Term
Where do osteoblast originate from in intramembranous ossification? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How are osteocytes different from osteoblast? |
|
Definition
Osteocytes are osteoblasts trapped in the bony matrix. |
|
|
Term
What is BMP and its significance? |
|
Definition
BMP= Bone Morphogenetic Protein, BMP converts Fibroblasts into Osteocyte when it is [High], when BMP is low = Adipocyte, no BMP = smooth muscle cell. |
|
|
Term
High [BMP] gives rise to:
a-Adipocyte
b-Osteocyte
c-Smooth muscle cell
|
|
Definition
b-Osteocytes are converted from fibroblasts by High BMP. Note High BMP also gives rise to Chondrocytes.
|
|
|
Term
Low [BMP] gives rise to:
a-Osteocyte
b-Adipocyte
c-Smooth muscle cell
|
|
Definition
Adipocytes rise from low [BMP]. |
|
|
Term
_________ is avascular & forms 1st from condensed mesenchymal cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
________ forms directly from mesenchymal cells w/o cartilage template
a-endochondral
b-intramembranous
c-periosteum
d-none of the above
|
|
Definition
b-intramembranous bone forms directly from mesenchymal cells and is vascularized.
|
|
|
Term
Where are the origins of the cells of the craniofacial complex origination? |
|
Definition
Cells derived from Neural Crest and mesodermal cells form the craniofacial complex. |
|
|
Term
PTH, Vitamin D, and Calcitonin are _______ signals that cause ________. |
|
Definition
Endocrine, the affect of inc. bone resportion caused by PTH & Vit. D, and dec. bone resorption caused by Calcitonin. |
|
|
Term
Bone Morphogenic protein is a _____ signal
a-neurocrine
b-paracrine
c-endocrine
d-autocrine
|
|
Definition
b-paracrine & D-autocrine= BMP |
|
|
Term
Osteoclasts lineage stem from
a-myeloid stem cells
b-pluripotent hematopoietic Stem Cell
c-T-cells
d-GM-CFC
|
|
Definition
a-myeloid stem cells &
b-pluripotent hematopoietic Stem
|
|
|
Term
_________ secrete HCl and protease causing bone resorption. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
M-CSF, PTH, IL1, & vit.D are all needed to produce:
a-osteoblasts
b-osteocytes
c-osteoclasts
d-all of the above
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Root completion on deciduous teeth is ________ and permanent is ________
a-5months & 2years
b-15 months & 4years
c-19 months & 3years
d-18 months & 3years
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of collagen is PDL composed of:
a-1
b-1&2
c-3&4
d-1&4
e-1&3
|
|
Definition
Collagen type 1 and 3 compose PDL. |
|
|
Term
Alkaline phosphatase is the hallmark of ____________.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
I am a disease typified by craniofacial lesions and deformities. I am...
a-Rickets
b-Hypophosphatasia
c-Paget's disease
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
I am a disease typified by enlarged pulp chambers. I am...
a-Rickets
b-Hypophosphatasia
c-Paget's disease
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
I am a disease typified by loss of primary teeth prematurely. I am...
a-Rickets
b-Hypophosphatasia
c-Paget's disease
|
|
Definition
b-Hypophosphatasia, which cause lack of PDL binding to cementum(b/c no cementum).
|
|
|
Term
Osteonecrosis of the Jaw (ONJ) is caused by __________. |
|
Definition
High dose treatment of Bisphosphonates for cancer t(x). |
|
|
Term
________ is the protein focus of Dentinogenesis Imperfecta (DGI)
a-collagen
b-Fibrilin
c-Elastin
d-dentin sialophosphoprotein
|
|
Definition
d-dentin sialophosphoprotein |
|
|
Term
PTH inhibits phosphate and calcium reabsorption at the kidney |
|
Definition
false, only Phophates reabsorption is inhibited, calcium reabs. is stimulated distally. |
|
|
Term
calcitonin causes osteoclasts to strink. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In what direction is the protein synthesis on polysomes? |
|
Definition
Polysomes synthesize N terminal first. |
|
|
Term
At what end is the start site on the DNA template for polysomes? |
|
Definition
The start site is at the 5' end of the mRNA template. |
|
|
Term
What is a polysome consist of? |
|
Definition
Polysomes consist of multiple ribosomes subunits translating an mRNA. |
|
|
Term
What is the Cental Dogma of protien synthesis? |
|
Definition
The Central Dogma states that the movement of information is unidirectional in that it flows from DNA to RNA to Protein only. |
|
|
Term
What is the triplet code for starting transcription and what amino acid does it code for? |
|
Definition
AUG is the start codon for transcription and it codes for Methionine. |
|
|
Term
What are the stop triplet codon for protein synthesis? |
|
Definition
UAG, UAA, & UGA are the stop codon for protein synthesis. |
|
|
Term
What is the triplet codon for Glutamine? |
|
Definition
GAG is the codon for the Glutamine. |
|
|
Term
What is the triplet codon for Val and what is its implication in hemoglobin? |
|
Definition
Valine's codon is GUG, and it is implicated in the structurally compromised hemoglobin causing sickle cell; this is classic point mutation of normal codon of GAG which codes for Glutamine. |
|
|
Term
What type of point mutation causes Hemoglobin S where the Beta chain is mutated? |
|
Definition
Mutation of Beta chain in hemoglobin S is caused by missense mutations. |
|
|
Term
Shortening of DNA is indicative of which type of point mutation? |
|
Definition
Nonsense point mutation & frameshift deletion mutation shortens the DNA chain. |
|
|
Term
DNA elongation is caused by what type of mutation? |
|
Definition
Suppresor point mutation & Frameshift insertion causes chain elongation. |
|
|
Term
What are the components of translation machinery? |
|
Definition
The translational components consists of Ribosomes, mRNA, tRNA, Amino acids, Enzymes, and Energy. |
|
|
Term
What are the components of the ribosomes structure? |
|
Definition
The ribosome is composed of Large subunit (consisting of central protuberance) and small subunit. |
|
|
Term
50S and 30S subunits is indicative of what type of ribosome?
|
|
Definition
Prokaryotic ribosome consists of 50S and 30S subunits. |
|
|
Term
60S and 40S subunits are from what type of ribosomes? |
|
Definition
Eukaryotic ribosomes compose the 60 & 40 subunits. |
|
|
Term
Eukaryotic translation consist of what genomic parts? |
|
Definition
5' cap, 5'UTR, 3' UTR, only 1 coding region, and 3' poly A of 150 nucleotides is typical of Eukaryotic translation. |
|
|
Term
Prokaryotic translation is typified by what? |
|
Definition
Polycistronic or more than one ORF/coding region characteristic of prokaryotic translation. |
|
|
Term
Tranlational adaptor can be described as? |
|
Definition
tRNA, consisting of 3 Loops, loop 2 containing anticodon sequence, and 3' OH amino acid accepting end. |
|
|
Term
What is the first step in the formation of aminoacyl-tRNA? |
|
Definition
The amino acid is 1st activated by reacting with ATP by amino acid synthetase. |
|
|
Term
What is the second step of aminoacyl-tRNA formation? |
|
Definition
The activated amino acid transferred from aminoacyl-AMP to tRNA. |
|
|
Term
What and Where is the wobble position on the codon and anticodon machinery? |
|
Definition
The wobble postion is the codon region where flexability is allowed in amino acid coding, it is at postion 1 on the anti-codon region and on position 3 on the mRNA. |
|
|
Term
What two enzyme are vital for the fidelity of protein synthesis?
|
|
Definition
Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase is important for activating amino acid and tranfering it to the 3'OH end.
|
|
|
Term
What are the functions and codons for methionine tRNAs? |
|
Definition
Methionine tRNAs serve as AUG initiation codon this dubbed N-formyl / F-Met in bacteria, and the other tRNA serve in the internal Met codon. |
|
|
Term
What are the stages of translation? |
|
Definition
1st-charging of tRNA, 2nd-Initiation, 3rd-Elongaiton, 4th-Termination, 5th-modification. |
|
|
Term
What stage of translation where both eukaryotes and prokaryotes share the same enzyme? |
|
Definition
The first stage of both organisms use Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase to charge tRNA. |
|
|
Term
Cap dependent scanning is seen in which organism and how is it used? |
|
Definition
Cap-dependent scanning is used by 40 S ribosomes of Eukaryotes to find their initation sites. |
|
|
Term
What is the synanomous structure in the prokaryote to cap dependent scanning? |
|
Definition
The Shine-Delgarno box is what 30 S prokaryotic ribosomes use to find their initiation site for translation. |
|
|
Term
IRES differs from Cap dependent how? |
|
Definition
Internal ribosome entry site does not use a 5' cap to find scan for AUG, IRES allows for translation initiation in the middle of a messenger RNA. |
|
|
Term
What class of pharmaceuticals target prokaryotic 30s ribosomes? |
|
Definition
Aminoglycosides are drugs that target the 30s ribosome causing miscoding during elongation, streptomycin is an example of this drug but it inhibits initiation. |
|
|
Term
In translation, what steps make up the elongation phase? |
|
Definition
The 1st step of Elongation is Amino Acid-tRNA binding, 2nd=Peptidyl Transfer, and 3rd =Translocation.
|
|
|
Term
What drug class inhibits binding of AA-tRNA to A site?
|
|
Definition
Tetracyclines inhibits A site binding of AA-tRNA of 30 s ribosome. |
|
|
Term
In elongation what drug inhibits the peptidyl transferase? |
|
Definition
Chloramphenicol targets 50s inhibiting peptidyl transferase. |
|
|
Term
In elongation, what drug inhibits translocation?
|
|
Definition
Translocation is inhibited by Erythromycin/Clindamycin which targets 50s inhibiting translocation.
|
|
|
Term
Toxins to Eukarotic 60s ribosomes is seen by what toxin? |
|
Definition
Ricin's A depurinates 28s rRNA at A residue, at 60s inhibits binding of AA-tRNA to A site. |
|
|
Term
How is Diphtheria toxin cause toxicity in eukaryotes? |
|
Definition
Diphtheria toxin targets eEF2 inhibiting translocation. |
|
|
Term
What drugs is toxic to prokaryotes and eukaryotes during elongation phase? |
|
Definition
Puromycin targets both 50s & 60s ribosomes causing premature release of nascent polypeptide. |
|
|
Term
Puromycin imitates which genomic structure & what is its mechanism of toxicity? |
|
Definition
Tyrosinyl-tRNA is the anologue that Puromycin imitates causing premature release of nascent polypeptide. |
|
|
Term
What does termination phase of protein translation consist of? |
|
Definition
Termination consists of termination and release of polypeptide.
|
|
|
Term
How does termination begin? |
|
Definition
Termination is produced by reading termination sequences UAG, UAA, or UGA, 2nd-release factor binds to a stop codon releasing the polypeptide, 3rd-complex dissociates.
