custodian has contacted MEMO and the gaining custodian agrees to accept the equipment.

d. When medical equipment and maintenance office has canceled the transaction.

a. When an item is correctly listed on the new custodial action list or custody receipt/locator list.

When transferring equipment, who is required to initiate the AF Form 601 transfer request?

a. The gaining custodian.

b. The MTF Commander.

c. The Flight Chief.

d. The losing custodian.

d. The losing custodian.

Which equipment management list indicates each specific item the custodian has signed to accept responsibility?

a. The custody receipt locator list.

b. The equipment support list.

c. Back order equipment list.

d. Equipment turn-in list.

a. The custody receipt locator list.

How many days does it normally take for an equipment turn-in or transfer to be processed?

a. 5 days.

b. 14 days.

c. 20 days.

d. 30 days.

a. 5 days.

What information does the last page of each customer support listing contain?

a. The dollar value summary and refundable/reimbursable dollar amount.

b. Refundable/reimbursable dollar amount and the stock number assigned to the item.

c. Refundable/reimbursable dollar amount, the dollar value of non-refundable/non-reimursable items and the stock number assigned to the item.

d. The dollar value summary, refundable/reimbursable dollar amount and the dollar valure of non-refundable/non-reimbusable items.

d. The dollar value summary, refundable/reimbursable dollar amount and the dollar valure of non-refundable/non-reimbusable items.

Approximately how much of the budget is spent on medical supply purchases?

a. 25 percent.

b. 50 percent.

c. 75 percent.

d. 90 percent.

b. 50 percent

The Annual units budget will be reduced when the budget spending for the year has dropped by

a. 50 percent.

b. 25 percent.

c. 10 percent.

d. 5 percent.

c. 10 percent

What is the definition of manpower?

a. A unit of meauring work.

b. A funded position of work.

c. Quantitative expression for manpower requirements.

d. The number of people contributing to or needed for a workforce.

d. The number of people contributing to or needed for a workforce

One man-hour is equivalent to one person working at a normal pace for

a. 20 minutes.

b. 30 minutes.

c. 60 minutes.

d. 90 minutes.

c. 60 minutes

The description of the workload, associated conditions, a grade & skill level tabel, approved variances and a processes analysis summary is the definition of

a. Manpower authorization

b. Manpower standard.

c. Manpower requirement.

d. Manpower unit measure.

b. Manpower standard

Information found in this document provides a clear picture of the manning positions within an MTF.

a. Unit manpower document.

b. Manpower request document.

c. Missin support plan document.

d. Manpower requirement document.

a. Unit manpower document

What is th numeric code that identifies a particular task that may include an alpha prefix or suffix?

a. Air Force specialty code.

b. Program element code.

c. Position number.

d. Job Number.

a. Air Force specialty code

Each position in the UMD is displayed over fiscal quarters. When does the fiscal year start and end?

a 1 June thru 30 May.

b. 1 Jan thru 31 Dec.

c. 1 Sept thru 30 Aug.

d. 1 Oct thru 30 Sept.

d. 1 Oct thru 30 Sept

Who authorizes a change to manpower requests?

a. Logistics officer.

b. MTF Commander.

c. Group Superintendent.

d. Resource Management office.

d. Resource Management office

When requesting manning assistance, who pays for the individuals TDY expenses?

a. Individual's home unit.

b. Requesting unit.

c. MAJCOM funds.

d. HQ USAF TDY funds.

b. Requesting unit

What is the first element of the time management?

a. Identifying.

b. Prioritizing.

c. Organizing.

d. Planning.

d. Planning

The responsibility of reviewing and approving staff schedules lies with the

a. NCOIC/Nurse Manager.

b. Group superintendent.

c. Chief Nurse.

d. Flight Chief.

a. NCOIC/Nurse Manager

Another term for a 12 hour schedule is

a. cyclic.

b. routine.

c. extended.

d. compressed.

a. cyclic

How many hours a day do people on a conventinal schedule work?

a. 12.

b. 10.

c. 8.

d. 6.

c. 8

What tools do supervisors use to set clear expectations for subordinates?

a. Air Force instrucins and NCO Academy lessions.

b. Position descriptions and Performance Standards.

c. Operation instructions and Upgrade training requirements.

d. Job description and past EPRs.

b. Position descriptions and Performance Standards

How often are the unit position descriptions reviewd and updated?

a. Annually.

b. Bi-Monthly.

c. When there is a change in supervisors.

d. When the member request to see the position description.

a. Annually

To provide an outline of the funcions and activities required to achieve organizations objective and aid in the selection for the right person for a particular job, is the explanation for the

a. definition of a job description

b. purpose of a positin description.

c. purpose of a perfomance description.

d. definition of a position evaluation.

b. purpose of a positin description

What tool can be used to identify potential training needs while maintaining continuity?

a. Upgrade training assessment.

b. On-the-job training.

c. Job performance evaluatin.

d. Position description.

d. Position description

The quality or quantity of a task is written in what document?

a. Job desription.

b. Performance desription.

c. Performance Standard.

d. Position desription.

c. Performance Standard

Which document provides outside agencies with the valuable information necessary for nursing personnel?

a. Position description.

b. Job duties.

c. EPR's or OPR's.

d. Each agencies guideline.

a. Position description

What document is used when evaluating if a member has met the standard?

a. Job standard.

b. Performance standard.

c. Position standard.

d. Career standard.

b. Performance standard

If a perfomance can be evaluated by how much, how fast or how often, what performance criterion is used?

a. Qualitative.

b. Understood.

c. Quantitative.

d. Visible.

