Term
What are the 3 basic parts of human cells? |
|
Definition
plasma membrane, cytoplasm (organelles), nucleus |
|
|
Term
List membranous organelles: |
|
Definition
- mitochondria
- peroxisomes
- endoplasmic reticulum
- lysosomes
- golgi apparatus
|
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|
Term
List nonmembranous organelles: |
|
Definition
- cytoskeleton
- centrioles
- ribosomes
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|
Term
What types of cells are uninucleate, anucleate, or multinucleate? |
|
Definition
- most cells are uninucleate
- RBCs are anucleate
- skeletal muscle cells, bone destruction cells, & some liver cells are multinucleate
|
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|
Term
Describe the membrane composition: |
|
Definition
cellular membranes have an asymmetric bimolecular layer of lipids & proteins in a constantly changing fluid mosaic |
|
|
Term
What is the function of the cellular membrane? |
|
Definition
- separates intracellular fluid (ICF) from extracellular fluid (ECF)
- maintains cell structure
- chemical & physical barrier (impermeable)
- allows cell communication
- regulates water & solute exchange (semipermeable)
|
|
|
Term
What is the composition of lipids? (Give the percentage of each.) |
|
Definition
75% phospholipids, 5% glygolipids, 20% cholesterol |
|
|
Term
Describe the phospholipids in lipids: |
|
Definition
- lipid bilayer or leaflets, amphipathic, impermeable to charged, large, & water soluble molecules
- phophate heads - polar & hydrophilic
- fatty acid tails - nonpolar & hydrophobic
|
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|
Term
Describe the glycolipids in lipids: |
|
Definition
lipids with polar sugar groups on outer membrane surface |
|
|
Term
Describe cholesterol in lipids: |
|
Definition
increases plasma membrane stability & fluidity |
|
|
Term
Most integral proteins are what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are some examples of integral proteins? |
|
Definition
- adhesion molecules
- transport proteins
- enzymes
- receptors
- intracellular signaling
|
|
|
Term
Define peripheral proteins: |
|
Definition
filaments on intracellular surface & glyco proteins on extracellular surface |
|
|
Term
What are some types of peripheral proteins? |
|
Definition
- ionic interactions
- subcortical cytoskeleton
- motor proteins
- cell-to-cell links
- support on intracellular surface, part of glycocalyx
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|
Term
Describe membrane transport with respect to membranes as permeability barriers: |
|
Definition
- plasma membranes are selectively permeable
- phospholipid bilayer is impermeable to charged & water-soluble molecules
|
|
|
Term
What are types of membrane transport? |
|
Definition
- passive processes (pass down a concentration gradient)
- active processes (ATP)
|
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|
Term
What determines whether or not a substance can passively permeate a membrane? |
|
Definition
- lipid solubility of substance
- molecular size
- composition of lipid bilayer
- cell membrane thickness
- concentration gradient
- membrane surface area
- electrical charge
|
|
|
Term
Fick's Law of Diffusion says what?
|
|
Definition
rate of diffusion = [(available surface area) x (conc. gradient)]
___________________________________
[(membrane resistance) x (thickness of membrane)] |
|
|
Term
What is the formula for membrane resistance? |
|
Definition
membrane resistance = lipid solubility / molecular size
changing the composition of the lipid layer can inc or dec membrane resistance |
|
|
Term
What are the three types of passive processes? |
|
Definition
simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
nonpolar lipid-soluble (hydrophobic) substances diffuse directly through the phospholipid bilayer |
|
|
Term
Define facilitated diffusion: |
|
Definition
ionophores, hydrophobic molecules that dissolve in lipid bilayers & increase permeability to specific inorganic ions; saturable |
|
|
Term
How does simple diffusion use tranport by proteins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the four kinds of pores? Describe them. |
|
Definition
- porins: in outer membranes of mitochondria
- perforin: released by lymphocytes, allows passive flow of ions, water, small molecules
- aquaporin: single-file diffusion of water
- nuclear pore complex
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Term
Describe the two types of channel-mediated faciliated diffusion and the difference between the two: |
|
Definition
- ungated/leakage channels: always open; determined by size, shape, distribution of charge, etc.
- gated channels: controlled by chemical or electrical signals (such as voltage dependent Na+ channels or nicotinic ACh receptor channels)
|
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|
Term
True or False: A carrier protein can undergo a conformational change with a transported molecule is brought into the cell. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Define and give the characteristics of carrier-mediated facilitated diffusion: |
|
Definition
binding of a substrate causes shape change in carrier
- two gates that are never open at the same time
- specific affinity for binding one or a small # of solutes (so only binds to specific molecules)
- ex: glucose transporter GLUT which is important in diabetes
|
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|
Term
What are two types of active processes and what is a similarity between the two? |
|
Definition
- active transport
- vesicular transport
both use energy (ATP) to move solutes across living plasma membrane |
|
|
Term
Define Active Transport and list its two types: |
|
Definition
- requires carrier proteins (solute pumps)
- moves solutes against concentration gradient
- two types: primary act. trans. & secondary act. trans.
|
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|
Term
Define primary active transport: |
|
Definition
- energy from hydrolysis of ATP causes shape change in transport protein
- sodium-potassium pump (Na+/K+ ATPase)
|
|
|
Term
Describe the purpose of the Sodium-Potassium Pump
(Na+/K+ ATPase) in all plasma membranes: |
|
Definition
- primary & secondary active transport of nutrients & ions
- maintains electrochemical gradients essential for functions of muscle & nerve tissues
- α subunit binds ATP, 3 Na+, & 2 K+; also β subunit
- transport is electrogenic but contributes >10% membrane potential
|
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|
Term
What is the purpose of the Ca2+ ATPase Pump?
|
|
Definition
- important in muscle contraction
- cell membrane & sarcoplasmic reticulum
- maintains low cytosolic Ca2+ concentration
|
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of the H+ ATPase Pump?
|
|
Definition
- important in stomach secretion & kidney regulation of blood pH
- parietal cells of gastric glands (HCl secretion) & intercalated cells of renal tubules (controls blood pH)
- concentrates H+ ions up to 1 million-fold
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|
Term
Describe the entire cycle that Na+ and K+ go through during binding to a pump protein: |
|
Definition
- cytoplasmic Na+ binds to pump protein
- binding of Na promotes phosphorylation of protein by ATP
- phosphorylation causes protein to change shape, expelling Na+ to outside
- extracellular K+ binds to pump protein
- K+ binding triggers release of phosphate; pump protein returns to original conformation
- K+ released from pump protein & Na+ sites read to bind Na+ again (*repeat cycle*)
|
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|
Term
Define Secondary Transport: |
|
Definition
depends on an ion gradient created by primary active transport |
|
|
Term
Define cotransport and list its two types: |
|
Definition
always transports more than one substance at a time
- symport system - 2 same direction
- antiport system - 2 opp. direction
|
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|
Term
The ATP driven Na+K+ pump stores energy by creating what? |
|
Definition
by creating a steep concentration gradient for Na+ entry into the cell |
|
|
Term
As Na+ diffuses back across the membrane through a membrane cotransporter protein, it drives what
against its concentration gradient into the cell. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
inhibit Na+/K+ ATPase
(for ex: digoxin is the cornerstone for treatment of heart failure) |
|
|
Term
How do cardiac glycosides increase cardiac contractility? |
|
Definition
- inc. intracellular Na+
- dec. Na+ gradient
- dec. Na+/Ca2+ counter-transport
- inc. intracellular Ca2+
- alters secondary active transport mechanism inside the cell; if there is no Na+ gradient, then Ca2+ cannot be moved
|
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|
Term
Define Vesicular Transport: |
|
Definition
- transport of large particles, macromolecules, & fluids across plasma membranes
- requires cellular energy (ATP and calcium)
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Term
What are the four types of Vesicular Transport? Define each. |
|
Definition
- endocytosis: transport into cell
- transcytosis: transport into, across, & out of cell (from molecule that came from outside of cell)
- exocytosis: transport out of cell
- trafficking: transport from one area or organelle in cell to another (comes from inside cell)
|
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Term
Endocytosis & Transcytosis involve the formation of what? Both are often receptor mediated, and are therefore...? |
|
Definition
protein-coated vesicles; selective |
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|
Term
What are the three subdivisions of endocytosis? |
|
Definition
- Phagocytosis
- receptor-mediated endocytosis
- pinocytosis
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|
Term
Describe how the process of Phagocytosis works: |
|
Definition
- pseudopods engulf SOLIDS (phagosome) which is combined with a lysosome
- undigested contents remain in vesicle (residual body) or are ejected by exocytosis
- ex: macrophages & some white blood cells
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|
Term
Describe how the process of receptor-mediated endocytosis works: |
|
Definition
- Clathrin-coated pits
- uptake of ligands (enzymes, low-density lipoproteins, iron, & insulin)
- ligands may be released inside cell or combined w/ lysosome to digest contents
- receptors recycled to plasma membrane in vesicles
|
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|
Term
Describe how the process of Pinocytosis works: |
|
Definition
- plasma membrane infolds, bringing extracellular FLUID and SOLUTES into interior of cell (common in digestion)
- ex: nutrient absorption in small intestine
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|
Term
What are some examples of Exocytosis? |
|
Definition
- hormone secretion
- neurotransmitter release
- mucus secretion
- ejection of wastes
|
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|
Term
Describe the entire process of exocytosis: |
|
Definition
- membrane-bound vesicle migrates to the plasma membrane
- proteins at vesicle surface (v-SNAREs) bind w/ t-SNAREs (plasma membrane proteins)
- vesicle & plasma membrane fuse & pore opens up
- vesicle contents are released to cell exterior
|
|
|
Term
The pumping of ions across membranes using ATP is an example of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The movement of polar or charged solutes across membranes using an ion gradient is an example of: |
|
Definition
secondary active transport |
|
|
Term
The secretion of hormones and
neurotransmitters using ATP is an example of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The absorption by intestinal cells using ATP is an example of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
hormone & cholesterol uptake using ATP is an example of: |
|
Definition
receptor-mediated endocytosis |
|
|
Term
Compare/Contrast Diffusion vs. Active Transport: |
|
Definition
Diffusion:
- occurs DOWN conc. gradient; no mediator or involves "channel" or "carrier"
- no additional energy
Active Transport:
- occurs AGAINST conc. gradient; involves "carrier"
- requires energy
|
|
|
Term
The total body water is ______% of the total body weight.