|
|
|
Term
What is the energetic cost of tRNA charging? |
|
Definition
Amino acid charging of tRNA cost 2ATP. |
|
|
Term
How does Initiation energetics compare with the other phases of translation? |
|
Definition
Initiation it the most costly of all; several ATP for unwinding & scanning, and 1GTP for Met-tRNA binding. |
|
|
Term
How much does it cost to produces 1 amino acid compared to an average protein?
|
|
Definition
The cost for 1AA is about 4ATPs, however 1 protein costs 1200 ATPs. |
|
|
Term
IRE-BP bound to IRE indicates what about [Fe+2]? |
|
Definition
This indicates that ferritin in not needed thus intracellular [Fe+2] is low. |
|
|
Term
Early onset of cataract syndrome and serum ferritin is indicative of what diagnosis?
|
|
Definition
Hyperferritinemia is the cause of ferritin release into serum, and cataract formation, the cause of these is IRE mutation where ferritin synthesis is de-repressed. |
|
|
Term
Protein synthesis is down-regulated at the level of the supply of initiator Met-tRNAi how?
|
|
Definition
Met-tRNAi is inhibited thus halting protein synthesis by phosphorylating elF2 through kinase activity. |
|
|
Term
When is protein synthesis halted by the down regulation of initiator of Met-tRNAi? |
|
Definition
Inhibition of protein synthesis via elF2 kinases occurs via HRI in reticulocytes w/o heme, PKR in interferon plus virus infection, ER stress via PERK, and during amino acid starvation via GCN4. |
|
|
Term
What does elF2 do and what disease is caused by its mutation? |
|
Definition
elF2 supplies intiator Met-tRNAi to the 40s subunit leading down the protein synthesis pathway, its mutation leads to Vanishing White Matter (VWM) typified by neurologic deterioration. |
|
|
Term
GDP is exchanged for GTP is what process of protein synthesis? |
|
Definition
GDP to GTP exchange occurs in the initiation and elongation of amino acid synthesis. |
|
|
Term
When ER stress kinase PERK is mutated what diagnosis results? |
|
Definition
Mutation of PERK kinase of the ER leads to Wolcott-Rallison syndrome which is characterized by IDDM1 & Growth defects & bone dysplasia. |
|
|
Term
Kinase activity is shown to inhibit protein synthesis, however kinase activity up-regulates mRNA binding where? |
|
Definition
Kinase cascade induced by GF, mitogens, hormones, and cytokines cause phosphorylation of elF4E-4E-BP complex causing the release of 4E-BP, elF4E is phosphorylated and binds to 5'cap and A&G complex leading to scanning and protein synthesis. |
|
|
Term
What is the shape of Eukaryotic mRNA? |
|
Definition
The functional shape of Eukaryotic mRNA is circular by elF4E, G and poly A Binding protein. |
|
|
Term
Elongation is regulated by which factor? |
|
Definition
SRP recognizes signal peptide and receptor, controls elongation, and targets ER. |
|
|
Term
True or false, transcription & translation is coupled in Eukaryotic nucleus? |
|
Definition
False Eukaryotic transcription & translation is seperated, Prokaryotic is not. |
|
|
Term
In which organism is Met-tRNAi binding first then mRNA binding? |
|
Definition
This occurs only in Eukaryotes, prokaryotes events occur in the opposite direction.
|
|
|
Term
Fibril forming collagen is found in which type?
|
|
Definition
Type 1, 2, and 3 collagen forms fibril forming collagen. |
|
|
Term
Skin, bone, tendon, blood vessels, and cornea compose which type of collagen?
|
|
Definition
Type 1 collagen forms skin, bone, tendon, bv, and cornea. |
|
|
Term
Cartilage, intervertebral disk, and vitreous body forms?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The skin of the fetus is composed of what collagen type? |
|
Definition
Type 3 collagen forms fetal skin.
|
|
|
Term
What collagen compose basement membrane?
|
|
Definition
Basement membranes are composed of type 4 collagens. |
|
|
Term
During pro-alpha chain assembly, ________ and interchain _________ bonds form at N-terminal propetide extension. |
|
Definition
Intrachain, false the disulfide bond forms at C-terminal propeptide extension.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
False, collagen genes are spread all over the genome. |
|
|
Term
The structure of collagen is composed of amino acids _______, _______, _______.
|
|
Definition
Collagen is composed of a triple helical amino acid structure intertwined by hydroxyproline, hydroxylysine, and Glycine. |
|
|
Term
What two genes are transcribed in the 1st step of collagen synthesis? |
|
Definition
Pro-alpha 1 and pro-alpha 2 are the 1st genes transcribed into mRNA.
|
|
|
Term
Which Hydoxylated amino acid residues are glycosylated with glucose and galactose?
|
|
Definition
Hydroxylysine is the amino acid that is glycosylated w/ glucose & galactose. |
|
|
Term
The signal sequence of prepro-alpha-peptide mRNA is removed in the:
a-Nucleus
b-Cytoplasm
c-Golgi aparatus
d-Endoplasmic Reticulum
|
|
Definition
The Endoplasmic Reticulum is the site of signal seq. removal of prepro-alpha-peptide. |
|
|
Term
True/False procollagen is cleaved before being secreted from ER?
|
|
Definition
False, procollagen is 1st secreted from Golgi vacuole, and 2nd N&C terminal propeptides are cleaved in the extracellular matrix. |
|
|
Term
In linear polymer staggered stacking of collagen fibrils, how is staining produced? |
|
Definition
Only in regions with gaps are where heavy staining seen.
|
|
|
Term
Vitamin C and Fe+2 is required by which process in collagen synthesis?
|
|
Definition
Prolyl hydroxylase requires Fe+2 and Ascorbic acid (Vit. C) as cofactors to hydroxylate proline. |
|
|
Term
Hydroxylation of proline requires the cofactors:
a-alpha Ketogluterate
b-Oxygen
c-Ascorbate
d-Fe+2
e-all of the above
|
|
Definition
Hydroxylation by prolyl hydroxylase of proline requires O2, alpha ketogluterate, ascorbate, and Fe+2. |
|
|
Term
T/F lysyl hydroxylase and prolyl hydroxylase requires the same cofactors?
|
|
Definition
True, they req. Fe, and Vit. C. |
|
|
Term
Tell me which is the correct steps of collagen synthesis?
a-, Pro-alpha chain, Hydroxyprolyl residue, Prolyl residue
b-Prolyl residue, Pro-alpha chain, Hydroxylation step
c-Prolyl residue, Hydroxylation step, Pro-alpha chain
|
|
Definition
c-Prolyl residue,Hydroxylation step, Pro-alpha chain.
|
|
|
Term
Scurvy is considered a mild disease because?
|
|
Definition
It is mal-nutritionally based and mediated by Ascorbic acid rich foods like citrus foodstuffs. |
|
|
Term
OI is a result of what genetic change?
|
|
Definition
OI results from collagen gene substitutions in COL1A1 or COL1A2 resulting in substitution of Gly to another. |
|
|
Term
What is the microscopic consequence of genetic mutation of COL1A2 & COL1A1?
|
|
Definition
OI result due to incorrect folding of collagen's triple helix. |
|
|
Term
Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome is cause by and clinically presents? |
|
Definition
EDS is a genetic collagen disorder, it is typified by stretchy skin and joint hypermobility. |
|
|
Term
T/F elastin is stretchy b/c it has more hydroxylation of it proline and lysine components? |
|
Definition
False it has little hydroxyproline and no hydroxylysine.
|
|
|
Term
Mutation in ______ is responsible for Marfan Syndrome:
a-Lysine
b-collagen
c-elastin
d-fibrillin
|
|
Definition
Fibrillin, is the causitive source of Marfan Syndrome when FBN1 is mutated. |
|
|
Term
A deletion of chromosome 15 would affect which connective tissue?
|
|
Definition
Chromesome 15 contains FBN1 which codes for fibrillin, which will vicariously affect elastin. |
|
|
Term
Desmosine cross-link is seen seen in which connective tissue type?
a-collagen
b-elastin
c-fibrillin
d-proline
|
|
Definition
Desmosine cross-linking is classical of elastin's elastic properties, this is produced by oxidative deamination by lysyl oxidase. |
|
|
Term
4 Porphobilinogen (3rd reaction of Porphyrin synthesis) |
|
Definition
In Porphyrin synthesis' 3rd reaction, tetrapyrrole, 4Porphobilinogen goes into Hydroxymethyl bilane synthase prod. Hydroxymethylbilance |
|
|
Term
5/delta aminolevulinate synthase is a protein whose cofactor is ___________ & function is ___________, & inhibited by ______. |
|
Definition
cofactor=pyridoxal phosphate, synthase is inhibited y heavy metal ions, & is feedback inhibited by heme/hemin |
|
|
Term
Catalase functions to do? |
|
Definition
Catalase breaksdown peroxidase |
|
|
Term
Chlorophyll functions in what process? |
|
Definition
Chlorophyll funtions in light absorption |
|
|
Term
Cytochrome a, b, & c function in what process? |
|
Definition
Cytochromes a,b, and c function in electron transport |
|
|
Term
Cytochrome P450 does what? |
|
Definition
Cytochrome P450 function in hydroxylation. |
|
|
Term
Heme synthesis is restricted to the mitochondria in what process of its synthesis? |
|
Definition
The 1st and last 3 reactions of porphyrin synthesis occur in the mitochondria. |
|
|
Term
Hydroxymethylbilance (in the 4th reaction) functions? |
|
Definition
hydroxymethylbilance goes into uroporphyrinogen synthase which, catalyzes ring closure & isomerization prod. uroporphyrinogen 3 & 4NH3 |
|
|
Term
In Heme degradation the 1st step when Heme goes into Biliverdin reductase what occurs? |
|
Definition
The 1st step of Heme degradation does not occur at the enzyme Biliverdin reductase, it occurs at Heme Oxygenase which produces Biliverdin. |
|
|
Term
In Porphyrin Synthesis the 1st reaction is ... |
|
Definition
5/delta aminolevulinate synthase catalyzing Glycine & Succinyl CoA producing = 5/delta-aminolevulinic acid (ALA), CO2 and CoA = 1st reaction (rate limiting) |
|
|
Term
In the liver, bile is immediately preceeded by ________ & which is prod. by _______ |
|
Definition
Bile is immediately preceeded by Bilirubin diglucuronide produced by Bilirubin Glucuronyl Transferase. |
|
|
Term
Protophyrin 9 is converted to _________ by what protein? |
|
Definition
Protophyrin is converted into heme by ferrochelatase. |
|
|
Term
Regulation of Heme Synthesis is controlled by _______ @ ______. |
|
Definition
accumulation of Heme/Hemin, inhibiting 5 aminolevulinate synthase |
|
|
Term
The 2nd reaction of Porphyrin Synthesis is... |
|
Definition
Porphyrin synthesis's 2nd reaction is two 5-aminolevulinate condense in Delta-aminolevulinic acid dehydrase (inhibited by Pb) to produce = porphobilinogen (monopyrrole) |
|
|
Term
Uroporphyrinogen 3 (The 4th Heme synthesis reaction) functions to produce what? |
|
Definition
In the 4th reaction of heme synthesis, Uroporphyrinogen 3 goes to prod. Protoporhyrin 9 |
|
|
Term
What 2 enzymes are in the heme synthetic pathway are inhibited by lead? |
|
Definition
Lead inhibits delta Aminolevulinic Acid dehydrase, which prod. Porphobilinogen, & Ferrochelatase which prod. Heme. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Porphyrins serve as prosthetic groups for proteins in oxygen transport, heterocyclic ring structures includes 4 pyrrole rings join thru a carbon bridge. In the center lies a metal atom that is chelated to the nitrogen atoms of the pyrrole units, in heme = Fe/chlorophyl = Mg |
|
|
Term
What enzymatic steps of Heme degradation is restricted to the macrophage? |
|
Definition
The 1st (@Heme Oxygenase) and 2nd (@Biliverdin Reductase) steps of heme degradation occur inside the Macrophage to produce Bilirubin. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Free oxidized form of heme, inhibits synthesis and activity of 5-aminolevulinate synthase in primitive RBC and cells w/ other heme protein; activates synthesis of globin peptide by combining w/ an inhibitory protein balancing heme & globin |
|
|
Term
What is the significance of Protoporphyrin 9? |
|
Definition
Protoporphyrin 9 goes into Ferrochalatase (inhibited by lead) to prod. Heme (Fe2+ protoporphyrin 9) |
|
|
Term
Fava beans consumed by a person with G6P deficiency would probably cause which type of Jaundice? |
|
Definition
G6P deficiency and Fava beans consumption would cause hemolytic anemia leading to hemolytic jaundice. |
|
|
Term
Hepatic Jaundice is indicated by:
a-Acute Hemolytic anemia
b-Neoplasms
c-Neonatal physiological juandice
d-Disease like Gilberts disease.