Quantitative

What factors does a performance standard evaluation report?

a. Observable factors.

b. Understood factors.

c. Always attainable factors.

d. Factors without reference.

a. Observable factors

The Assessment of an individual's ability to perform a certain job is the definition for

a. position description.

b. qualification.

c. certification.

d. licensure.

b. qualification

What is the minimum time for up-grade training to a 7-skill level?

a. 9 months.

b. 12 months.

c. 18 months.

d. 24 months.

b. 12 months

An active duty SMSgt, 9-skill level, must keep what certification current if required by duty position?

a. CPR.

b. LVN.

c. NREMT-B.

d. IDMT.

c. NREMT-B

What part of the CFETP is designed to provide formal course developers and field supervisors with information necessary to identify, plan and conduct training?

a. Pat I.

b. Part II.

c. Part III.

d. Part IV.

b. Part II

What document identifies tasks applicable to the member's duty section?

a. CFETP, Career field Education and training Plan.

b. JQS, Job Qualification Standard.

c. STS, Specialty Training Standard.

d. MTL, Master Task List.

d. MTL, Master Task List

The six-part folder was implemented for mandatory use by the 4N0XX Career field in

a. 1996.

b. 1999.

c. 2000.

d. 2001.

a. 1996

Who approved the changes to the CFETP?

a. MTF commander.

b. USAF Surgeon General.

c. Education and Training Flight.

d. MAJCOM Functional Managers.

b. USAF Surgeon General

AF Form 623b, individual training record is ALWAYS mandatory for which skill levels?

a. 3-, 5-, and 9-skill levels.

b. 3-, 5-, and 7-skill levels.

c. 5-, 7-, and 9-skill levels.

d. 7- and 9-skill levels.

b. 3-, 5-, and 7-skill levels

AF Form 55, Employee Safety and Health Record, is found in which part and section of the six-part folder?

a. Part I Sect A.

b. Part II Sect B.

c. Part III Sect B.

d. Part IV Sect A.

a. Part I Sect A

What are the only certification documents kept in the six-part folder?

a. LVN License and IDMT Certification.

b. NREMT-B Card and IDMT Certification.

c. NREMT-B Card and CPR Card.

d. LVN License and CPR Card.

c. NREMT-B Card and CPR Card

How are reengineering Primary Care services known as primary care optimization, and the need to recapture patient care from the private sector being accomplished through

a. TRICARE.

b. Managed Care.

c. Population Health Management.

d. Military Health Service Management.

c. Population Health Management

When enrolling in TRICARE Prime, what important decision is made?

a. How many appointments you will need in one year.

b. What type of specialty care you would like.

c. What facility you will chose to use for inpatient care.

d. Who your Primary Care Manager will be to care for your family.

d. Who your Primary Care Manager will be to care for your family

An effective and efficient process for rapidly improving the health of the population affected by acute medical conditions and the related medical costs is the purpose of

a. population management.

b. demand management.

c. condition management.

d. occupational health management.

c. condition management

When properly executed, condition management can provide

a. the opportunity to seek care by any provider available.

b. continuity in provider practices.

c. increase health care costs.

d. lower health care cost.

b. continuity in provider practices

Which team member takes on the responsibility of developing patient care plans everyone can follow?

a. Aerospace medical technician.

b. Administrative specialist.

c. Medical provider.

d. Nurse.

d. Nurse

What other team member other than the provider is responsible for notifying patients of their results?

a. Aerospace medical technician.

b. Admisistrative specialist.

c. Superintendent.

d. Nurse.

d. Nurse

What guidance authorizes the Aerospace Medical technician to order laboratory tests and x-rays for patients prior to seeing the nurse or provider?

a. Local protocols.

b. Scope of practice.

c. Operating instructions.

d. Air Force instructions.

a. Local protocols

Which team member known as the information expert?

a. Health service management specialist.

b. Aerospace medical technician.

c. Medical provider.

d. Nurse.

a. Health service management specialist

In response to the patients demand for health care exceeding the current system capability, the Department of Defense introduced what program to continue providing the best health care.

a. Put prevention into practice programs.

b. Take care of yourself program.

c. Health care information lines.

d. Managed care program.

d. Managed care program

What classifies health care financing for the poor?

a. TRICARE for life.

b. TRICARE standard.

c. Medicare.

d. Medicaid.

d. Medicaid

Health Maintenace Organizations gained federal support for corporate practice in

a. 1970.

b. 1972.

c. 1973.

d. 1975.

c. 1973

Seventy-five percent of all TRICARE patients care is received through the

a. specialty providers.

b. local emergency room.

c. local military treatment facility.

d. preferred provider organizations.

c. local military treatment facility

What is one key success to the TRICARE program?

a. Integrating each branch of service to work in any military treatment facility.

b. To keep a limited number of patients enrolled in the program.

c. Effectively working military members in the local hospitals.

d. Through the effective use of information systems.

d. Through the effective use of information systems

One of the key freatures to TRICARE prime is

a. guaranteed access to timely Medical care.

b. guarantee to see the same provider all the time.

c. to be seen at the military hospital at any time.

d. to be able to walk in to be seen for an appointment.

a. guaranteed access to timely Medical care

Which of the TRICARE options is a fee-for service?

a. TRICARE Prime.

b. TRICARE Standard.

c. TRICARE Extra.

d. TRICARE For-life.

b. TRICARE Standard

TRICARE Extra is limited in what area?

a. The providers participating in the TRICARE Extra network.

b. The amount of individuals who can enroll.

c. In the amount of the deductible allowed.

d. The availability nationwide.

a. The providers participating in the TRICARE Extra network

TRICARE For Life was made available

a. 1 Sept 96.

b. 30 Oct 99.

c. 30 Sept 00.

d. 1 Oct 01.

d. 1 Oct 01