What percentage is intracellular/extracellular? What is each environment rich in? |
|
Definition
- 50-60% of total body weight
- 60% intracellular (rich in K+)
- 40% extracellular (rich in Na+ and Cl-)
|
|
|
Term
What is the extracellular environment of body water composed of? Give the percentages & purpose of each component. |
|
Definition
- interstitial fluid (75%): bathes non-blood cells
- blood plasma (20%): bathes blood cells
- transcellular fluid (5%): surrounded by epithelial cells, eg. synovial & cerebrospinal fluids
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
concentration of all particles free in a soln |
|
|
Term
Define electroneutrality: |
|
Definition
number of positive & negative charges must be equal; there is a difference b/n major cations & anions in blood plasma, defined as anion gap
|
|
|
Term
All body fluids have approximately the same osmolality and electroneutrality. What is this osmolality? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
movement of solvent (water) across a selectively permeable membrane |
|
|
Term
How does water diffuse through plasma membranes? |
|
Definition
- through the lipid bilayer
- through water channels called aquaporins (AQPs)
|
|
|
Term
What is water concentration determined by and why? |
|
Definition
solute concentration b/c solute particles displace water molecules; can measure a person's dehydration levels based on sodium |
|
|
Term
When solutions of different osmolarity are separated by membrane, what happens? |
|
Definition
osmosis occurs until equilibrium is reached |
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of osmotic pressure? |
|
Definition
- if soln B is more concentrated than soln B & the 2 compartments are separated by a membrane that is permeable to water, but not glucose, water will move (by osmosis) into more concentrated soln B until conc. equal
- osmotic pressure is pressure that must be applied to soln B to oppose osmosis from A to B
|
|
|
Term
How do you estimate plasma osmolarity? |
|
Definition
- dominated by [Na+] and the associated anions
- Na+ 130-140mmol
- POSM = 2 X (135‐145)= 270‐290 mOsm
- 150 mM NaCl = 300 mOsm (Saline or 0.9% NaCl)
- 300 mM glucose = 300 mOsm
|
|
|
Term
Under normal conditions, ECF osmolarity can be roughly
estimated as: |
|
Definition
POSM = 2 [Na+]p 270‐290 mOSM
- Na+ 130-140mmol
- POSM = 2 X (135‐145)= 270‐290 mOsm
|
|
|
Term
Give the values for normal plasma osmolarity, isosmolar solns, hyperosmolar solns, and hypo-osmolar solns: |
|
Definition
- normal plasma osmolarity = 290 mOsm
- Isosmolar solutions = 290 mOsm
- Hyperosmolar solutions > 290 mOsm
- Hypo‐osmolar solutions < 290 mOsm
|
|
|
Term
A NaCl soln of 210 mOsm is considered: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
ability of a solution to cause a cell to shrink or swell (often used to compare 2 solns like ECF vs. ICF) |
|
|
Term
Define isotonic, hypertonic, & hypotonic: |
|
Definition
- Isotonic: A soln w/ the same solute conc. as that of the cytosol.
- Hypertonic: A soln having greater solute conc. than that of the cytosol.
- Hypotonic: A soln having lesser solute conc. than that of the cytosol.
|
|
|
Term
With respect to size and shape, what will happen to a cell in an isotonic solution? |
|
Definition
Cells retain their normal size and shape in isotonic solutions (same solute/water concentration as inside cells; water moves in and out). |
|
|
Term
With respect to size and shape, what will happen to a cell in a hypertonic solution? |
|
Definition
Cells lose water by osmosis and shrink in a hypertonic solution (higher concentration of solutes than are present inside the cells). |
|
|
Term
With respect to size and shape, what will happen to a cell in a hypotonic solution? |
|
Definition
Cells take on water by osmosis until they become bloated andburst in a hypotonic solution (lower concentration of solutes than are present in cells). |
|
|
Term
If extra-cellular osmolality is increased, what occurs? |
|
Definition
the cell shrinks until the osmolality inside & out becomes the same |
|
|
Term
What is the difference between the acute response vs. the chronic response to cell shrinkage? |
|
Definition
- acute response: regulatory volume increase (RVI) by activating (1) Na+-H+ exchanger & Cl-HCO-3 exchange or (2) Na+/K+/Cl- cotransporter
- chronic response: accumulating intracellular organic solutes or transport them into the cytosol from the outside
|
|
|
Term
If extra-cellular osmolality is decreased, what occurs? |
|
Definition
- the cell swells until the osmolality inside & out becomes the same
- response: regulatory volume decrease (RVD) by activating (1) K+ and Cl- channels or (2) K+/Cl- cotransporter
|
|
|
Term
What are the three major causes of changes in tonicity? |
|
Definition
- Decreases in [Na+] in the plasma and ECF (hyponatremia)
- Increases in [Na+] (hypernatremia)
- Increases in glucose concentration (hyperglycemia)
|
|
|
Term
What is the major determinant of ECF volume? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Adding isotonic saline, pure water, or pure NaCl to the ECF will increase what? What will it have divergent effects on? |
|
Definition
- will inc. ECF volume
- will have divergent effects on ICF volume & ECF osmolality
|
|
|
Term
The infusion of isotonic saline (1.5 L) does what to ICF & ECF? |
|
Definition
- this soln has effective osmolarity of 290 mOsm in ECF
- raises ecf volume w/o affecting ICF
- no change occurs in effective osmotic gradient across cell membrane
- added water moves neither into nor out of ICF
|
|
|
Term
The infusion of "solute-free" water or (5%) glucose does what to ICF & ECF? |
|
Definition
- inc. ECF & dilutes preexisting solutes in the ECF (lowering ECF osmolarity)
- large osmotic gradient created that favors entry of water from ECF into ICF
|
|
|
Term
The ingestion of pure NaCl salt will do what to ICF & ECF? |
|
Definition
- inc osmolarity of ECF
- draws water out of ICF into ECF until osmotic equilibrium is re-established
- added ECF volume has come from ICF, then ICF shrinks
|
|
|
Term
Whole‐Body Water Content Determines...? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What stimulates the renal excretion of Na+? |
|
Definition
increases in ECF volume or total body Na+ content, but not plasma Na+ concentration |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- barriers that separate ECF from outside world
- uninterrupted sheet of cells that are joined together by junctional complexes
|
|
|
Term
What are the junctional complexes that join epithelium? |
|
Definition
- the apical membrane, brush border, mucosal membrane, or luminal membrane
- the basolateral membrane, serosal, or peritubular membrane
|
|
|
Term
Describe the two pathways that substances can cross epithelia: |
|
Definition
- transcellular: by sequentially passing across the apical & then basolateral membranes (or vice versa)
- paracellular: bypassing the cell entirely & cross epithelium through tight junctions & lateral intercellular spaces
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
number of moles of X crossing a unit area of membrane per unit of time |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
in simple diffusion, the Flux of an uncharged substance through membrane lipid is directly proportional to its concentration difference |
|
|
Term
What is the driving force behind the direction of solute transport? |
|
Definition
the driving force is the "downhill" electrochemical gradient |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
particular steady state in which there is no net driving force and thus no net transport |
|
|
Term
What is the chemical & electrical potential energy at equilibrium? |
|
Definition
at equilibrium, the chemical & electrical potential energy differences across the membrane are equal but opposite |
|
|
Term
What creates a membrane potential? |
|
Definition
separation of oppositely charged particles across a membrane |
|
|
Term
Define membrane potential: |
|
Definition
(Vm) is the difference b/n the electrical potential in the cytoplasm & electrical potential in the extracellular space |
|
|
Term
Define resting membrane potential (RMP): |
|
Definition
voltage measured in resting state in all cells
- ranges from -50 to -100 mV in different cells (-90avg in cell body)
- results from diffusion & active transport of ions (mainly K+)
|
|
|
Term
What is RMP determined by? |
|
Definition
RMP is determined by the ion distribution & the conductance of the ions |
|
|
Term
How is RMP generated & maintained? |
|
Definition
- Na+/K+ pump continuously ejects Na+ from cell & carries K+ back in. Some K+ continually diffuses down conc. gradient out of cell through K+ leakage channels.
- The immediate energy source of membrane potential is in ion concentration gradients.
- The ion pumps generate and maintain these ion gradients.
|
|
|
Term
RMP is established at the balancing point of what two gradients? |
|
Definition
RMP is established at the point where the electrical gradient balances the K+ concentration gradient |
|
|
Term
Why is a steady state of RMP maintained? |
|
Definition
A steady state is maintained because the rate of active
transport is equal to and depends on the rate of Na+ diffusion
into cell. |
|
|
Term
Define hyperpolarization: |
|
Definition
Negative‐going Vm change
(normal is -90 so hyperpolarization would be -100) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Positive‐going change in Vm
(-50 would be more depolarized; more positive than normal) |
|
|
Term
Cellular communication in the nervous system is based on what? |
|
Definition
based on electrical and chemical signaling events that are mediated by ion channels: action potential |
|
|
Term
if the Vm of a cell is -80 mV and reaches -70 mV how do we call this change in Vm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
List examples of ion channel proteins: |
|
Definition
- Connexins
- K+ Channels: largest family (Kv, SKCa and IKCa, BKCa…)
- Voltage‐Gated Channels/accessory proteins: Highly selective for Na+, Ca2+, or K+.
- Ligand‐Gated Channels: pentameric Cys‐loop, glutamate, Purinergic…
- Other Ion Channels: ENaC, CFTR, ITPR, RYR, ORAI storeoperated Ca2+ channels
|
|
|
Term
Define electrical excitability: |
|
Definition
transient membrane potential (Vm) inc. (positive‐going or depolarization) above certain threshold voltage triggers an all‐or‐none response called an action potential (more positive than the normal). |
|
|
Term
A sharp rise in Vm is followed by what? |
|
Definition
- followed by a slower repolarizing (negative‐going) phase.