|
|
Definition
Disease like Gilbert's disease is indicative of Hepatic Jaundice. |
|
|
Term
Obstruction of the common bile duct is called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why does hemoglobin have a square shaped oxygen dissociation curve? |
|
Definition
This is false, myoglobin's shape is squared, and hemoglobin is sigmoidal, the reason for the square is b/c myoglobin has greater affinity to oxygen, and curve shape shows the cooperative behavior of hemoglobin. |
|
|
Term
In sickle cell valine is substituted for:
a-glycine
b-glutamine
c-glutamate
d-arginine
|
|
Definition
In sickle cell anemia, valine is substituted for glutamate. |
|
|
Term
Cementum, Dentin, and Enamel compose what type of tissue? |
|
Definition
Cementum, Dentin, and Enamel compose calcified oral tissue. |
|
|
Term
What calcified oral tissue is composed of 45% inorganic, 33% protein (collagen 1 & 3), 22% water? |
|
Definition
Cementum is composed of 45% inorganic, 33% protein, and 22% water.
|
|
|
Term
What is Enamel composed of? |
|
Definition
Enamel is composed of (5 %) Ameloblastin, amelogenin,enamelins, Tuftelins, 95% inorganic and less than 1% water.
|
|
|
Term
Pre-odontoblasts, fibroblasts, macrophages, T-lymphocytes are found in what type of oral tissue?
|
|
Definition
Pulp tissue contain Pre-odontoblasts, fibroblasts, macrophages, T-lymphocytes. |
|
|
Term
PDL and fibroblast progenitor cells give rise to what? |
|
Definition
Cementoblast are derived form PDL and fibroblast progenitor cells. |
|
|
Term
True/False odontoblast come from ectoderm in origin, resides in pulp cavity and die after laying down of pulp? |
|
Definition
False odontoblast are mesodermal in origin, do reside in the pulp cavity and live as long as the organism does. |
|
|
Term
Ameloblast are _______ in orign, and ________ after laying down _________. |
|
Definition
ectodermal, die by apoptosis, and enamel. |
|
|
Term
________ secrete ________ inwards toward the pre-enamel layer. |
|
Definition
Ameloblast, a organic matrix. |
|
|
Term
Found in ________, this protein initiates mineralization. |
|
Definition
Osteonectin conducts mineral crystal formation and is produced by osteoblasts and odontoblasts |
|
|
Term
I am an acidic glycoprotein that binds calcium during calcification, I am? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
FGF beta is a pulp protein that is constitutively activated. |
|
Definition
False, FGF beta is an active dentin protein only during dentin formation. |
|
|
Term
What protein is responsible for circumpulpal mineralization? |
|
Definition
A)Odontoblasts
B)Osteoclasts
C)Both
D)Amelogenin
E) All of the above
F)None of the above
F), Circumpulpal mineralization is controlled by Phosphophoryns, which is from the class of HP highly phosphorylated proteins synthesized by Odontoblasts. |
|
|
Term
In an experiment for bone toxicity, what protein could you assay to measure the extent of dentin mineralization? |
|
Definition
Sialoprotein is a good marker for dentin mineralization. |
|
|
Term
Two enamel proteins which are hydrophobic and hydorphilic are ________ and_________? |
|
Definition
Tuftelin is hydrophilic and Amelogenin is hydrophobic. |
|
|
Term
Tuftelin is all except:
a-formed shortly during amelogenesis
b-acidic glycoprotein that's phosphorylated
c-Ends mineralization during tooth development |
|
Definition
C-, Tuftelin starts mineralization during tooth development. |
|
|
Term
This protein directs start & growth of hydroxyapatite crystals & directs cementum, and is used in sex determination. |
|
Definition
Amelogenin is the starter protein of hydroxyapatite crystal formation, and is used to determine sex. |
|
|
Term
__________ elongates hydroxyapatite crystals and directs mineralization. |
|
Definition
Ameloblastin elongates enamel mineralizatin and directs it. |
|
|
Term
Hydroxyapatite binds to:
a-ameloblastin
b-Amelogenin
c-FGF beta
d-Osteopontin
e)enamelin |
|
Definition
Enamelin binds hydroxyapatite. |
|
|
Term
Starch is converted to dextins by beta amylase. |
|
Definition
No, alpha-amylase converts starch into dextrins. |
|
|
Term
True/False, under aerobic conditions does glycolysis of monosaccharides produce lactic acid. |
|
Definition
False, only under anaerobic conditions is lactic acid produced from glycolysis of monosaccharides. |
|
|
Term
How is hyperacetylation executed on the N-terminal of Histones? |
|
Definition
Hyperacetylation on N-terminal tails is directed by Activator sequence and is executed by Gbn5 protein |
|
|
Term
In nuclear receptor family how many zinc finger motif does the centrally located DNA binding domains contain? |
|
Definition
The centrally located binding domain of nuclear receptor family genes each contain 2 copies of zinc finger motif. |
|
|
Term
In nuclear receptor family what domain does N-termini occupy? |
|
Definition
The N-termini lies in the activator domains. |
|
|
Term
In nuclear receptor family which binding domain does C-terminal fall in? |
|
Definition
The C-terminal lies in the binding domain of the Ligands. |
|
|
Term
In the hormone dependent gene regulation of glucocorticoid receptor where is the inhibitor molecule bound to and where does the hormone act? |
|
Definition
The inhibitor molecule binds to the ligand binding domain and is released when the hormone binds the LBD, allowing the DNA binding domain to bind to the Repsonse element in the nucleus inducing translation. |
|
|
Term
In what sequence does the RNA pol II factors form the preinitiation complex? |
|
Definition
1) At the TATA box TBP binds, 2)TFIIB binds gene at TATA, 3)TFIIF binds RNA Pol II on gene, 4)TFIIE binds to RNA Pol II, 5)TFIIH binds RNA Pol II completing the Preinitiation complex |
|
|
Term
What do DNA response elements do? |
|
Definition
DNA response elements bind to nuclear receptors, usually to structures with repeat sequences, e.g. GRE, ERE, VDRE, TRE, & RARE |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
An operon is a polycistronic genome. |
|
|
Term
What is happens to the preiniation complex when ATP & NTPs react with it? |
|
Definition
When NTPs and ATP react with the Preinitiation complex elongation of Pol II with phosphrylated CTD region and all the general factors are released except for TBP. |
|
|
Term
What is the function of hormone-receptor complex and name some hormones that act on them? |
|
Definition
The hormone receptor complex functions as a transcription factor and some types are lipid soluble hormes like Cortisol, Retinoic Acid, and Thyroxine. |
|
|
Term
What is the location of and effect on alpha amanitin of RNA Pol I? |
|
Definition
RNA Pol I is located in the nucleous and has insensitive effect from alpha amanitin |
|
|
Term
What is the location of and effect on alpha amanitin of RNA Pol II? |
|
Definition
RNA PolI is located in the nucleoplasm and has Strongly inhibited effect of alpha amanitin |
|
|
Term
What is the location of and effect on alpha amanitin of RNA Pol III? |
|
Definition
RNA Pol III is located in the nucleoplasm and is inhibitory effect of alpha amanitin at high concentrations |
|
|
Term
What is the result of mutation of CBP in the phosphorylation CREB pathway? |
|
Definition
Mutation of CBP causes pleiotropic developmental abnormalities called Rubenstein-Taybi syndrome. |
|
|
Term
What is the successive steps in activation of gene expresion via cAMP and phosphorylation of CREB? |
|
Definition
1-Gs protein coupled recptor activates Adenylyl cyclase prod. cAMP, 2-cAMP activates PKA, 3-C protein enters nucleus, 4-C protein activates CREB, 5-CREB binds CRE binding protein and activate CBP/P300 beginning transcription. |
|
|
Term
What polymerase produce mRNA & snRNA? |
|
Definition
Pol II is responsible for the production of mRNA and snRNA. |
|
|
Term
What polymerases produce rRNA? |
|
Definition
Pol I and Pol III produce rRNA. |
|
|
Term
Where is alpha-amanitin found and of what importance is it for? |
|
Definition
Alpha-amanitin is found in the poisonous mushroom Amanita phalloides; it blocks elongation by RNA Pol II. |
|
|
Term
Where on the histone is deacylation and what directs this mechanism? |
|
Definition
Histones are deacylated in N-terminal tails by repressor molecule Rpd3. |
|
|
Term
What is type of DNA sequences do Restriction Endonuclease target and what are the potential restults? |
|
Definition
Restriction Endonuclease target palindrome sequences & cuts can be staggered prod. sticky ends, or blunt prod. flush ends. |
|
|
Term
What type of cleavage does the restriction enzyme EcoRI produce? |
|
Definition
EcoRI produces sticky ends at the GAATTC palindrome in between the GA nucleotide. |
|
|
Term
How does bacteria protect themselves from site specific cleavage? |
|
Definition
Bacteria protect their own DNA from cleavage by producing site specific methylase. |
|
|
Term
What is the limit of the polylinker insertion of exogenous DNA into E. coli cell. |
|
Definition
Exogenous DNA is limited to 10-15 kbp insertion size into the polylinker of E. coli. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
DNA amplification is executed through DNA cloning in a plasmid vector via enzymatic insertion. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Using PCR, DNA is amplified rapidly using DNA template, defined primer pair, dNTPs and DNA polymerase. |
|
|
Term
During PCR what process takes place during cycle 1 & 2? |
|
Definition
Denaturation of DNA, Anealing of primers and elongation of primers take place in Cycle 1 of PCR |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
RT-PCR is the amplification of cDNA from RNA. |
|
|
Term
In RT-PCR how is double stranded DNA produced? |
|
Definition
Double stranded DNA is produced via PCR amplification after the RNA/DNA duplex is created. |
|
|
Term
What types of primers can be used in RT-PCR? |
|
Definition
Oligo dT, random hexamer, or specific primer can be used in RT-PCR. |
|
|
Term
What is the Sanger Sequence method? |
|
Definition
This is the sequencing of DNA using dideoxynucleotides at a 1% concentration to the normal deoxynucleotides, four seperate tubes are use with normal nucleotides, but individual type ddNTPs for each tube, after the DNA template and primer(radioactive) elongation occurs the synthesis will stop at the ddNTP insertion, after reaction is complete sequence is run on polyacrilimide gel electrophoresis then autoradiography is taken and sequence read. |
|
|
Term
How is dideoxynucleotide different from a normal/deoxynucleotide and what is the implication of this difference? |
|
Definition
Dideoxynucleotide has a 3' H instead of a 3' OH, this difference causes synthesis termination b/c the triphodiester bond cannot form with H. |
|
|
Term
How is the Autoradiogram read in Sanger sequencing? |
|
Definition
The autoradiogram is read 5'-3', the smallest fragments/bottom are closer to the primer. |
|
|
Term
What does DNA microarray do and what is its method? |
|
Definition
DNA microarrays are used to detect gene expression, the method starts by 1) using a collection of gene-specific DNA molecules, 2)PCR amplification 3)robotic printing of DNA onto glass, 4) taking labelled mRNA from two seperate samples, one w/red, other w/green fluorchrome, 5)Hybridize & wash, 6) Scan red & green signals and combine images. |
|
|
Term
How can you go about prenatal testing of unborn's DNA? |
|
Definition
Aminocentesis and chorionic villus sampling are used to source DNA from prenate, amnicentesis is more invasive via tesing amniotic fluid. |
|
|
Term
What is Southern blotting used for and how is the method executed? |
|
Definition
Southern blotting is used to detect and measure Nucleic acid(DNA), the steps 1)Cleave DNA w/ restriction enzymes, 2)Run DNA through Gel electrophoresis, 3)transfer to Nitocellulose paper via filter paper and alkaline solution, 4)Hybradize Nitrocellulose DNA transfer with radiographicly labelled DNA or RNA probe. 5)Develop Autoradiograph
commonly used in id sickle cell anemia.