- Time course and shape vary among different excitable tissues and cells.
|
|
|
Term
Electric signals cause what and spread according to what? |
|
Definition
- electric signals cause a deviation in membrane potential of cell
- spread according to different mechanisms like electrotonic conduction (dendrites) & action potential (axons)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Electrical impulses produced by excitable cells (neurons and myocytes) that propagates along an excitable membrane by transiently increasing Na+ or Ca2+ permeability. Vertebrate skeletal muscle fibers, have high permeability to Cl‐ |
|
|
Term
Give the defining characteristics of an action potential: |
|
Definition
- All or none
- Constant amplitude
- Initiated by depolarization
- Involve changes in permeability
- Rely on voltage‐gated ion channels
- Constant conduction velocity. (Fibers w/ large diameter conduct faster than small fibers).
|
|
|
Term
What are the three functions of action potentials? |
|
Definition
- info delivery to CNS
- info encoding
- rapid transmission over distance (nerve cell APs)
|
|
|
Term
How do we block APs? What does this mean for the transmission of a message? |
|
Definition
- block APs in sensory nerves by local anesthetics (analgesia w/o paralysis)
- blocking APs will block transmission of message but is dependent of what is being blocked (i.e. loss of pain feeling)
|
|
|
Term
What encodes information for action potentials? |
|
Definition
- the frequency of APs encodes info
- AMPLITUDE CANNOT CHANGE
|
|
|
Term
The speed of transmission of a nerve impulse depends on what? What happens to APs in non-nervous tissue? |
|
Definition
- speed of transmission depends on fiber size & whether it is myelinated (myelination inc. speed)
- in non-nervous tissue: APs initiators of cellular responses like muscle contractions & secretion (like epinephrine from chromaffin cells of medulla)
|
|
|
Term
The threshold, amplitude, time course, and duration of the
action potential depend on what factors? |
|
Definition
- gating (opening/closing) & permeability prop. that depend on Vm & time
- IC & EC conc. of ions that pass through channels, like Na+, K+, Ca2+, & Cl‐
- membrane prop. like capacitance, resistance, & geometry of cell.
|
|
|
Term
Describe the mechanism of action potentials for the following situations:
- smaller or subthreshold depolarizations
- hyperpolarizations
- as Vm becomes progressively more positive
|
|
Definition
- smaller or subthreshold depolarizations: will not elicit an action potential
- hyperpolarizations: always ineffective
- as Vm becomes progressively more positive: the gating of certain types of voltage-gated ion channels becomes activated
|
|
|
Term
Describe the characteristics of electrotonic conduction: |
|
Definition
- Magnitude of graded response decays exponentially w/ distance from site of stimulation due to loss of energy to medium.
- Passive spread of electrical potential; excitation of voltage-gated channels in adj. regions of excitable membrane regenerates response.
- Once Na+ channels opened & Na+ enters cell, membrane potential shifts toward Na+ equilibrium potential (positive)
|
|
|
Term
The diffusion of ions follows what kind of gradient? |
|
Definition
chemical or electrical gradient
(potential dissipates as distance from source increases) |
|
|
Term
Excitation of a Nerve or Muscle Depends on what two factors? |
|
Definition
- (Strength × Duration) of the Stimulus (minimum required)
- Refractory Period.
|
|
|
Term
True or false: Action potentials can summate. |
|
Definition
FALSE. action potentials never summate |
|
|
Term
Define refractory period: |
|
Definition
- time that must elapse before it is possible to trigger a second action potential
- two phases of refractory period arise from gating properties of particular Na+ & K+ channels & overlapping time course of their currents
|
|
|
Term
What is the basis of the absolute refractory period? |
|
Definition
the time during which a second action potential cannot occur under any circumstances, aka Na+ channel inactivation.
(sodium channel MUST be open & activated for AP to occur) |
|
|
Term
What is the relative refractory period? |
|
Definition
the time during which a stronger than normal stimulus is required to elicit a second action potential, which depends largely on delayed K+ channel opening. |
|
|
Term
Refractory periods limit what? |
|
Definition
the maximum frequency of APs |
|
|
Term
Sodium channels are most important in initiating what? |
|
Definition
action potentials & generating rapidly propagating spikes in axons |
|
|
Term
What are the two things that Na+ channels are blocked by? |
|
Definition
- Neurotoxins (TTX and STX) altering the gating kinetics of Na+ channels (longer duration and under different voltage)
- Local Anesthetics (procaine, lidocaine, and tetracaine) by inhibiting voltage‐gated Na+ channels.
|
|
|
Term
What molecule decreases Na+ channel activation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the functions of calcium channels? |
|
Definition
- contribute to action potentials in some cells
- function in electrical & chemical coupling mechanisms
|
|
|
Term
List and describe the types of electrical & chemical coupling mechanisms calcium channels are responsible for: |
|
Definition
- Depolarization phase of certain action potentials: basis for long‐lived APs observed in cardiac, smooth muscle, & secretory cells, & many types of neurons.
- Signal transduction processes.
- Excitation‐secretion coupling: (process by which depolarization of the plasma membrane causes release of NTs in the NS & the secretion of hormones in the endocrine system. (Such processes require inc. in Ca2+
|
|
|
Term
What is the difference b/n excitation contraction in cardiac muscle vs. skeletal muscle? |
|
Definition
cardiac muscle require extracellular Ca2+ and skeletal does not |
|
|
Term
What are the two types of calcium channels? |
|
Definition
- L-type (for long-lived)
- T-type (for transient) channels: activated @ lower voltage threshold
|
|
|
Term
A huge gradient favors the passive influx of Ca2+ into cells, but if Ca2+ is reduced to a nonphysiological level, what will this also conduct? |
|
Definition
large currents of Na+ and K+ |
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of Ca2+ channel blockers? Give some examples. |
|
Definition
- used in treatment of cardiovascular disorders & potential in treatment of various diseases of CNS.
- 1,4‐dihydropyridines (DHPs), eg nitrendipine.
- Phenylalkylamines, (eg verapamil)
- Benzothiazepines (eg diltiazem)
|
|
|
Term
What problems are associated with deficit/blocked calcium channels or too much calcium? |
|
Definition
problems with muscles, heart, and the release of neurotransmitters |
|
|
Term
What is the primary role of the potassium channel? |
|
Definition
The primary role of K+ channels in excitable cells is inhibitory by opposing the action of excitatory Na+ and Ca2+ channels and stabilizing the resting state. |
|
|
Term
What are the four functions of the potassium channel? |
|
Definition
- Determine resting potential
- Mediate termination of action potentials
- Control firing frequency and bursting behavior
- In epithelia, K+ absorption and secretion.
|
|
|
Term
List some types of pathologies associated with the potassium channel: |
|
Definition
- Lengthening of the QT interval
- Congenital deafness (K+ channel important for ear processes)
- Premature heartbeats or asynchronous ventricular contraction, with subsequent death
|
|
|
Term
Most chemical messengers interact with specific __________ _______ and trigger a cascade of secondary events (intracellular second‐messenger systems). |
|
Definition
Most chemical messengers interact with specific cell surface receptors and trigger a cascade of secondary events (intracellular second‐messenger systems). |
|
|
Term
What is the role of hydrophobic messengers in cell communication? |
|
Definition
Hydrophobic messengers (steroid hormones and some
vitamins) can diffuse across the plasma membrane and
interact with cytosolic or nuclear receptors. |
|
|
Term
What are the four key concepts of cell communication? |
|
Definition
1) Lock (Receptor): Cell surface, Cytosolic and Nuclear
2) Key (External stimuli): Hormones, Neurotransmitters
3) Second messengers
4) Turn on or turn off
|
|
|
Term
For cell-cell interaction, what are the three types of membrane junctions? |
|
Definition
- Gap junction (electrical and metabolic)
- Tight junction
- Adhering junction (Desmosome)
|
|
|
Term
For cell-environment interactions, what are membrane-associated ligands? |
|
Definition
- Involves a receptor in the plasma membrane & a ligand that is a membrane protein on an adj. cell.
- E.g. ephrin in axonal and endothelial guidance
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Substance that is produced in one tissue/organ & released into the blood & carried to other organs (targets), where it acts to produce a specific response |
|
|
Term
What are the three kinds of hormones and how do they differ? |
|
Definition
- Endocrine - distant target tissue
- Paracrine - same target tissue in neighboring cell, eg neuromuscular junction
- Autocrine - same cell that released the signal
|
|
|
Term
List examples of extracellular signaling molecules: |
|
Definition
- Amines (epinephrine)
- Peptides and Proteins (angiotensin II, insulin)
- Steroids (aldosterone, estrogens, retinoic acid)
- Small molecules (Aa, nucleotides, ions and gases)
|
|
|
Term
What are receptors made of and where are they located? |
|
Definition
- made of protein or lipoprotein
- on the cell (surface or inside; can be localized in any part of the cell)
|
|
|
Term
How do receptors signal? Describe their interaction with ligands. |
|
Definition
- receptors specifically binds a signaling molecule (like an ion channel)
- ligand interaction w/ one or more receptors results in association of receptor w/ effector molecule (enzymes, channels transport proteins, contractile elements, & transcription factors)
- some molecules compete for receptors
- either direct or mediated effect; effect highly correlated to type of receptor
|
|
|
Term
The ability of a cell/tissue to respond to a specific signal is dictated by what two factors? |
|
Definition
- the complement of receptor it possesses
- the chain of intracellular reactions that are initiated by the binding of any ligand to its receptor (signal transduction)
|
|
|
Term
Receptor activation leads to what changes in the cell? |
|
Definition
- membrane permeability
- metabolism
- secretory activity
- rate of proliferation and differentiation
- contractile activity
|
|
|
Term
What are the four types of receptors (by signal transduction)? |
|
Definition
- Ligand‐gated ion channels
- Catalytic receptors
- Nuclear receptors
- G protein‐coupled receptors
|
|
|
Term
Define Ligand‐gated ion channels: |
|
Definition
- integral membrane proteins
- direct signaling b/n electrically excitable cells (eg. ACh)
- transduce a chemical signal into an electrical signal (ionotropic receptors)
|
|
|
Term
Define Catalytic receptors: |
|
Definition
- integral membrane proteins
- when activated by a ligand become enzymes or part of an enzymatic complex
|
|
|
Term
Define nuclear receptors: |
|
Definition
- proteins in cytosol or nucleus
- ligand-activated transcription factors
- link extracellular signals to gene transcription
|
|
|
Term
Define G protein-coupled receptors: |
|
Definition
- integral membrane proteins
- indirect signaling, through an intermediary (G protein or GTP-binding complex) to activate/inactivate a separate membrane-associated enzyme or channel
|
|
|
Term
List the 6 steps that must occur for a signaling event to occur: |
|
Definition
- recognition
- transduction
- transmission
- modulation of the effector
- response
- termination
|
|
|
Term
What occurs during recognition in a signaling event? |
|
Definition
recognition of signal by its receptor that occurs by molecular interaction w/ receptor recognimtion of ligand
(ionic bonds, van der Waals & hydrophobic interactions) |
|
|
Term
What occurs during transduction in a signaling event? |
|
Definition
Transduction of the extracellular message into an intracellular signal or second messenger.
- lipid-soluble molecules can bind straight to the transcription factor
- hydrophilic molecules must signal & bind to outside of the plasma membrane before taking effect
|
|
|
Term
The conformational change in the receptor during transduction causes what two things to occur in a signaling event? |
|
Definition
- catalytic activities intrinsic to the receptor
- the receptor interacts with membrane or cytoplasmic enzymes (second messenger)
|
|
|
Term
What occurs during the modulation of the effector in a signaling event? |
|
Definition
activation of either protein kinases (that put phosphate group on proteins; majority of time kinase = activate) or phosphatases (take it off) |
|
|
Term
What occurs during the response of a signaling event? |
|
Definition
summation & integration of input from multiple signaling pathways |
|
|
Term
What occurs during the termination of a signaling event? |
|
Definition
by feedback mechanisms at any or all levels of the signaling pathway |
|
|
Term
From start to finish, list the entire process of a signaling event. |
|
Definition
- ligand (1st messenger) binds to receptor
- activated receptor binds to G protein & activates it
- activated G protein activates (or inactivates) effector protein (like enzyme) by causing its shape to change
- activated effector enzymes catalyze rxns that produce 2nd messengers in cell
- 2nd messengers activate other enzymes or ion channels
- kinase enzymes transfer phosphate groups from ATP to specific proteins & activate a series of other enzymes that trigger various cell responses
|
|
|
Term
Differentiate b/n 1st messenger pathways & 2nd messenger pathways: |
|
Definition
- 1st: binding of the receptor leads to a direct cellular response
- 2nd: binding of a ligand to the receptor leads to another signaling event which eventually causes a cellular response
|
|
|
Term
Give the defining characteristics of second messengers: |
|
Definition
- Amplify signals & integrate responses among cell types
- Allows specificity & diversity
- Its concentration is regulated b/c of feedback mechanism
- There is cross‐talk among different signaling cascades
(ex: cAMP: receptor occupancy activates G protein, which
stimulates adenyl cyclase that catalyzes ATP to cAMP. cAMP
is broken down by cAMP phosphodiesterase) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
signal transduction pathways that lead to the nucleus that affect the cell by modulating gene transcription |
|
|
Term
What produces non-genomic effects? |
|
Definition
Signal transduction systems that project to the cell
membrane or to the cytoplasm produce non‐genomic
effects |
|
|
Term
List some examples of ligand-gated ion channels: |
|
Definition
- Receptors for ACh
- Serotonin
- Gamma‐aminobutyric acid (GABA)
- Glycine
- IP3 receptor
- Ca2+ release channel (ryanodine receptor)
|
|
|
Term
What are the three types of catalytic receptors? |
|
Definition
- Guanylyl Cyclase (retina)
- Serine‐Threonine
- Tyrosine Kinase
|
|
|
Term
What is the function of guanylyl cyclase receptors and what are its two types? |
|
Definition
catalyzes the generation of cGMP from GTP
- membrane-bound
- soluble receptor (sGC)
|
|
|
Term
Give the characteristics of the membrane-bound guanylyl cyclase receptors: |
|
Definition
- tranduces activity of ANP & raises intracellular levels of cCMP
- raising cGMP activates cGMP-dependent kinase (PKG or cGK) that phosphorylates proteins @ certain serine & threonine residues
|
|
|
Term
Give the characteristics of the solube receptor (sGC) guanylyl cyclase receptors: |
|
Definition
- in cytosol
- transduces activity of nitric oxide
- as a result, cGMP inc & smooth muscles relax
- NO inc. diameter of vaculature & regulation of blood pressure
|
|
|
Term
How does a residue undergo phosphorylation with serine & threonine residues and what is the purpose of these residues? |
|
Definition
- Type II receptor first binds ligand & then type I receptor, which undergoes phosphorylation @ serine & threonine residues
- this activates kinase activity which propagates the signal to downstream effectors (Eg. TGF-beta)
(ligand+type II) > (type I) > (P-Type I) > (inc.kinase activity) > (downstream signaling) |
|
|
Term
Tyrosine kinase receptors do what to themselves in addition to other cellular proteins? What are some examples of tyrosine kinase receptors? |
|
Definition
- phosphorylate themselves
- e.g. growth factors, EGF, PDGF, VEGF, insulin, IGF‐1, FGF, NGF bind to receptors with intrinsic Tyr kinase activity.
|
|
|
Term
What kind of hormones bind to the nuclear receptor superfamily in the cytoplasm or nucleus? |
|
Definition
steroid & thyroid hormones |
|
|
Term
The ligand‐bound receptors are activated ___________ _________ that regulate the expression of target genes by binding to specific DNA sequences. |
|
Definition
The ligand‐bound receptors are activated transcription factors that regulate the expression of target genes by binding to specific DNA sequences. |
|
|
Term
Cytoplasmic receptors are complexed to do what to proteins? What does this induce? |
|
Definition
Cytoplasmic receptors are complexed to chaperone (or "heat
shock") proteins, inducing a conformational change in these
receptors. |
|
|
Term
Almost every single nuclear receptor can have what effects? |
|
Definition
genomic and non-genomic effects |
|
|
Term
List the types of hormones associated with the following types of nuclear receptors:
- primarily nuclear
- mainly cytoplasmic
- bound to DNA (in nucleus)
|
|
Definition
- primarily nuclear - estrogen (ER) & progesterone (PR) receptors
- mainly cytoplasmic - glucocorticoid (GR) & mineralocorticoid (MR) receptors
- bound to DNA (in nucleus) - thyroid hormone (TR) & retinoic acid (RAR/RXR) receptors
|
|
|
Term
Define transactivation of nuclear receptors: |
|
Definition
ligand‐induced conformational change of the
receptor results in a change in conformation of the DNA, thus
initiating transcription. |
|
|
Term
Define hormone response elements for nuclear receptors. What do they activate or repress? |
|
Definition
- Activated nuclear receptors bind to sequence elements in the regulatory region of responsive genes
- activate or repress DNA transcription
|
|
|
Term
Members of the superfamily of GTP-binding proteins bind & exchange what? |
|
Definition
bind & exchange GDP for GTP as a result of their interaction w/ specific activated receptors (like Ras) |
|
|
Term
What provides a mechanism for diversity in G protein-coupled receptors (GPCR)? |
|
Definition
- The many classes of G proteins, in conjunction w/ the presence of several receptor types for a single ligand, providea mechanism for diversity
- common signal can elicit the appropriate effects in different tissues
|
|
|
Term
What are the four types of GPCRs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- stimulates Adenylate Cyclase.
- Toxin from Vibrio cholerae activate it inintestinal epithelial cells & inc. Cl‐ conductance & water flow.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- hormone‐dependent inhibition of AC.
- Bordetella pertussis (whooping cough) inactivates it, so AC cannot be inhibited.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- stimulate PLC to generate IP3 and mobilize Ca2+ from internal stores
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- regulation of the mitogen‐activated protein kinase (MAPK) cascade, like Gs and Gq
|
|
|
Term
Give the following GCPR classification for A-E and the two additional types: |
|
Definition
- A‐ Rhodopsin like
- B‐ Secretine like
- C‐ Metabotropic glutamate/pheromone
- D‐ Fungal pheromone
- E‐ cAMP receptors
- Ocular albinism proteins
- Frizzled/Smoothened Family
|
|
|
Term
Is the G-protein a second messenger? Why or why not? |
|
Definition
No b/c its the binding of a receptor; not in cell membrane
2nd messenger has to be intracellular |
|
|
Term
Describe the two separate pathways that can occur when G protien acts via a phopholipase: |
|
Definition
pathway 1: GPCR > phospholipase C > PIP2 > DAG > PKC
pathway 2: GPCR > phospholipase C > PIP2 > IP3 > ER (which releases Ca2+) |
|
|
Term
DAG activates what enzyme? |
|
Definition
DAG activates the enzyme protein kinase C |
|
|
Term
IP3 signals the release of what from the ER? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Small GTP‐binding proteins are involved in a vast number of what cellular processes? |
|
Definition
- Ras regulates oncogenesis
- Rho rearrangement of the actin cytoskeleton
- Rab and Arf, regulate vesicle trafficking
|
|
|
Term
What are the three G-protein Second Messengers? |
|
Definition
- Cyclic Nucleotides (cAMP signal pathway): Adenylyl Cyclase (AC), Protein Kinase A, and cAMP phosphodiesterase.
- Products of Phosphoinositide breakdown (IP3 signal pathway that releases Ca+2)
- Arachidonic Acid (AA) metabolites (eicosanoids)
|
|
|
Term
The activation of Gs-coupled receptors results in the stimulation of what? |
|
Definition
Activation of Gs‐coupled receptors results in the stimulation of AC & a rise in intracellular concentrations of cAMP |
|
|
Term
cAMP usually exerts its effect by increasing the activity of what? It transfers ATP to what kind of residues? |
|
Definition
- cAMP usually exerts its effect by increasing the activity of PKA.