|
|
|
Term
What is Norther blotting used for? |
|
Definition
Northern Blotting is used for the detection of mRNA. |
|
|
Term
What is Western blotting used for and what is its method? |
|
Definition
Western blotting is the use of antibody to detect protein, it process starts by 1)Electrophoresis/transfer = SDS polyacrylamide gel is run & transfered to membrane, 2)Antibody Detection = Incubate with Ab1 & wash excess, incubate w/enzyme linked Ab2 & wash excess, 3)Chromogenic detection = react w/ substrate AB2 linked enzyme. |
|
|
Term
What type of genome tecnhnique use SDS polyacrilimide gel? |
|
Definition
SDS polyacrilamide gel is used by Western blot. |
|
|
Term
What are the steps of PCR for each cycle? |
|
Definition
PCR begins with 1)denaturation of double stranded DNA, 2)annealing of primers, 3)elongation of primers. |
|
|
Term
How is PCR used in id persons? |
|
Definition
In assay of tandem repeat identification is possible. |
|
|
Term
Apo CII and Apo E are acquired from where? |
|
Definition
They are both acquired from HDL, and apo cII binds to lipoprotein lipase to hydrolyze triacylglycerol. |
|
|
Term
What is the function of Apo E receptors? |
|
Definition
Apo E receptors mediate uptake of remnant of chylomicron remnants & cholesterol enters liver cells. |
|
|
Term
_________ is unique to the nascent chylomicron. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How can you tell if a chylomicron is mature? |
|
Definition
It has a apoE and apoC-II added from HDL. |
|
|
Term
One structural feature of Chylomicron remnants is the lack of Apo E, and ApoB-48.
|
|
Definition
False, only the lack of Apo C II is indicative of Chylomicron remnant. |
|
|
Term
_________ functions in reverse transport of cholesterol to liver. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a characteristic of nascent VLDL? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the process of transforming VLDL to LDL? |
|
Definition
VLDL can transform to LDL by transferring apo C-II and apo E to HDL. |
|
|
Term
What is the site of drug therapy for increasing HDL? |
|
Definition
HDL is targeted by increasing apo-A1 synthesis. |
|
|
Term
HDL to VLDL & LDL transfer of cholesterol is mediated by cholesterol ester transfer protein (CTEP). |
|
Definition
And is the target of inhibition to limit high cholesterol. |
|
|
Term
How is cholesterol converted into cholesterol ester and why? |
|
Definition
Cholesterol ester is necessary for storage and this conversion takes place by the enzyme Acyl CoA cholesterol acetyl transferase. |
|
|
Term
Where are chylomicrons, VLDLs, and HDLs assembled:
a-gut lumen
b-cytoplasm
c-intestine & liver
d-liver and kidney
|
|
Definition
c- intestine is the site of chylomicron assembly and the liver is the site of VLDL assembly. HDL is assembled in both intestine and liver. |
|
|
Term
Cholesterol is used by the liver to produce ___________? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Proteoglycans consist of
a-glycoproteins
b-glycosaminoglycans/mucopolysaccharides
c-fructose
d-extended glucose
|
|
Definition
b-glycosaminoglycans/mucopolysaccharides compose Proteoglycans. |
|
|
Term
Stuctural components of the ECM are usually:
a-Glycosaminoglycans
b-Proteoglycans
c-Glycoproteins
d-protein
|
|
Definition
b-Proteoglycans, compose the ECM for the most part. |
|
|
Term
_________ is a intracellular proteoglycan that inhibits blood clotting. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How are carbohydrates attached to proteins in glycoproteins?
|
|
Definition
Carbs are attached to proteins through glycosidic links, either O-glycosidic or N-glycosidic. |
|
|
Term
_____________ is a glycosidic link between galactose/glucose & the OH group of hydroxylysine.
a-N-glycosidic link
b-O-glycosidic link
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_____________ is a glycosidic link between N-acetylgalactosamine & serine / threonine.
a-N-glycosidic link
b-O-glycosidic link
|
|
Definition
b-O-glycosidic link(another type), form the link between N-acetyl galactosamine & Serine or threonine as seen in blood group and salivary mucins. |
|
|
Term
_____________ is a glycosidic link between N-acetylglucosamine & asparagine.
a-N-glycosidic link
b-O-glycosidic link
|
|
Definition
a-N-glycosidic link, which exists as High Mannose or complex(i.e. in addition to mannose they contain other sugars like galactose, fucose & sialic acid. |
|
|
Term
_________ are polyanionic .
a-proteoglycans
b-galactosamines
c-Glycosaminoglycans
d-Dipeptides.
|
|
Definition
c-Glycosaminoglycans, are polyanionic because of carboxyl and sulfate groups.
|
|
|
Term
Where is the carboxyl group on glycosaminoglycans?
a-Alpha carbon
b-D-glucose
c-D-glucuronic acid
d-L-iduronic acid
|
|
Definition
C & D, the carboxyl group in glycosaminoglycans are on either D-glucuronic acid or its epimer L-iduronic acid. |
|
|
Term
What does the repeating disaccharide motif on the glycosaminoglycan of a proteoglycan look like?
a-Glucose-glucose-mannose-serine
b-galactose-galactose-mannose serine
c-fucose-fucos-xylose-serine
d-galactose-galactose-xylose-serine
|
|
Definition
d-galactose-galactose-xylose-serine, forms the repeating disaccharide motif in glycosaminoglycan of proteoglycans which serves as linker sugar to the serine of the core protein. |
|
|
Term
Glycosaminoglycans include all except:
a-Hyaluronic acid
b-Chondroitin sulfate
c-Dermatan sulfate
d-Heparan sulfate
e-Heparin
f-keratan sulfate
|
|
Definition
all of the above are glycosaminoglycans. |
|
|
Term
___________ are bound non-covalently to proteoglycan monomers.
a-Hyaluronic acid
b-Chondroitin sulfate
c-Dermatan sulfate
d-Heparan sulfate
e-Heparin
f-keratan sulfate
|
|
Definition
a-Hyaluronic acid is bound to proteoglycan monomers w/linker proteins->bottle brush arrangement. |
|
|
Term
How does the glycosaminoglycan like chondroitin sulfate differ from Dermatan sulfate?
|
|
Definition
Chondroitin sulfate has a D-Glucuronic acid attached to N-Acetyl-D-galactosamine vs. Dermatan sulfate which has a L-Iduronic acid attached to N-Acetyl-D-galactosamine. |
|
|
Term
Keratan sulfate has __________ attached __________. |
|
Definition
Keratan sulfate has D-Galactose attached to N-Acetyl-D-glucosamine, which differs from the normal N-Acetyl-D-galactosamine. |
|
|
Term
_________ is formed on dilichol pyrophosphate then transferred to a protein.
a-glycosaminoglycans
b-proteoglycan
c-N-linked glycoproteins
d-O-linked glycoproteins
|
|
Definition
c-N-linked glycoproteins, are assembled on dolichol pyrophosphate and transferred to a protein.
|
|
|
Term
How are saccharide units added to glycoproteins?
a-CMP
b-UDP
c-ATP
d-AMP
|
|
Definition
b, UDP, Nucleoside diphosphate derivatives like UDP-glucuronic acid and GDP-mannose. |
|
|
Term
How are sialic acid units added to glycoproteins?
a-CMP
b-UDP
c-ATP
d-AMP
|
|
Definition
a-CMP, specifically CMP-NANA add sialic acid to glycoproteins. |
|
|
Term
T/F N-linked synthesis is direct whereas O-linked synthesis is indirect. |
|
Definition
False, N-linked synthesis uses dolichol pyrophosphate = indirect, O-linked glycoproteins are added directly to glycoproteins. |
|
|
Term
Lysosomes degrade _______ in a last on-first off basis.
a-glycopeptidase
b-Aminoglycans
c-saccaride chains
d-peptidoglycans
|
|
Definition
c-saccaride chains, are degraded by enzymes in lysosomes in an Last on-first off basis. |
|
|
Term
The lack of mannose 6-phosphate describes what disease?