- transfers ATP to certain serine or threonine residues
|
|
|
Term
PKA phosphorylation of the Beta2‐adrenergic receptor
causes what? |
|
Definition
receptor desensitzation in neurons |
|
|
Term
Vasopressin‐induced changes in cAMP levels facilitate what? |
|
Definition
water reabsorption in the kidney |
|
|
Term
For a G protein acting via adenylyl cyclase, the cyclic AMP activates what? |
|
Definition
activates protein kinase A |
|
|
Term
What is the significance of the cyclic nucleotide cGMP? |
|
Definition
- cGMP exerts its effect by stimulating a nonselective cation channel in the retina
- cGMP is important in signal transduction of light in retina; opens channels in retina
|
|
|
Term
Explain the process of how cGMP is activated: |
|
Definition
- ligh activates a GPCR called rhodopsin
- which activates the G protein transducin
- which in turn activates the cGMP phosphodiesterase that lowers [cGMP]i
|
|
|
Term
What does the fall in [cGMP]i cause? |
|
Definition
- the fall in [cGMP]i closes cGMP-gated nonselective cation channels that are members of the same family of CNG ion channels (cyclic nucleotide-gated ion channels) that cAMP activates in olfactory signaling
|
|
|
Term
Define Phosphatidylinositols (PIs): |
|
Definition
- minor constituents of cell membranes
- largely distributed in internal leaflet of membrane
- play an important role in signal transduction
|
|
|
Term
Many messengers bind to receptors that activate PI breakdown. What has the capability to hydrolyze PIP2? What two important signaling molecules does it release? |
|
Definition
PLC can hydrolyze PIP2 and thereby release two important signaling molecules IP3 and DAG |
|
|
Term
Describe the process of how IP3 and DAG are produced: |
|
Definition
- binding of hormone to cell surface GPCR activates phospholipase Cβ
- phospholipase Cβ hydrolyzes PIP2 into IP3 and DAG (PLC leaves the polar head of PIP2)
- IP3 interacts w/ a receptor in the membrane of the ER, which allows the release of Ca2+ into the cytosol
- the SERCA Ca2+ pump transports the Ca2+ back into SR
|
|
|
Term
Give the characteristics of Inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate
(IP3); i.e. what does it act through, stimulate, & mediate, etc.: |
|
Definition
- acts through G proteins
- water-soluble IP3 stimulates intracellular Ca2+ release
- IP3 receptor (ITPR) is ligand-gated Ca2+ channel in ER
- mediates a rapid rise in free cytosolic Ca2+ conc.
- ATP-fueled Ca2+ pump (SERCA) moves Ca2+ back into ER
|
|
|
Term
Give the characteristics of Diacylglycerol (DAG); i.e. what does it act through, where does it come from, etc: |
|
Definition
- acts through G proteins
- activates PKC
- production of DAG comes from phosphatidycholine (PC) either directly (by PLC) or indirectly (by PLD)
- some DAGs can be further cleaved by DAG lipase to arachidonic acid & eicosanoids
|
|
|
Term
What are some factors that stimulate the production of DAG from PC? |
|
Definition
- Tumor necrosis factor α (TNF‐α)
- Interleukin 1 (IL‐1)
- Interleukin 3 (IL‐3)
- Interferon α (IFN‐α)
- Colony‐stimulating factor
|
|
|
Term
Describe the direct way in which arachidonic acid metabolites are formed: |
|
Definition
- agonist binds to a membrane recptor
- this activates a G protein which stimulates PLA2 either directly or through MAP kinase
|
|
|
Term
What are some examples of the membrane receptors used by AA metabolites made the direct way? |
|
Definition
- serotonin (5‐HT2 R)
- glutamate
- FGF‐ß
- IFN‐alpha
- IFN‐gamma
|
|
|
Term
What are some examples of the membrane receptors used by AA metabolites made the indirect way? |
|
Definition
- agonists act on other receptors such as dopamine, adenosine, N-E, & serotonin (5-HT1 R)
|
|
|
Term
Describe the three indirect ways in which arachidonic acid metabolits are made: |
|
Definition
- Bind to a receptor coupled to PLC, which would lead to the release of DAG and DAG lipase can cleave DAG to yield AA and a MAG.
- Agonist that raises [Ca2+]i can promote AA formation because Ca2+ can stimulate some cytosolic forms of PLA2
- Signal transduction pathway that activates MAP kinase can also enhance AA release because MAP kinase phosphorylates PLA2.
|
|
|
Term
A series of enzymes converts AA into what? What are these enzymes? |
|
Definition
- PLA2 promotes AA
- A series of enzymes convert AA into eicosanoids
- these enzymes are COX, LOX, and Epoxygenase
|
|
|
Term
The three enzymes of COX, LOX, & Epoxygenase convert AA metabolites into what eicosanoids? (Give the eicosanoids for each enzyme.) |
|
Definition
- Cycloxygenase (COX): thromboxanes, prostaglandins, and prostacyclins
- 5-lipoyxygenase (LOX): leukotrienes & some hydroxyeicosatetraenoic acid (HETE)
- Epoxygenase enzymes (members of the cytochrome P-450): HETE as well as cis-epoxyeicosatrienoic acid (EET) compounds
|
|
|
Term
What are the two types of cycloxygenases (COX)? Differentiate between the two. |
|
Definition
COX1: constitutive (always present)
- Inhibited by Aspirin.
- platelet aggregation
- regulation of vascular tone (vasodilation or vasoconstriction)
- cytoprotection in gastric mucosa
COX2: induced (must be stimulated)
- Inhibited by rofecoxib & celecoxib
- role in inflammatory responses
|
|
|
Term
What are the three COX derivates? Describe each. |
|
Definition
- Thromboxane A2: Aggregate platelets, & constrict small vessels.
- Prostacyclin I2: Inhibits platelet aggregation & dilates vessels. (opposite of thromboxane A2)
- Prostaglandins: platelet aggregation, airway constriction, renin release, inflammation, & mechanisms of cancer, cardiovascular & inflammatory diseases. (why asthma patients can't have aspirin)
|
|
|
Term
What is the function of 5-lipoxygenase (LOX) derivates? |
|
Definition
- mediate allergic, inflammatory responses & anaphylaxis (LT & some HETE)
- LOX metabolites can influence activity of many ion channels (either directly or by regulating protein kinases)
- eg. dec excitability of cells by activating K+ channels & prevents excess insulin secretion by inhibiting CaM kinase II
|
|
|
Term
What are some pathologies associated with LOX derivates? |
|
Definition
asthma, urticaria and rhinitis, rheumatoid
arthritis, psoriasis, ulcerative colitis or Crohn disease |
|
|
Term
Epoxygenase enzymes (members of the cytochrome P-450) include HETE & EET: Compare/contrast the two. |
|
Definition
HETE
- enhance intracellular Ca2+ release
- enhance cell proliferation
EET
- enhance release of intracellular Ca2+, Na+-H+ exchange
- enhance cell proliferation
- in blood vessels, EETs cause vasodilation & angiogenesis (creation of new blood vessels)
|
|
|
Term
Which enzyme is the target of anti-inflammatory drugs & increases the production of prostaglandins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or false: Second messengers are all linked to a G protein coupled receptor. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following are considered second messengers?
- Dyacylglycerol
- Thromboxane
- Calcium
- All of the above
- none of the above
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the 3 basic functions of the nervous system? |
|
Definition
- senses changes w/ sensory receptors
- interprets & remembers those changes
- reacts to those changes w/ effectors (i.e. muscular contractions & glandular secretions)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
bundle of hundreds or thousands of axons,
each of which courses along a defined path and serves a
specific region of the body |
|
|
Term
How many pairs of cranial nerves and spinal nerves do we have? Where does each type emerge from? |
|
Definition
- 12 pairs CN emerge from the base of the brain
- 31 pairs SN emerge from the spinal cord, each serving specific region of the body
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
located outside CNS; small masses of nervous tissue containing primarily cell bodies of neurons |
|
|
Term
What are the 3 subdivisions of the PNS? Differentiate b/n them: |
|
Definition
- SOMATIC - voluntary; neurons from cutaneous & special sensory receptors to CNS; motor neurons to skeletal muscle tissue (effectors)
- AUTONOMIC - involuntary; sensory neurons from visceral organs to CNS; motor neurons to smooth & cardiac muscle & glands
- ENTERIC - involuntary sensory & motor control gastrointestinal tract; neurons function independently of ANS & CNS
|
|
|
Term
Two divisions of the ANS: |
|
Definition
- sympathetic - speeds up heart rate
- parasympathetic - slows down hr
|
|
|
Term
A neuron is the functional unit of the NS that has the capacity to produce what? |
|
Definition
an action potential (i.e. electrical excitability) |
|
|
Term
Characteristics of the cell body: |
|
Definition
- single nucleus with prominent nucleolus
- nissl bodies
- neurofilaments give shape & support
- microtubules move material inside cell
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
dendrites (receives impulses) & axons (conduction) |
|
|
Term
Which cell are electrically excitable? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Function & characteristics of dendrites: |
|
Definition
- conduct impulses TOWARDS cell body
- short, highly branched, & unmyelinated
- surfaces specialized for contact w/ other neurons
- contains neurofibrils & nissl bodies
|
|
|
Term
Functions & characteristics of axons: |
|
Definition
- conducts impulses AWAY from cell body
- long, thin cylindrical processes
- impulses arise from initial segment (trigger zone)
- side branches (collaterals) end in axon terminals
- swollen tips (synaptic end bulbs) contain vesicles filled w/ NTs
|
|
|
Term
Why are neurons electrically excitable? |
|
Definition
due to voltage difference across membrane |
|
|
Term
What are the 2 types of electric signals that neurons communicate with? |
|
Definition
- action potentials that can travel long distances
- graded potentials that are local membrane changes only
in living cells, flow of ions occurs through ion channels in cell membrane |
|
|
Term
The propagation of electrical signals (depolarizations &
hyperpolarizations) in the NS involves what kind of currents? What does this depend on? |
|
Definition
- involves local current loops or local circuit currents
- depends on nature of conducting & insulating medium
- (electrotonic spread of electrical signals not limited to excitable cells)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
restoration of membrane potential following depolarization |
|
|
Term
What are the two types of small deviations from resting potential (-70 mV)? |
|
Definition
- hyperpolarization = membrane becoming more negative
- depolarization = membrane becoming more positive
signals are graded (vary in amplitude/size depending on strength of stimulus) & localized |
|
|
Term
What are the sources of stimuli for graded potentials? |
|
Definition
- mechanical stimulation of membranes w/ mechanical gated ion channels (pressure)
- chemical stimulation of membrane w/ ligand gated ion channels (NT)
ions flow through ion channels & change membrane potential LOCALLY. (amt of change varies w/ stimuli strength) |
|
|
Term
If a depolarization shifts the membrane potential sufficiently, it results in a massive change in membrane voltage called...? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An action potential (AP) or impulse is a sequence of rapidly
occurring events that does what? |
|
Definition
- increases & eventually reverses the membrane potential (depolarization) & then restores it to the resting state (repolarization).