a-Leukemia
b-IDDM1
c-I-cell disease
d-Gout
|
|
Definition
c-I-cell disease, is prod. when lysosome deficient enzyme does not acquire mannose-6-phosphate which is a targeting signal. |
|
|
Term
What is the rational behind the naming of I-cell disease? |
|
Definition
Inclusion bodies are seen in fibroblast where lysosomes are defecient in degrading enzyme, thus unable to digest substrate and are engorged; they consequently die in infancy. |
|
|
Term
The accumulation of Heparan sulfate & Dermatan sulfate due to a deficiency in ______ result in _____ syndrome.
a-iduronate sulfatase, Sanfilipo's syndrome
b-L-iduronidase, Hunter's syndrome
c-Hydrolase, Hurler's syndrome
d-alpha-L-iduronidase, Hurler's syndrome.
|
|
Definition
d-alpha-L-iduronidase, Hurler's syndrome, results in Heparan, and Dermatan sulfate accumulation. |
|
|
Term
Hunter's syndrome is the result of a deficiency in ______ .
a-iduronate sulfatase
b-L-iduronidase,
c-Hydrolase,
d-alpha-L-iduronidase,
|
|
Definition
a-iduronate sulfatase, an X-linked deficiency leads to Hunters syndrome. |
|
|
Term
Sanfilipo's syndrome is a _______caused by a deficiency in one of 3________ or 1________. |
|
Definition
Mucopolysachharidoses, Hydrolases, 1N-acetyltransferase. |
|
|
Term
T/F, there are many types of MPS, including type V. |
|
Definition
False, there is no MPS type V. |
|
|
Term
This MPS is characterized by ß-Glucuronidase deficiency.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F vitamins are required in large amounts in a normal diet. |
|
Definition
false, vitamins are organic cmpds required in small amounts. |
|
|
Term
What are the fat soluble vitamins and Why? |
|
Definition
A, D, E, K are the fat soluble vitamins, their typically contains a ring structure bound to a hydrocarbon, which makes is lipid soluble. |
|
|
Term
What are the water soluble Vitamins?
a-A
b-B
c-C
d-D
e-E
|
|
Definition
B & C, vitamin B & C compose the |
|
|
Term
What vitamin has the highest daily requirement?
a-Vitamin E
b-Ascorbic acid
c-Riboflavin
d-Thiamine
|
|
Definition
b-Ascorbid acid/Vitamin C is the highest required daily vitamin intake. |
|
|
Term
Vitamin A =? and where is it found |
|
Definition
Vitamin A is found naturally in its alcoholic form, Retinol, then converted to Retinal, then Retinoic acid, which is the photoreceptive chemical that is isomerize by light into 11 cis-retinal |
|
|
Term
Which among these molecules are not all-trans.
a-Retinol
b-Retinal
c-Retinoic acid
d-11-cis-retinal
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What role does ß-carotene play in vitamin A formation?
a-cofactor for retinol synthesis
b-substrate for retinol synthesis
c-inhibitor of cis-retinal formation
d-stabilize opsin protein
|
|
Definition
b-substrate for retinol synthesis, ß-carotene is converted into 2retinal (all trans) by Dioxagenase
|
|
|
Term
Vitamin A exists as:
a-Retinal
b-Retinoic Acid
c-Retinol
d-all of the above
e-none of the above
|
|
Definition
d, Retinol, Retinal, and Retinoid acid are all the varying forms of Vitamin A |
|
|
Term
Light causes the transformation of vitamin A to _________.
a-11 cis-Retinol
b-11 cis-Retinoic Acid
c-11 cis-Retinal
|
|
Definition
11 Cis-Retinal, is what photoisomerization does to Vitamin A, which is bound to opsin. |
|
|
Term
A defect in the Dioxagenase in Vitamin A synthesis possibly show what symptom?
a-Daytime Photobleaching
b-Nightime photobleaching
c-keratinization
d-night blindness
e-Gingiva hyperplasia
|
|
Definition
C, D, and E, Deficiency of Vitamin A would cause Keratinization, night blindness, and gingival hyperplasia. |
|
|
Term
Excess vegetables and liver oil would have what effect on you?
a-increase visual field
b-recupe optical power
c-toxicity
d-nothing
|
|
Definition
C, excess of fish liver & vegetables = excess of Vitamin A which is toxic, as well as Vitamin D. |
|
|
Term
Vitamin B1 = ? and is found where?
|
|
Definition
Vitamin B1 = Thiamine, is converted to thiamine pyrophosphate serving as cofactor for oxidative phosphorylation. |
|
|
Term
Thiamine/Vit. B1 is found in
a-alpha-keto acids formation
b-oxidative decarboxylation
c-transketolase
d-conversion of Xylose 5-Phosphate to G3P
|
|
Definition
all of the above is found using the cofactor of Vitamin B1. |
|
|
Term
A deficiency of ___________ leads to
Polyneuritis, cardiac pathology, edema, Beri Beri.
a-Cobalamine
b-Vitamin A
c-Vitamin C
d-Vitamin B
e-Thiamine
|
|
Definition
e, Thiamine is the vitamin, B1 that when deficient leads to Polyneuritis, cardiac pathology, edema, Beri Beri, and Wernicke Korsakoff syndrome. |
|
|
Term
A deficiency of ___________ leads to
atrophy of filliform papillae (seen as satin-like appearance of tongue), angular cheilosis.
a-Cobalamine
b-Vitamin A
c-Vitamin C
d-Vitamin B
e-Thiamine
|
|
Definition
e-Thiamine, in it deficiency affects the oral cavity by causing the sloughing off of filliform papillae which makes the tongue look satin like, and angular cheilosis. |
|
|
Term
Thiamine are found in:
a-Milk, liver, green vegetables
b-Legumes, meat
c-Beans, nuts, fruits, etc
d-Liver, fish, nuts, whole grain cereals
e-Intestinal microorganisms, liver, vegetablesc-
|
|
Definition
Beans, nuts, fruits, etc, are the source of Thiamine/Vitamin B1. |
|
|
Term
___________ forms the molecule of Flavin mononucleotide, Flavin adedine dinucleotide.
a-Cobalamine
b-Vitamin A
c-Vitamin C
d-Vitamin B
e-Thiamine
|
|
Definition
None of the above, Vitamin B2/Riboflavin forms the cofactor of FMN and FAD. |
|
|
Term
Vitamin B2/Riboflavin are found in:
a-Milk, liver, green vegetables
b-Legumes, meat
c-Beans, nuts, fruits, etc
d-Liver, fish, nuts, whole grain cereals
e-Intestinal microorganisms, liver, vegetables
|
|
Definition
a-Milk, liver, green vegetables
|
|
|
Term
Niacin is seen the formation of _________.
a-FAD
b-NADP
c-FMN
d-FAD
|
|
Definition
b-NADP, Niacin/Nicotinamide/Vitamin B3 is seen in the NADP cofactor. |
|
|
Term
Consumption of legumes and meat would cure Pallegra, dementia and death that is seen in what Vitamin deficiency?
a-Vitamin B5
b-Vitamin B1
c-Vitamin B2
d-Vitamin B3
e-Vitamin B4
|
|
Definition
d-Vitamin B3, deficiency which lead to Niacin/Nicotinimide deficiency, as seen in a diet too rich in corn. Oral manifestations also cause ulcerative glossitis.
|
|
|
Term
___________ serves as the coenzyme for enzymes catalyzing transamination, deamination, and decarboxylation for glycogen phosphorylase.
a-Vit.D
b-Vit.B2
c-Vit.B3
d-Vit.B6
e-Vit.B5
f-Vit.B4
|
|
Definition
d-Vit.B6, Pyridoxine forms pyridoxine phosphate. |
|
|
Term
Microcytic anemia & convulsions are the result of which Vitamin deficiency
a-Thiamine
b-Retinol
c-Niacin
d-Pyridoxine
e-Biotin
f-Riboflavin
|
|
Definition
d-Pyridoxine, is Vitamin B6, and when deficient cause microcytic anemia, and convulsions.
|
|
|
Term
A diet of Liver, fish, nuts and whole grains would most likely cure which deficiency disease symptom?
a-Dermatitis, convulsions, microcytic anemia
b-Pellagra & dementia
c-atrophy of filliform papillae, angular cheilosis
d-Beri-beri and Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. Polyneuritis, cardiac pathology, edema
|
|
Definition
a-Dermatitis, convulsions, microcytic anemia, is cured by Vitamin B6/Pyridoxine rich foods of Liver, fish, nuts and whole grains. |
|
|
Term
What Vitamin is Biotin classified as, and what is its deficiency cause? |
|
Definition
Biotin is called Biotin, and its f(x) is seen in Acetyl CoA Carboxylase, Pyruvate Carboxylase, and Proponyl CoA Carboxylase, its disf(x) causes dermatitis, anorexia, nausea, and muscle weakness, may be caused by consuming large amounts raw eggs. |
|
|
Term
__________ facilitates covalent linkage of CO2 to lysine side chains of enzymes.
|
|
Definition
Carboxylase conducts covalent linkage of CO2 to lysine of side chains of enzymes. |
|
|
Term
__________ is a vitamin found in intestinal microorganisms, liver, and vegetables. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pantothenic Acid is part of ____________ as a cofactor.
a-cobalamine
b-Vitamin A
c-Thiamine
d-coenzyme A
e-Biotin
|
|
Definition
d-coenzyme A, where Pantothenic acid forms pantotheine, deficiency causes nausea & fatigue, is synthesized by intestinal bacteria.
|
|
|
Term
______________ is used in to t(x) TB, it has an antagonistic effect on Vitamin B6.
a-Pyridoxamine
b-Retinol
c-Isoniazid
d-Niacin
e-Riboflavin
|
|
Definition
c-Isoniazid t(x) TB and is antagonistic to Vitamin B6/Pyridoxine. |
|
|
Term
Dihydropteroate Synthetase is inhibited by____________ preventing the production of Folic acid.
a-Methotrexate
b-Isoniazid
c-Sulfanilamide
d-CN-
|
|
Definition
c-Sulfanilamide, inhibits Dihydropteroate Synthetase preventing Folic acid.
|
|
|
Term
___________ is a vitamin consisting of Cobalt, is an important cofactor in the conversion of Homocysteine to Methionine via N5 methyltetrahydrofolate going to tetrahydrofolate.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Methylmalonyl CoA isomerase requires _____________ to produce Succinal CoA |
|
Definition
5-deoxyadenosyl cobalamin |
|
|
Term
Pernicious anemia & degeneration of spinal cord neurons are caused by __________. |
|
Definition
Cobalamin deficiency cause Pernicious anemia, which is seen in Vegans b/c sources of Vit. B12 =>meat & milk. |
|
|
Term
What is the best treatment for pernicious anemia
a-Folic acid
b-Vit.B12
c-thiamin
d-A,B, and C
e-A&B
|
|
Definition
e-A&B, folic acid and vitamin B12 treatment is the best t(x). |
|
|
Term
Which vitamins are the anti-oxidant vitamins?
a-Vitamin A, D, & E
b-Vitamin K, E, and Biotin
c-Vitamin E, ß-Carotene, and biotin
d-Vitamin C, E, an ß-Carotene
|
|
Definition
d-Vitamin C, E, an ß-Carotene are the anti-oxidant vitamins. |
|
|
Term
___________ regulates Ca at intestine, kidney, and bone.
a-cholecalciferol
b-Vit D
c-1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D3
d-UV irradiated 7-dehydrocholesterol in skin
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Excess of _________ cause pulp calcification and toxicity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Tocopherol is....
a-analogous to calciferol
b-when deficient leads to the lysis of erythrocytes.
c-a high poly unsaturated
|
|
Definition
b-when deficient leads to the lysis of erythrocytes, is characteristic of Tocopherol/Vitamin E |
|
|
Term
________ is produced by intestinal bacteria, and is a coenzyme for carboxylation of glutamic side chains. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4 Porphobilinogen (3rd reaction of Porphyrin synthesis) |
|
Definition
In Porphyrin synthesis' 3rd reaction, tetrapyrrole, 4Porphobilinogen goes into Hydroxymethyl bilane synthase prod. Hydroxymethylbilance |
|
|
Term
5/delta aminolevulinate synthase is a protein whose cofactor is ___________ & function is ___________, & inhibited by ______. |
|
Definition
cofactor=pyridoxal phosphate, synthase is inhibited y heavy metal ions, & is feedback inhibited by heme/hemin |
|
|
Term
Catalase functions to do? |
|
Definition
Catalase breaksdown peroxidase |
|
|
Term
Chlorophyll functions in what process? |
|
Definition
Chlorophyll funtions in light absorption |
|
|
Term
Cytochrome a, b, & c function in what process? |
|
Definition
Cytochromes a,b, and c function in electron transport |
|
|
Term
Cytochrome P450 does what? |
|
Definition
Cytochrome P450 function in hydroxylation. |
|
|
Term
Heme synthesis is restricted to the mitochondria in what process of its synthesis? |
|
Definition
The 1st and last 3 reactions of porphyrin synthesis occur in the mitochondria. |
|
|
Term
Hydroxymethylbilance (in the 4th reaction) functions? |
|
Definition
hydroxymethylbilance goes into uroporphyrinogen synthase which, catalyzes ring closure & isomerization prod. uroporphyrinogen 3 & 4NH3 |
|
|
Term
In Heme degradation the 1st step when Heme goes into Biliverdin reductase what occurs? |
|
Definition
The 1st step of Heme degradation does not occur at the enzyme Biliverdin reductase, it occurs at Heme Oxygenase which produces Biliverdin. |
|
|
Term
In Porphyrin Synthesis the 1st reaction is ... |
|
Definition
5/delta aminolevulinate synthase catalyzing Glycine & Succinyl CoA producing = 5/delta-aminolevulinic acid (ALA), CO2 and CoA = 1st reaction (rate limiting) |
|
|
Term
In the liver, bile is immediately preceeded by ________ & which is prod. by _______ |
|
Definition
Bile is immediately preceeded by Bilirubin diglucuronide produced by Bilirubin Glucuronyl Transferase. |
|
|
Term
Protophyrin 9 is converted to _________ by what protein? |
|
Definition
Protophyrin is converted into heme by ferrochelatase. |
|
|
Term
Regulation of Heme Synthesis is controlled by _______ @ ______. |
|
Definition
accumulation of Heme/Hemin, inhibiting 5 aminolevulinate synthase |
|
|
Term
The 2nd reaction of Porphyrin Synthesis is... |
|
Definition
Porphyrin synthesis's 2nd reaction is two 5-aminolevulinate condense in Delta-aminolevulinic acid dehydrase (inhibited by Pb) to produce = porphobilinogen (monopyrrole) |
|
|
Term
Uroporphyrinogen 3 (The 4th Heme synthesis reaction) functions to produce what? |
|
Definition
In the 4th reaction of heme synthesis, Uroporphyrinogen 3 goes to prod. Protoporhyrin 9 |
|
|
Term
What 2 enzymes are in the heme synthetic pathway are inhibited by lead? |
|
Definition
Lead inhibits delta Aminolevulinic Acid dehydrase, which prod. Porphobilinogen, & Ferrochelatase which prod. Heme. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Porphyrins serve as prosthetic groups for proteins in oxygen transport, heterocyclic ring structures includes 4 pyrrole rings join thru a carbon bridge. In the center lies a metal atom that is chelated to the nitrogen atoms of the pyrrole units, in heme = Fe/chlorophyl = Mg |
|
|
Term
What enzymatic steps of Heme degradation is restricted to the macrophage? |
|
Definition
The 1st (@Heme Oxygenase) and 2nd (@Biliverdin Reductase) steps of heme degradation occur inside the Macrophage to produce Bilirubin. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Free oxidized form of heme, inhibits synthesis and activity of 5-aminolevulinate synthase in primitive RBC and cells w/ other heme protein; activates synthesis of globin peptide by combining w/ an inhibitory protein balancing heme & globin |
|
|
Term
What is the significance of Protoporphyrin 9? |
|
Definition
Protoporphyrin 9 goes into Ferrochalatase (inhibited by lead) to prod. Heme (Fe2+ protoporphyrin 9) |
|
|
Term
Why does hemoglobin have a square shaped oxygen dissociation curve? |
|
Definition
This is false, myoglobin's shape is squared, and hemoglobin is sigmoidal, the reason for the square is b/c myoglobin has greater affinity to oxygen, and curve shape shows the cooperative behavior of hemoglobin. |
|
|
Term
Obstruction of the common bile duct is called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Fava beans consumed by a person with G6P deficiency would probably cause which type of Jaundice? |
|
Definition
G6P deficiency and Fava beans consumption would cause hemolytic anemia leading to hemolytic jaundice. |
|
|
Term
In sickle cell Glutamate is substituted for:
a-glycine
b-glutamine
c-valine
d-arginine
|
|
Definition
In sickle cell anemia, Glutamate is substituted by valine, causing sickling. |
|
|
Term
Hepatic Jaundice is indicated by:
a-Acute Hemolytic anemia
b-Neoplasms
c-Neonatal physiological juandice
d-Disease like Gilberts disease.
|
|
Definition
Disease like Gilbert's disease is indicative of Hepatic Jaundice. |
|
|
Term
The active form of nucleotides in biosynthesis is triphosphates. |
|
Definition
false, di & tri phosphates of nucleotides are the active forms. |
|
|
Term
Phosphodiester bonds
a-5'-3'
b-3'-5'
c-both
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does Hypoxanthine differ from Xanthine? |
|
Definition
Xanthine contains 2, 6 Carbonyl groups,which Hypothanthine has only a 6 Carbonyl group. |
|
|
Term
Among the nucleotides, which compose the purines?
a-Cytosine
b-Guanine
c-Adenine
d-Thymadine
|
|
Definition
B & C, Guanine and Adenine make up the purines. |
|
|
Term
How does Adenine and Guanine differ? |
|
Definition
Adenine has at its carbon 6 position an amino group, vs. Guanine that has a carbonyl group at its 6 position, in addition it has an amino group at its 2 position. |
|
|
Term
De novo synthesis of nucleotides come from.... |
|
Definition
Pentose Phosphate pathway. |
|
|
Term
Ribose-5-Phosphate + ATP + PRPP synthase produce... |
|
Definition
5-Phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate (PRPP), which is reduced by Glutamine & enters Amidophosphoribosyl Transferase. PRPP synthase is inhibited by AMP, IMP, GMP. |
|
|
Term
Amidophosphoribosyl Transferase & PRPP prod. _______? |
|
Definition
5-Phosphoribosylamine, this is a major regulatory step., where Amidophophoribosyl Transferase is inhibited by IMP, AMP, and GMP. |
|
|
Term
_________ is the precursor for both AMP and GMP.
a-Xanthine
b-Cytosine
c-Hypoxanthine
d-IMP
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of these are part of purine biosynthesis except:
a-Glutamate
b-Glycine
c-Aspartate
d-Glutamine
|
|
Definition
A-Glutamate is not in the process of purine biosynthesis. |
|
|
Term
AMP in its feedback inhibition, acts on
a-IMP dehydrogenase
b-Adenylosuccinase
c-Adenylosuccinate synthetase
d-Amidophosphoribosyl
transferase
|
|
Definition
c-Adenylosuccinate synthetase is inhibited by AMP in feedback inhibition. |
|
|
Term
? is an anti-graft rejection drug, that uncompetitively inhibits Inosine Monophosphate Dehydrogenase.
a-AMP
b-Tamoxafin
c-GMP
d-Mycophenolic Acid
|
|
Definition
d-Mycophenolic Acid inhibits IMP dehydrogenase, used to deprive T & B cells of components of Nucleic Acids. GMP also inhibits IMP dehydrogenase. |
|
|
Term
_______ & Aspartate -->Adenine
a-Xanthine
b-PRPP
c-Cystine
d-Hypoxanthine
|
|
Definition
d-Hypoxanthine + Aspartate--> Adenine |
|
|
Term
Xanthine + Glutamine --->Adenine. |
|
Definition
False, Xanthine + Glutamine -->Guanine. The carbonyl O, b/c NH2. |
|
|
Term
What enzymes f(x) in the salvage pathway of purine reutilization?
a-PRPP
b-APPT
c-A-PRT
d-HG-PRT
|
|
Definition
C & D, A-PRT & HG-PRT produce Adenylate, and Guanylate respectively. |
|
|
Term
Gout is caused by lost of negative regulation...
|
|
Definition
PRPP Synthetase & PRPP amidotransferase or PRPP levels are high because of defect in HG-PRT/A-PRT (The Salvage pathway), leading to overprod. of xanthine and then urate. |
|
|
Term
What is the result of mutation in ADA (Adenosine Deaminase)?
a-Gout
b-pnemonia
c-SCIDS
d-none
|
|
Definition
c-SCIDS is the result of mutation in ADA, Adenosine Deaminase. |
|
|
Term
What does Adenosine Deaminase do? |
|
Definition
Adenosine is converted into by enzyme Inosine, which is converted into Hypoxanthine. When mutated this incapacitates T and B cells b/c dAMP is high & toxic. |
|
|
Term
Defect in glucose 6 phosphatase results in ______ & what disease> |
|
Definition
Hyperuricemia & Von Gierke's disease. |
|
|
Term
Lack of HG-PRT is called:
a-Gout
b-SCID
c-Von Gierke's disease
d-Lesch Nyhan syndrome
|
|
Definition
D- Lesch Nyhan syndrome results due to a lack of HG-PRT which leads to Hyperuricemia. |
|
|
Term
How does the structure of Cytosine & Uracil differ?
a-C-has Two Carbonyl groups, U has one NH2 & Carbonyl group
b-C-has 1 Carbonyl groups, U has 2 NH2 & 1 Carbonyl group
c-C-has Two Carbonyl groups, U has one NH2 & Carbonyl group
d-C-has 1 Carbonyl groups and 1 NH2, U-has 2 Carbonyl groups.