- during AP, voltage-gated Na+ & K+ channels open in sequence
|
|
|
Term
According to the all‐or‐none principle, if a stimulus reaches
threshold, the action potential is always...? |
|
Definition
the same
(a stronger stimulus will not cause a larger impulse; travels/spreads over surface w/o dying out) |
|
|
Term
What occurs when ion channels open? |
|
Definition
- Na+ rushes in (depolarization)
- K+ rushes out (repolarization)
|
|
|
Term
Where is the action potential usually generated? Where does it travel (direction)? What prevents APs from traveling? |
|
Definition
- usually generated at axon hillock (where current depolarizes neighboring region of axon membrane)
- APs travel only in ONE direction: toward synaptic terminal
- Inactivated Na+ channels (refractory period) behind the zone of depolarization prevent the action potential from traveling backwards
|
|
|
Term
Since some current is passively lost into the surrounding medium, what are some ways to improve the conduction properties of APs? |
|
Definition
- increasing the diameter of the axon
- myelination or electrical insulation
|
|
|
Term
What is the demyelinating disease associated with action potentials? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The density of voltage-gated Na+ channels is very high where? What does it conserve? It is maintained at the expense of what? |
|
Definition
The density of voltage‐gated Na+ channels is very high in the
nodal membrane and conserves ionic concentration
gradients. It is maintained at the expense of ATP hydrolysis
by the Na+/K+ pump. |
|
|
Term
Electrical signals must pass across the specialized gap region
between two apposing cell membranes that is called a...? |
|
Definition
synapse (via synaptic transmission) |
|
|
Term
Communication b/n cells at a synapse can be one of what two things? |
|
Definition
- electrical (gap junctions that allow flow of ions)
- chemical (NTs)
|
|
|
Term
The interface between the motor neuron and the muscle cell is
called what? |
|
Definition
neuromuscular junction (NMJ) |
|
|
Term
Characteristics of Electrical synapses: |
|
Definition
- adj. cell membrane separated by 3 nm & nearly sealed by gap junction (how ionic current spreads to next cell)
- faster, two-way transmission, capable of synchronizing
- found in cardiac & smooth muscle but are rare in mammalian NS
|
|
|
Term
Characteristics of chemical synapses: |
|
Definition
- adj. cell membrane separated by much larger distance of 30-50 nm
- NTs provide electrical continuity b/n adj. cells
- one-way info transfer from presynaptic neuron to post-synaptic
- synaptic delay 0.5-1 msec
|
|
|
Term
What occurs when an AP (voltage-gated Na+ & K+ channel) reaches the synaptic end bulb? |
|
Definition
- voltage-gated Ca2+ channels open
- Ca 2+ flows inward triggering release of NT from presynaptic membrane (SNARE proteins)
- NT crosses synaptic cleft & binding to postsynaptic cell ligand-gated receptors
|
|
|
Term
The binding of the neurotransmitter to the receptor is finite
and is determined by what? |
|
Definition
the affinity of the neurotransmitter and the receptor |
|
|
Term
Only the ______ neurotransmitter will produce the desired
response |
|
Definition
BOUND; bound & unbound NT is in equilibrium in the synaptic cleft. |
|
|
Term
If the concentration of the unbound transmitter in the synaptic cleft is decreased, the number of occupied receptors will be |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ion channels return to their resting state when the
__________ is no longer activated. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
NT receptors transduce information by what two ways? |
|
Definition
- ligand-gated ion channels
- G-protein coupled receptors
|
|
|
Term
What occurs during the chemical synapse of a ligand-gated ion channel? |
|
Definition
activation of an ionotropic receptor causes rapid opening of ion channels
|
|
|
Term
Give an example of a chemical synapse for a ligand-gated ion channel: |
|
Definition
nicotinic AChR neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscle (activates muscle fiber) |
|
|
Term
What occurs during the chemical synapse of a G-protein coupled receptor? |
|
Definition
production of active α and βγ subunits, which initiate wide variety of slow cellular responses by direct interaction w/ either ion channel proteins or other 2nd messenger effector proteins |
|
|
Term
Give an example of a chemical synapse for a G-protein coupled receptor: |
|
Definition
Muscarinic AChR in the heart (inhibits cardiac excitation) |
|
|
Term
Describe the entire process of how a chemical synapse is terminated: |
|
Definition
- enzymatic destruction of NT (hydrolysis of ACh by acetylcholinesterase)
- uptake of NT into presynaptic nerve terminal or into other cells (neuron or glia) by Na+ dependent transport system
- diffusion of transmiter molecules away form synapse (move down conc. gradient)
|
|
|
Term
Direct synaptic transmission involves binding of
neurotransmitters to _________________ in the
postsynaptic cell |
|
Definition
Direct synaptic transmission involves binding of
neurotransmitters to ligand‐gated ion channels in the
postsynaptic cell |
|
|
Term
Neurotransmitter binding causes ion channels to
open, generating a...? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the two types of synpases according to the effect of a NT? |
|
Definition
excitatory (EPSP) or inhibitory (IPSP) |
|
|
Term
Give the characteristics of an excitatory synapse (EPSP) including what kind of potential it is, it results from, how it spreads, etc.: |
|
Definition
- depolarizing postsynaptic potential
- results form opening of ligand-gated Na+ channels
- postsynaptic cell more likely to reach threshold
- graded potential that spreads decrementally away from synapse by local current
|
|
|
Term
Give the characteristics of an inhibitory synapse (IPSP) including what kind of potential it is, it results from, how it spreads, etc.: |
|
Definition
- hyperpolarizing postsynaptic potential
- results from opening of ligand-gated Cl- or K+ channel; (inc. in permeability to Cl- doesn't change mem potential)
- graded potential that causes postsynaptic cell to become more negative & less likely to reach threshold
- may be no IPSP but stabilization of mem potential at existing value
|
|
|
Term
In the CNS, receptor‐gated channels for _______ and
__________ are cation selective and give rise to depolarizing excitatory postsynaptic potentials. |
|
Definition
In the CNS, receptor‐gated channels for serotonin and
glutamate are cation selective and give rise to depolarizing
excitatory postsynaptic potentials. |
|
|
Term
The receptor‐gated channels for ______ and
_____ are anion selective and drive Vm in the hyperpolarizing direction, toward the equilibrium potential for Cl‐. These hyperpolarizing postsynaptic responses are called inhibitory postsynaptic potentials. |
|
Definition
the receptor‐gated channels for glycine and
GABA are anion selective and drive Vm in the hyperpolarizing
direction, toward the equilibrium potential for Cl‐. These
hyperpolarizing postsynaptic responses are called inhibitory
postsynaptic potentials. |
|
|
Term
What are the three responses that are possible for a postsynaptic potential? |
|
Definition
- Small EPSP occurs (potential reaches -57 mV only)
- Impulse is generated (threshold reached; mV at least -55)
- IPSP occurs (membrane hyperpolarized; potential drops below -70 mV)
|
|
|
Term
How would you define a postsynaptic potential that modifies Vm from -90 mV to -60 mV? |
|
Definition
excitatory postsynaptic potential |
|
|
Term
What is convergence of a neural input? |
|
Definition
- Many synapses may have input to a single post‐synaptic neuron
- info brought in & influences cell activity
|
|
|
Term
What is divergence of a neural input? |
|
Definition
- one pre-synaptic neuron may have input to many post-synaptic neurons
- info is disseminated to many pathways & influence many systems
|
|
|
Term
The level of excitability of a post-synaptic cell at any point in time, depends on what? |
|
Definition
depends on the number of synapses active at any one time & the number that is excitatory or inhibitory
|
|
|
Term
____________ cells are not usually stimulated to threshold by
one excitatory event. |
|
Definition
Postsynaptic cells are not usually stimulated to threshold by
one excitatory event.
example: one EPSP may only generate 0.5 mV, whereas in
order to depolarize the neuron to threshold it requires about
15 mV. |
|
|
Term
An action potential can only be generated by the integration of what? |
|
Definition
SEVERAL excitatory synpases |
|
|
Term
If several presynaptic end bulbs release their
neurotransmitter at about the same time, the combined
effect may generate a nerve impulse due to what? |
|
Definition
summation
(postsynaptic neuron is an integrator receiving & integrating signals then responding) |
|
|
Term
What are the two types of summation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is temporal summation? When do the input signals arrive? |
|
Definition
- when a neuron is stimulated to produce an EPSP & a 2nd EPSP is generated before 1st EPSP has returned to base line
- 2nd EPSP adds to previous EPSP & produces greater depolarization than single EPSP
- input signals arrive at the same time @ different times
|
|
|
Term
What is spatial summation? |
|
Definition
- when 2 EPSP from location on different cells or two inputs occur @ different location on same postsynaptic neuron
- also produces summation effect in postsynaptic neuron
|
|
|
Term
When two EPSPs occur at different locations on the same postsynaptic neuron, this produces what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If the excitatory effect is greater than the inhibitory effect but
less that the threshold level of stimulation, the result is what?(makes it easier to generate a nerve impulse) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If the excitatory effect is greater than the inhibitory effect and
reaches or surpasses the threshold level of stimulation, the
result is what? |
|
Definition
threshold or suprathreshold EPSP and a nerve impulse |
|
|
Term
If the inhibitory effect is greater than the excitatory effect, what occurs? |
|
Definition
the membrane hyperpolarizes (IPSP) with failure to produce a nerve impulse |
|
|
Term
Excitatory Postsynaptic Potentials and Inhibitory Postsynaptic
Potentials generate opposing currents, when they occur at the
same time cancel each other, resulting in what? |
|
Definition
minimal or no change in the membrane potential or a stabilization of the membrane. |
|
|
Term
In a cell with Vm of -70 mV that receives 2 EPSP producing a Vm change of +10 mV (total for both) and 1 IPSP with Vm change of -5 mV. What term defines Vm change?
|
|
Definition
excitatory POSTSYNAPTIC potential |
|
|
Term
A presynaptic terminal does not release a fixed amount of
neurotransmitter for every impulse, since the release
depends on the concentration of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The strength of the synapse is affected by what factors? |
|
Definition
- the fact that synaptic events (excitatory or inhibitory) are variable or constantly changing
- effectiveness of given synapse may be influenced by presynaptic & postsynaptic mechanisms
- calcium levels (pumped into cell during AP & pumped out of cell/organelles)
|
|
|
Term
What is the relationship between high levels of calcium, the release of neurotransmitters, the number of Ca2+ ion channels opened/closed, and the amplitude of EPSP/IPSP? |
|
Definition
if Ca2+ cannot be pumped out > Ca2+ greater in cell than usual > causes greater release of NT > causes greater number of Ca2+ ion channels opened/closed > causes larger amplitude of EPSP/IPSP in postsynaptic cell |
|
|
Term
Define neuromuscular junction: |
|
Definition
- specialized synapses b/n motor neurons & skeletal musc.