|
|
Definition
D-Cytosine has 1 Carbonyl group and 1 NH2, U-has 2 Carbonyl groups. |
|
|
Term
What f(x)nal groups does the structure of Thymine have:
a-1 Carbonyl & 1 NH2
b-2 Carbonyls
c-2 Carbonyls & 1 Methyl
d-2 Carbonyls & 1COOH
|
|
Definition
c-2 Carbonyls & 1 Methyl, describe the functional groups of Thymine. |
|
|
Term
2 Carbonyls & 1COOH describe the functional groups on _______.
a-Cystine
b-Guanine
c-Uracil
d-Orotic Acid
e-Thymine
|
|
Definition
d-Orotic Acid has 2 Carbonyls & 1COOH functional groups.
|
|
|
Term
What are the starter molecules of Pyrimidine biosynthesis? |
|
Definition
Glutamine, HCO3, & 2ATP, which enter Cabamoyl Phosphate Synthetase 2, Aspartate Transcarbamylase, and Dihydroorotase dehydrogenase, =>CAD prod. Orotic Acid. |
|
|
Term
Where is CPS2 located?
a-Mitochondria
b-cytosol
c-Nucleus
d-ER
|
|
Definition
CPS 2 is located in the cytosol. |
|
|
Term
What is the fate of Orotic Acid when it leaves CAD? |
|
Definition
Orotic Acid enters Orotate Phosphoribosyl Transferase w/ PRPP prod. Orotidine 5' Monophosphate. |
|
|
Term
Uridine 5' Monophosphate (UMP) is produced by...
a-Oratate Phosphoribosyl Transferase & Orotic Acid
b-PRPP & Orotidine 5' Phosphate decarboxylase
c-Orotidine 5' Monophosphate & Oritidine 5' Phosphate Decarboxylase.
d-Orotic acid & Oritidine 5' Phosphate Decarboxylase
|
|
Definition
c-Orotidine 5' Monophosphate & Oritidine 5' Phosphate prod. UMP=Uridine 5' Monophosphate. |
|
|
Term
On what enzymes are feedback inhibition exerted in the regulation of Pyrimidine biosynthesis?
a-DHO
b-ATC
c-AO
d-CPS2
e-ODC
|
|
Definition
B,D, & E, CPS2 is inhibited by UTP, as is Aspartate transcarbolymase. Oritidine 5' Phosphate Decarboxylase is inhibited by UMP. |
|
|
Term
UTP inhibits CTP2 in:
a-prokaryotes
b-eukaryotes
c-both
d-neither
|
|
Definition
b- Eukaryotes have UTP inhibit CPS2, not Prokaryotes, however in Prokaryotes UTP inhibits ATC. PRPP & ATP activate CPS2. |
|
|
Term
Atoms on pyrimidines come from all except:
a-aspartate
b-Ribose 5-Phosphate
c-CO2
d-Glutamine
e-Glycine
|
|
Definition
e-Glycine is not a contributor to pyrimidine structure, *CO2 comes from Carbonyl Phosphate. |
|
|
Term
Megaloblastic anemia is connected to Pyrimidine biosynthesis how? |
|
Definition
low activity in Orotidine phosphate decarboxylase & Orotate Phosphoriboxyltransferase cause abnormal growth and megaloblastic anemia. |
|
|
Term
What is a non invasive test to determine if megaloblastic anemia is the result of deficient pyrimidine biosynthesis? |
|
Definition
Check the urine for large amounts of oratate it is a positive test for deficient pyrimidine biosynthesis. |
|
|
Term
CTP synthetase uses _____ & ________ to produce CTP.
a-Glutamine & UMP
b-Glutamate & UTP
c-PRPP & ATP
d-Glutamine & UTP
|
|
Definition
d-Glutamine & UTP, are the substrates that CTP Synthetase converts to CTP. |
|
|
Term
What enzymes f(x) in converting RNA to DNA? |
|
Definition
Thymidylate Synthase & Ribonucleotide Reductase |
|
|
Term
Ribonucleotide Reductase is inhibited by______
a-ATP
b-CMP
c-UMP
d-UDP
e-dATP
|
|
Definition
e-dATP inhibits RR., ATP activates it. |
|
|
Term
Thioredoxin is found in the active site of
a-Thymadylate synthesis
b-Ribonucleotide Reductase
c-OTC
d-ATC
|
|
Definition
B- RR contains Thioredoxin which has 2 cysteines that are oxidized reducing Ribose, in converting RNA to DNA. |
|
|
Term
T/F ADP, GDP, CDP, and UDP are converted into deoxyNucleotides by rNDP Reductase then converted to Triphosphates by reacting w/ATP. |
|
Definition
False, UDP needs to go through a series of reactions, where 5,10 THF converts dUTP->dTTP via Thymadylate Synthetase. This full conversion costs 3 ATPs. |
|
|
Term
What does 5,10 methylene-tetrahydrofolate do to dUMP with the help of Thymidylate synthase?
a-Reduce dUMP
b-Oxidize dUMP
c-methylate dUMP
d-demethylate dUMP
|
|
Definition
c-methylate dUMP, is the f(x) of 5,10 methylene tetrahydrofolate prod. dTMP. |
|
|
Term
________ & ________ enter Dihydrofolate reductase to produce ____________. |
|
Definition
Oxidized Dihydrofolate & NADPH prod. Tetrahydrofolate. Methotrexate is an inhibitor of Dihydrofolate reductase. |
|
|
Term
5 FU is an anticancer drug that targets:
a-Dihydrofolate reductase
b-Thymidylate synthase
c-Serine transhydroxymethylase
d-ATC
|
|
Definition
b-Thymidylate synthase, is targeted by 5FU = Fluorodeoxyuridylate preventing dTMP production. |
|
|
Term
When the drug is more toxic to the tumor than host:
a-toxic
b-hot mess
c-selective toxicity
d-Therapeutic dose
|
|
Definition
c-selective toxicity, is when drug is more toxic to tumor than host.
|
|
|
Term
How do you calculate the Chemotherapeutic Index?
a-toxic dose/therapeutic dose
b-selective toxicity/toxic dose
c-max tolerable dose/min therapeutic dose
d-max tolerable dose/max therapeutic dose
|
|
Definition
c-max tolerable dose/min therapeutic dose = Chemotherapeutic index. |
|
|
Term
What are the sources of Lipids synthesis? |
|
Definition
Ingested triacyglycerols & ingested glucose |
|
|
Term
What is the fate of ingested triacyglycerols? |
|
Definition
1st-emulsified by bile salts in the intestines,
2nd-Digested by Pancreatic Lipase & Colipase, which convert Triacylglycerol into Fatty Acid & 2-Monoacyglycerol(2-MG).
3rd-FA & 2-MG in Bile salts micelle transporting them to Nasent chylomicrons in the intestine.
4th-Nasent Chylomicron w/apoB, TG & Phospholipids enter lymph, then the blood stream.
|
|
|
Term
What is the structure of lipoproteins? |
|
Definition
Lipoproteins contain phospholipids, cholesterol esters, apoprotein, chlesterol, and triglycerides. |
|
|
Term
Acyl carrier protein is part of what process?
a-gluconeogenesis
b-cholesterol synthesis
c-fatty acid synthesis
d-bilirubin degredation
|
|
Definition
c-Acyl carrier protein is part of fatty acid synthesis, where Acetyl CoA & 7Malonyl CoA + 14 NADPH + 14 H catalyzed by FAS complex produce Palmitic Acid (C16) |
|
|
Term
Where does NADP+ get its reducing power needed for palmitoyl CoA synthesis? |
|
Definition
NADP+ gets its reducing power from NADH produced in glycolysis,
2-from Hexose Monophosphate shunt pathway where G6P + NADP+ ---> 6-Phosphogluconate + NADPH,
3. 6-Phosphogluconate + NADP+ --> Ribulose-5-phosphate + NADPH.
4. Malate + NADP+ --->Pyruvate + NADPH
|
|
|
Term
Where does the acetyl CoA come from that's used in Palmitoyl CoA synthesis? |
|
Definition
Acetyl CoA used in Palmitoyl CoA synthesis from Citrate produced in the TCA of the mitochondria. |
|
|
Term
What is needed to produce Malonyl CoA? |
|
Definition
Acetyl CoA, CO2, acetyl CoA carboxylase + Biotin, ATP are needed to produce Malonyl CoA. |
|
|
Term
Where is the product of the rate limiting step in Fatty acid synthesis? |
|
Definition
Production of Malonyl CoA, where Acetyl CoA Carboxylase is the rate limiting step. |
|
|
Term
Biotin Carboxylase functions how? |
|
Definition
It takes HCO3- and produces CO2. |
|
|
Term
T/F, Transcarboxylase = ACC |
|
Definition
True, Transcarboxylase is equivalent to Acetyl CoA Carboxylase. |
|
|
Term
Beta-Ketoacyl-ACP Synthase takes ________ & _________ forming Acetoacetyl-ACP. |
|
Definition
Acetyl-ACP & Malonyl ACP are combined by Beta-Ketoacyl-ACP Synthase producing Acetoacetyl-ACP. |
|
|
Term
How is the rate limiting step ACC regulated? |
|
Definition
Citrate & Insulin bind to ACC causing it to polymerize = activation. |
|
|
Term
How does glucagon inactivate Fatty Synthesis? |
|
Definition
Glucagon & Epinephrine causes adenylate cyclase activity inc. cAMP causing phosphorylation of Acetyl CoA Carboxylase causing inactivation. |
|
|
Term
T/F high fat diet has the same effect on FAS and ACC as caloric restriction? |
|
Definition
True, both High fat diet & caloric restriction don't induce insulin, thus a decrease the transcription and translation of mRNA for ACC & FAS. |
|
|
Term
What enzyme is responsible for fatty acid desaturation? |
|
Definition
Fatty acyl CoA desaturase, in the mitochondria with the aid of Cytochrome b5, NADPH dependent Cyt b5 Reductase(FAD) & NADH. |
|
|
Term
T/F elongation of fatty acids takes place in the mitchondria. |
|
Definition
False, fatty acid elongation takes place in the ER, where ß-ketothiolase, enoyl CoA dehyratase, ß-hydroxyacyl CoA dehydrogenase, and enoyl CoA reductase participate in elongation. |
|
|
Term
What is the main enzyme of triacyglycerol synthesis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Activation of phosphatidyl group or the head group with CDP yields? |
|
Definition
The formation of phosphatidyl compounds. |
|
|
Term
On phosphatidyl compounds Phospholipases selectively hydrolyze:
a-ethers
b-esters
c-Carbonyls
d-aldehyde groups
|
|
Definition
b, ester links are hydrolyzed by Phopholipases on phosphatidyl compounds. |
|
|
Term
CDP on either _________ or ________
activates either and promotes ________.