- aka end plate
- motor neuron w/ cell bodies in spinal cord have long axons that branch to innervate sep. fibers of sk. muscle
|
|
|
Term
The whole assembly of muscle fibers innervated by the axon from one motor neuron is called what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
unmyelinated nerve processes that contact the muscle fiber |
|
|
Term
______________ form a cap over the face of the nerve
membrane that is located _____ from the muscle membrane. |
|
Definition
Schwann cells form a cap over the face of the nerve
membrane that is located away from the muscle membrane. |
|
|
Term
Postsynaptic membrane of the skeletal muscle fiber has extensive invaginations that increase the surface area. These are known as what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the function of neuromodulators? |
|
Definition
- modify postsynaptic response to NTs by attenuating or augmenting synaptic activity to specific NT
- take place over long period of time (long duration & low concentration)
- associated with slow events like learning, development, motivational states, & sensory/motor activity
|
|
|
Term
NTs directly affect what by their influence on ion channels? |
|
Definition
affect excitation or inhibition of postsynaptic cell |
|
|
Term
How fast do NTs affect the postsynaptic cell and where are excitatory/inhibitory NTs located? |
|
Definition
- take place in millisec; involved in rapid communnication
- both excitatory & inhibitory NTs present in CNS & PNS (same NT can be excitatory in some locations & inhibitory in others)
|
|
|
Term
Neurotransmitter effects can be modified in what four ways? |
|
Definition
- synthesis = stimulated or inhibited
- release = blocked or enhanced
- removal = stimulated or blocked
- receptor site = blocked or activated
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
it binds to & activates a receptor, mimicking & enhancing the effect of a natural NT or hormone |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
it binds to and blocks a receptor, preventing a natural NT or hormone from exerting its effect |
|
|
Term
What can serve as agonists or antagonists to selectively activate or block ANS receptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Characteristics of channel-linked (ionotropic) receptors: |
|
Definition
- ligand-gated ion channels
- action is immediate & brief
- excitatory receptors are channels for small cations
- Na+ influx contributes most to depolarization
- inhibitory receptors allow Cl- influx or K+ efflux that causes hyperpolarization
|
|
|
Term
Give an example of channel-linked (ionotropic) receptors: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Channel-linked receptors open in response to what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Characteristics of G Protein-Linked (Metabotropic) receptors: |
|
Definition
- Transmembrane protein complexes
- Neurotransmitter binds to G protein–linked receptor
- G protein is activated, producing second messengers, e.g., cyclic AMP, cyclic GMP, diacylglycerol or Ca2+
- Responses are indirect, slow, complex, and often prolonged & widespread
|
|
|
Term
Give an example of a G Protein-linked (metabotropic) receptor: |
|
Definition
muscarinic ACh receptors and those that bind
biogenic amines and neuropeptides |
|
|
Term
What is the function of second messengers? |
|
Definition
- Open or close ion channels
- Activate kinase enzymes
- Phosphorylate channel proteins
- Activate genes and induce protein synthesis
|
|
|
Term
What is the major NT in vertebrates & invertebrates that is found in the PNS at the NMJ & in the brain? (It is excitatory on NMJ but inhibitory at others.) |
|
Definition
ACETYLCHOLINE
- Vertebrates have 2 major classes of ACh receptors, one ligand-gated and one metabotropic
|
|
|
Term
ACh is involved in what processes? |
|
Definition
muscle stimulaton, memory formation, and learning |
|
|
Term
What are the neurons that release ACh? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is ACh synthesized from and what is it stored in? |
|
Definition
- ACh is synthesized from acetyl coenzyme A & choline
- stored in synaptic vesicles until a stimulus triggers release
|
|
|
Term
After ACh is released and activates the receptor on the
postsynaptic membrane, it is metabolized by what? |
|
Definition
ACh-esterase (to choline & acetate) residing in pre- and post-synaptic membrane |
|
|
Term
What is transported back into the pre-synaptic terminal to be recycled in the synthesis of new ACh? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If there is a build up of ACh, what two things happen? |
|
Definition
- desensitization
- weakness or loss of muscle tone
|
|
|
Term
What degrades ACh? What are inhibitors of it? |
|
Definition
- ACh-esterase degrades ACh
- inhibitors include nerve agents and pesticides
|
|
|
Term
What happens if ACh-esterase is inhibited? |
|
Definition
produces build up of ACh in synaptic cleft, causing continuous stimulation of post-synaptic receptors, resulting in desensitizaton & inducing paralysis |
|
|
Term
Give the agonists and antagonists of ACh: |
|
Definition
- agonists: nicotine, physiostigmine
- antagonists: curare, atropine (mydriasis)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
small charged molecules that are synthesized from amino acids (R-NH2); active in CNS and PNS |
|
|
Term
What are the two most common biogenic amines? |
|
Definition
Catecholamines and Indolamines |
|
|
Term
Catecholamines are made up of what? |
|
Definition
contain a catechol or benze ring with 2 hydroxyl groups and an amine group |
|
|
Term
How are catecholamines synthesized? |
|
Definition
- initial steps in cat. synthesis begins w/ tyrosine
- tyrosine taken up by axon terminal then converted to L-Dopa
- this conversion that passes BBB by enzyme tyrosine hydroxylase is the rate limiting step
- further conversion to norepinephrine
|
|
|
Term
What are the three most well known Catecholamines? |
|
Definition
*the Cat's in the DEN*
- Dopamine
- Epinephrine
- Norepinephrine
|
|
|
Term
How can epinephrine be made from L-Tyrosine? List the step process: |
|
Definition
(Cate likes to live dangerously, don't need epinephrine)
L-Tyrosine > tyrosine OHlase > L-DOPA > DOPA decarboxylase > Dopamine > dopamine beta- OHlase > Norepinephrine > phenylethanolamine & N-methyl transferase > Epinephrine |
|
|
Term
What in the role of dopamine? |
|
Definition
important regulator of the skeletal muscle tone |
|
|
Term
What is the role of norepinephrine? |
|
Definition
important neurotransmitter of CNS & PNS that regulates mood, dreaming, awakening |
|
|
Term
What is the role of Epinephrine? |
|
Definition
not a NT in CNS but major hormone secreted y adrenal medulla |
|
|
Term
After activating the receptors on the postsynaptic terminal,
the termination of the events in the synaptic cleft is mainly
due to what? |
|
Definition
active reuptake where NT is actively transported back into the axon terminal by a membrane transporter protein |
|
|
Term
Give examples of dopamine reuptake inhibitors (DRIs): |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Dopamine agonists like what are given for diseases like Parkinson's? |
|
Definition
L-DOPA
(agonists given to ppl who don't have dopamine) |
|
|
Term
Why are dopamine receptor antagonists given? Give an example. |
|
Definition
- given to agitated patients so they calm down/relax
- antagonists are antipsychotics like haloperidol
|
|
|
Term
Norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors are used as what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
COMT plays a major role in what? |
|
Definition
- in the metabolism of endogenous circulating & administered catecholamines
- acts in synaptic cleft
|
|
|
Term
What is MAO responsible for? |
|
Definition
- responsible for the NTs released intraneuronally
- associated to depression, ADD, schitzophrenia
- acts inside nerve terminal
|
|
|
Term
What are the two isoenzymes of MAO? |
|
Definition
found in various cells in the CNS and peripheral tissues |
|
|
Term
The antagonism of MAO-A enhances what? |
|
Definition
- bioavailability of tyramine contained in many foods
- tyramine induced N-E release from sympathetic neurons may markedly inc blood pressure (thus selective antagonism of MAO-B less likely to produce this effect)
|
|
|
Term
ANS NTs can be classified as __________ or _____________ neurons based upon the NT released. |
|
Definition
ANS NTs can be classified as cholinergic or adrenergic neurons based upon the NT released. |
|
|
Term
The NT released for the preganglionic neuron & postganglionic neuron of cholinergic neurons is what? |
|
Definition
- all preganglionic - ACh
- all parasympathetic postganglionic - ACh
- few sympathetic postganglionic (to sweat glands) - ACh
|
|
|
Term
Excitation or inhibition of cholinergic neurons depends on what? |
|
Definition
depends upon receptor subtype and organ involved |
|
|
Term
Two types of cholinergic receptors: |
|
Definition
nicotinic & muscarinic receptors |
|
|
Term
Activation of nicotinic receptors causes what? Where are these receptors located? |
|
Definition
- activation of nicotinic receptors causes excitation of the postsynaptic cell
- nicotinic receptors (ionotropic) are found on dendrites & cell bodies of ANS cells & at NMJ
|
|
|
Term
Activation of muscarinic receptors causes what? Where are these receptors found? |
|
Definition
- activation of muscarinic receptors (metabotropic) can cause either excitation or inhibition depending on the cell that bears the receptors
- found on plasma membranes of all parasympathetic effectors
|
|
|
Term
Nicotinic receptors are located in the NMJ (fast effects) & in the brain (longer effects), where they play an important role in what? |
|
Definition
- important role in cognitive functions
- attention, learning, memory
- reinforce the ability to detect & respond to meaningful stimuli
|
|
|
Term
Name two inhibitors of nicotinic receptors. What does each do? |
|
Definition
- curare - stops muscle from contracting
- hexamethonium - ganglionic inhibitor; stops transmission
|
|
|
Term
What are two diseases associated with nicotinic receptors? |
|
Definition
- Miastenia Gravis - patient loses muscle tone, drooping of eyelid, leaves ACh there longere to build in synapse
- Alzheimer's disease
|
|
|
Term
Muscarinic receptors are stimulated by what? |
|
Definition
- ACh
- muscarine, the poison from the mushroom Amanita muscara
|
|
|
Term
Muscarinic receptors couple with ____________, which in turn alters the activity of a number of different enzymes & ion channels. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where are the muscarinic receptors abundantly located? |
|
Definition
at the cholinergic synapses in the brain & at effector junctions that innervate several glands & organs (most notably heart) |
|
|
Term
ACh or atropine (eg. Miochol-E) produces what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Adrenergic neurons release what from postganglionic sympathetic neurons only? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
NE lingers at the synapse until enzymatically inactivated by what? |
|
Definition
MAO (monoamine oxidase) or catechol‐O‐methyltransferase
(COMT) |
|
|
Term
The main types of adrenergic receptors are alpha and beta
receptors. These receptors are further classified into
what subtypes? Explain what each receptor produces/causes. |
|
Definition
- Alpha‐1 and Beta‐1 receptors produce excitation
- Alpha‐2 and Beta‐2 receptors cause inhibition
- Beta‐3 receptors (brown fat) increase thermogenesis
|
|
|
Term
TRUE or FALSE:
Effects triggered by cholinergic neurons are typically longer lasting than those triggered by adrenergic neurons. |
|
Definition
FALSE.
Effects triggered by adrenergic neurons typically are longer
lasting than those triggered by cholinergic neurons. |
|
|
Term
Characteristics of alpha-adrenoceptors including how they're distinguished, what acts pre/post-synaptically, function, etc.: |
|
Definition
- 2 subclasses (alpha-1 & alpha-2)
- distinguished by drugs that influence them & by their 2nd messenger systems
- act pre-synaptically through alpha-2 to inhibit NE release
- act post-synaptically though alpha-1 to stimulate or inhibit activity @ different types of potassium channels
|
|
|
Term
What are the 3 types of beta adrenoreceptors? What does each promote/produce/stimulate? |
|
Definition
- Beta‐1 promotes heart muscle contraction
- Beta‐2 produces smooth muscle relaxation
- Beta‐3 stimulates lypolysis
|
|
|
Term
The alpha-adrenoceptor α1 goes through what process to reach smooth muscle contraction. What G mechanismm is this? |
|
Definition
- adrenaline/noradenalin > α1 > phospholipase C > PIP2 & DAG & IP3 > Ca2+ > smooth muscle contraction
- Gq mechanism
|
|
|
Term
The alpha-adrenoceptor α2 goes through what process to reach smooth muscle contraction. What G mechanismm is this? |
|
Definition
- adrenalin/noradrenalin > α2 > (1) Ca2+ > inhibition of transmitter release (2) Adenylyl-cyclase > ATP to cAMP > smooth muscle contraction
- Gi mechanism
|
|
|
Term
The beta-adrenoceptor β goes through what process to reach smooth muscle relaxation and heart muscle contraction. What G mechanismm is this? |
|
Definition
- adrenalin/noreadrenalin > β > Adenylyl-cyclase > ATP to cAMP > heart muscle contraction, smooth muscle relaxatoin, glycogenolysis
- mostly Gs mechanism, but some Gi
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Serotonin is an important biogenic amine synthesized from what? |
|
Definition
tryptophan (an essential amino acid) |
|
|
Term
Why is serotonin a neuromodulator? |
|
Definition
because of the slow onset of effects |
|
|
Term
Where are serotonergic neurons located? |
|
Definition
- innervate every structure in brain (1-2%) & spinal cord
- also present in non-neural cells such as blood platelets & in certain cells of immune system & GI tract
|
|
|
Term
What does serotonin control? |
|
Definition
mood, temperature regulation, induction of sleep, immune system, blood coagulation
(is modulator that affects many functions) |
|
|
Term
Serotonin has 16 different receptor types regulating food intake, reproductive behavior, and emotional states such as mood and anxiety. What two effects does it have on pathways? |
|
Definition
- excitatory effect on pathways that involve muscle control
- inhibitory effect on pathways that mediate sensations
|
|
|
Term
The activity of serotonergic neurons is minimal or absent
during _______ and maximal during ______________. |
|
Definition
The activity of serotonergic neurons is minimal or absent
during sleep and maximal during wakefulness. |
|
|
Term
What is an example of a serotonin re-uptake inhibitor? Why are they thought to aid in the treatment of depression? |
|
Definition
- ex: prozac: fluoxetine
- thought to aid in treatment of depression by inactivating 5-HT transporter & inc amt of NT
|
|
|
Term
What is the 5-HT receptor agonist in the brain that blocks normal serotonergic neurotransmission? |
|
Definition
LSD (Lysergic acid diethylamide) |
|
|
Term
What functions as NTs & are by far are the most prevalent in the CNS & virtually affect all the neurons? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the two excitatory NTs involving the vast majority of the excitatory synapses in the CNS? |
|
Definition
Glutamate & Aspartate
(glutamate is released by most of the excitatory synapses in the brain) |
|
|
Term
What are the receptors for glutamate? What do they increase conductance for? |
|
Definition
- receptors for glutamate are metabotropic & ionotropic receptors
- increase conductance for Na+, K+, and Ca2+
|
|
|
Term
Name the glutamate receptor that is an ionotropic
glutamate receptor, and functions in learning, memory
and neural development.
(Site of action of a number of mind altering drugs, such as phencyclidine) |
|
Definition
N‐methyl‐D‐aspartate receptor (NMDA) |
|
|
Term
Besides NMDA, list another glutamate receptor: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Glutamate receptors have been implicated in what diseases/conditions? |
|
Definition
- epilepsy
- neural damage following strokes
- brain trauma
- other conditions of oxygen deprivation
|
|
|
Term
What are the major inhibitory NTs in the CNS? |
|
Definition
- Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA, modified form of glutamate)
- amino acid glycine
|
|
|
Term
What binds to and blocks glycine receptors in the spinal
cord? What does this cause? |
|
Definition
- Strychnine
- causes massive tetanic contractions of all skeletal muscles (including diaphragm; stops breathing)
|
|
|
Term
GABA may bind postsynaptically to what? |
|
Definition
to ionotropic receptors (hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane) and metabotropic receptors. |
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Term
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Definition
- ethanol
- barbiturates
- benzodiazepines (Valium)
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Term
Drugs that decrease anxiety, protect against seizures and
induce sleep act by doing what? |
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Definition
increasing the chloride inflow into the cell via GABA receptors |
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Term
Neuropeptides are made up of what and derived from what? |
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Definition
- made up of 2 or more aa joined together by peptide bonds
- derived from larger precursor proteins (minimal/no biological activity)
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Term
Function of NPs & location of synthesis: |
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Definition
- many physiological roles unknown
- many identified in non-neural tissues (functioned as hormones or paracrine agents)
- NPs synthesized in axon terminals by few enzyme mediated steps
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Term
Three chemical classes of NP: |
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Definition
- Substance P (mediator of pain signals)
- Endorphins (Act as natural opiates; reduces pain perception)
- Gut-brain peptides (somatostatin & cholecytokinin)
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Term
Describe the process of NP synthesis: |
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Definition
- precursor protein (containing multiple peptides) packaged in cell body into vesicles > moved by axon transport to terminals/varicosities > cleaved by specific peptidases
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Term
What are the types of receptors for NPs? |
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Definition
- channel-linked
- G protein-linked
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Term
Three endogenous opioids: |
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Definition
beta-endorphine, dynorphins, & enkephalins |
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Term
NP endogenous opioids receptors are the sites of action of _______ drugs such as morphine & codeine (powerful analgesics). What do these drugs do? |
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Definition
opiate drugs; relieve pain without loss of consciousness |
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Term
There is evidence that the opioids play a role in what? |
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Definition
- eating & drinking behavior
- regulation of cardiovascular system
- mood & emotion
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Term
What is the transmitter released by the afferent neurons that passes on information to the CNS & has been
thought to play a role in pain sensation? |
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Definition
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Term
What exhibits a pain-relieving effect by blocking the release of substance P? |
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Definition
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Term
Why does Acupuncture produce loss of pain sensation? |
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Definition
because of release of opioids‐like substances such as endorphins or dynorphins. |
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Term
What are two types of purines that are considered excitatory neuromodulators? |
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Definition
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Term
What is present in all synaptic vesicles & is released together
with one or more of the neurotransmitters in response to Ca2+
influx into the terminal? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
- Act in both the CNS and PNS
- Produce fast or slow responses
- Induce Ca2+ influx in astrocytes
- Provoke pain sensation
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Term
What is derived from ATP by the reactions of extra‐cellular
enzymes? |
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Definition
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Term
TRUE or FALSE.
adenine receptors are only pre-synaptic |
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Definition
FALSE
both pre-synaptic & post-synaptic (exact role in neurotransmission unknown) |
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Term
What gas is synthesized on demand & regulates cGMP production & vasodilation of blood vessels? |
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Definition
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Term
What gas is a regulator of cGMP in the brain? |
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Definition
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Term
Give the characteristics of the lipid endocannabinoid: |
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Definition
- Lipid soluble; synthesized on demand from membrane
- Bind with G protein–coupled receptors in the brain
- Involved in learning and memory
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Term
TRUE or FALSE:
The NO & CO gases are not released from the presynaptic vesicles nor do they bind with the postsynaptic receptors in the
plasma membrane. |
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Definition
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Term
How do NO & CO move/diffuse? |
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Definition
They diffuse from their sites of origin from one cell into the
intracellular fluid of the neighboring cells and act as
messengers b/n neurons & neurons and effector cells. |
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Term
How are NO & CO generated? What do they activate? What does this increase? |
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Definition
- They are generated by the cytosolic enzymes
- activate guanylyl cyclase in the receptor cell
- increase the second messenger cyclic GMP in that cell
- important action in inflammation & control of vasculature
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Term
Nitric oxide is involved in a multitude of neurally mediated
events like what? How is it implicated in neurotoxic effects? |
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Definition
- involved in learning, memory, development, drug tolerance, penile erectioin
- implicated in neurotoxic effects from dec/stoppage in blood flow in brain or from head injury
- (inhibitory NT in CNS & ENS)
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Term
NO is not only produced by the CNS & PNS but also by a host of non‐neural cells. What important role does it play? |
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Definition
important paracrine role in cardiovascular & immune systems |
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Term
Multiple Sclerosis is an autoimmune disorder that causes destruction of what? Give the characteristics of MS: |
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Definition
- causes destruction of myelin sheaths in CNS
- sheath becomes scars or plaques
- 1/2 million ppl in US, ages 20-40, females 2x males
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Term
Describe the symptoms and remissions/relapses of MS: |
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Definition
- symptoms include muscular weakness, abnormal sensations, or double vision
- remissions/relapses result in progressive, cumulative loss of function
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Term
What is the second most common neurological disorder that affects 1% of the populaton? |
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Definition
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Term
What are the symptoms associated with Epilepsy? |
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Definition
- short, recurrent attacks initiated by electrical discharges in the brain
- lights, noise, or smells can be sensed
- skeletal muscles may contract involuntarily
- loss of consciousness
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Term
List the causes of Epilepsy: |
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Definition
- brain damage @ birth
- metabolic disturbances
- infections/toxins
- vascular disturbances
- head injuries
- tumors
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