|
|
Definition
Nucleoside diphosphate on Diacylglycerol or an Alcohol promotes phospholipid synthesis. |
|
|
Term
This phospholipase acts on phosphatidylinositol releasing arachidonic acid, is rich in pancreatic secretions, requires trypsin & bile for activity, inhibited by glucocorticoids. It is:
a-Phospholipase A1
b-Phospholipase D
c-Phospholipase A2
d-Phospholipase C
|
|
Definition
C, Phopholipase A2 is inhibited by cortisol & is responsible for prod. precursor of prostaglandins. |
|
|
Term
I cleave ester linkages of plant tissue what am I:
a-Phospholipase A2
b-Phospholipase A1
c-Phospholipase D
d-Phospholipase C
|
|
Definition
Phospholipase D is found primarily in plant tissue. |
|
|
Term
I cleave ester links, I am found in liver lysosomes & alpha toxin of bacteria, I'm activated by PIP2 system & serve in 2nd messenger systems when bound to membrane. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Palmitoyl CoA & Serine preceed the formation of:
|
|
Definition
Sphinganine in the synthesis of sphingomyelin. |
|
|
Term
Ceramide + ___________ produce Sphingomyelin.
a-Serine
b-CDP
c-FAD
d-Phosphatidylcholine
e-none of the above
|
|
Definition
d-Phosphatidylcholine + Ceramide prod. Sphingomyelin. |
|
|
Term
Sphinganine + __________ produce Ceramide.
a-NADPH
b-FADH
c-Choline
d-FAD
e-NADP
|
|
Definition
d-Only the oxidation of Sphinganine by FAD & Fatty acyl CoA prod. Ceramide. |
|
|
Term
What is the univeral start off molecules of sphingolipid synthesis?
a-Choline
b-CDP
c-Ceramide
d-sphingomyelin
|
|
Definition
C- Ceramide can prod. the gambit of different sphingolipids. |
|
|
Term
Ceramide + UDP-galactose prod.__________. |
|
Definition
Galactocerebroside is prod. by Ceramide + UDP-galactose. |
|
|
Term
Ceramide + ________ prod. Glucocerebroside.
a-UDP-galactose
b-Phosphatidylcholine
c-UDP-glucose
d-PAPS
|
|
Definition
c-UDP-glucose + Ceramide prod. Glucoscerebroside. |
|
|
Term
Ganglioside is prod. by
a-Cerebroside + CMP-NANA & UDP-sugars
b-Ceramide + CMP-NANA & 1UDP sugar
c-Ceramide + UDP-NANA & 2UDP sugars
d-Ceramide + CMP-NANA & 2UDP sugars.
|
|
Definition
Ceramide + CMP-NANA & 2UDP sugars will prod. Ganglioside from Globoside, from Ceramide. |
|
|
Term
Glycolipids that contain Sialic acid = ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Accumulation of the product of Ceramide + CMP-NANA & 2UDP will lead to ________.
a-Gangliosidosis
b-Tay-SACHs Disease
c-Sandhoff's Disease
d-Gaucher Disease
|
|
Definition
B- Tay Sach's disease, the product of Ceramide + CMP-NANA & 2UDP is Gangliosides (GM2) |
|
|
Term
Guacher disease results due to accumulation of ___________.
a-Ceramides
b-galactocerebrosides
c-Sphingomyelin
d-the product of Ceramide + UDP-glucose
|
|
Definition
d-the product of Ceramide + UDP- glucose, because this product is glucose cerebrosides. |
|
|
Term
This is the only X-linked sphingolipid disease, where accumulation of _________ leads to _______ disease. |
|
Definition
Accumulation of ceramide leads to Farber disease. This disease is usually fatal early in life. |
|
|
Term
Accumulation of the product of Ceramide and Phosphatidylcholine result in _______. |
|
Definition
Ceramide + Phosphatdylcholine produce sphingomyelin, thus accumulation = Niemann-Pick Disease. |
|
|
Term
Accumulation of Ceramide + 2UDP-sugars, & symptoms of burning of lower extremity =
a-Krabbe Disease (Globoid Cell Leukodystrophy)
b-Sandhoff's Disease
c-Farber Disease
d-Fabry Disease
|
|
Definition
d-Fabry disease where Ceramide + 2 UDP-sugars prod. Globosides, and where burning in lower extremities are a symptom. |
|
|
Term
In Cholesterol biosynthesis HMG CoA is formed how? |
|
Definition
2 Acetyl CoA enter Synthetase enzyme prod. Acetoacetyl CoA, HMG-CoA synthase--->HMG CoA. |
|
|
Term
What is the fate of HMG CoA?
|
|
Definition
Under low cholesterol conditions it is reduced by HMG CoA reductase & 2NADPH producing. Mevalonate. |
|
|
Term
What is the fate of Mevalonate? |
|
Definition
Mevalonate + 2ATP prod. 5 Pyrophospho-Phosphomevalonate, which is decarboxyated to produce Isopentenyl Pyrophosphate. |
|
|
Term
Isopentenyl Pyrophosphate is isomerized to become _________ then__________. |
|
Definition
Isopentenyl Pyrophosphate is isomerized to become Dimethyl Allyl Pyrophosphate & Geranyl Pyrophosphate. |
|
|
Term
2 Geranyl Pyrophosphate ---> ________ which is condensed with NADPH to prod. _________ |
|
Definition
Farnesyl Pyrophosphate, Squalene. |
|
|
Term
Cholesterol is synthesized primarily in ________ & ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does plasma cholesterol differ from cellular/intestinal?
a-Ether bond at C1
b-Ester bond at C1
c-Ester bond at C3 w/Fatty acid in lipoprotein particles.
d-Ether bond at C17 w/Fatty acid in lipoprotein particles.
|
|
Definition
c-Ester bond at C3 w/Fatty acid in lipoprotein particles are typical of plasma cholesterol.
|
|
|
Term
The synthesis of HMG-CoA takes place only the mitochondria.
|
|
Definition
False, HMG-CoA synthesis takes place in the Cytosol, Mitochondria, and Peroxisomes. |
|
|
Term
Where does the synthesis of Mevalonic acid take place, and what is the significanc of this process? |
|
Definition
Mevalonate is produced in the ER, and it is the rate limiting step of Cholesterol synthesis by HMG CoA reductase, which is inhibited by cholesterol. |
|
|
Term
Release of PPi in Cholesterol synthesis results in:
a-increased solubility
b-reaction reversibility
c-reaction irreversibility
d-dec in hydrophobicity
|
|
Definition
c, release of PPi in cholesterol causes reaction irreversibility, this occurs in peroxisomes. |
|
|
Term
sterol responsive element binding protein (SREBP) is |
|
Definition
the transcription factor that regulates cholesterol synthesis, which is a transmembrane protein, has a DNA binding and SCAP domain. |
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of SCAP in cholesterol synthesis;
a-sense when intracellular cholesterol is low.
b-bind DNA
c-escort SREBP in the Golgi
d-transmembrane escort of SREBO in ER.
|
|
Definition
All except bind DNA, that is SREBP's job. |
|
|
Term
What allows SREBP to enter the nucleus after SCAP takes it to the Golgi Apparatus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An increase in the stability of HMG-CoA reductase is seen when
a-Intracellular Cholesterol is high
b-Intracellular Cholesterol is low
c-both a & b
|
|
Definition
Only when cholesterol is low is the stability of HMG-CoA reductase increase to produce cholesterol through correct folding in the the membrane of the ER. |
|
|
Term
HMG-CoA is phosphorylated by _____ leading to ______.
a-inc in ATP & Activation
b-dec in ATP & Activation
c-inc in AMP & Inactivation
d-insulin & activation
|
|
Definition
c, phosphorylation occurs by inc. in AMP, and Glucagon that stimulats kinase activity which dec cholesterol synthesis. |
|
|
Term
Mevaldyl CoA does ______ to HMGR activity. |
|
Definition
Inactivation of HMGR activity is caused by naturally occuring mevaldyl CoA and its synthetic mimics called Statins. |
|
|
Term
This drug blocks the absorption of Cholesterol at the intestinal brush border, however does not block the absorption of Triglycerides or soluble vitamins. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This drug block cholesterol in its synthesis and its intestinal absorption. |
|
Definition
Vytorin (ezetimibe & simvastatin) |
|
|
Term
Apo CII and Apo E are acquired from where? |
|
Definition
They are both acquired from HDL, and apo cII binds to lipoprotein lipase to hydrolyze triacylglycerol. |
|
|
Term
What is the function of Apo E receptors? |
|
Definition
Apo E receptors mediate uptake of remnant of chylomicron remnants & cholesterol enters liver cells. |
|
|
Term
_________ is unique to the nascent chylomicron. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How can you tell if a chylomicron is mature? |
|
Definition
It has a apoE and apoC-II added from HDL. |
|
|
Term
One structural feature of Chylomicron remnants is the lack of Apo E, and ApoB-48.
|
|
Definition
False, only the lack of Apo C II is indicative of Chylomicron remnant. |
|
|
Term
_________ functions in reverse transport of cholesterol to liver. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a characteristic of nascent VLDL? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the process of transforming VLDL to LDL? |
|
Definition
VLDL can transform to LDL by transferring apo C-II and apo E to HDL. |
|
|
Term
What is the site of drug therapy for increasing HDL? |
|
Definition
HDL is targeted by increasing apo-A1 synthesis. |
|
|
Term
HDL to VLDL & LDL transfer of cholesterol is mediated by cholesterol ester transfer protein (CTEP). |
|
Definition
And is the target of inhibition to limit high cholesterol. |
|
|
Term
How is cholesterol converted into cholesterol ester and why? |
|
Definition
Cholesterol ester is necessary for storage and this conversion takes place by the enzyme Acyl CoA cholesterol acetyl transferase. |
|
|
Term
Where are chylomicrons, VLDLs, and HDLs assembled:
a-gut lumen
b-cytoplasm
c-intestine & liver
d-liver and kidney
|
|
Definition
c- intestine is the site of chylomicron assembly and the liver is the site of VLDL assembly. HDL is assembled in both intestine and liver. |
|
|
Term
Cholesterol is used by the liver to produce ___________? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Micelles differ from liposome how? |
|
Definition
Liposomes are bilayered and Micelles are single layered. |
|
|
Term
What is the difference between transmembrane and integral membrane proteins? |
|
Definition
Integral membrane proteins are only integrated on one side of the lipid bilayer, vs. Transmembrane which traverse both sides. |
|
|
Term
The outer leaflet of plasma membrane consist mainly of:
a-phosphatidylcholine, sphingomyelin, and glycolipids
b-Phosphatidylethanolamine, phosphatidylserine, and phosphatidylinositol
c-Phosphatidylethanolamine, phosphatidylserine, cholesterol
d-Phosphatidylethanolamine, phosphatidylserine, phosphatidylcholine
|
|
Definition
a-phosphatidylcholine, sphingomyelin, and glycolipids is the constituent of the outer leaflet. |
|
|
Term
The inner leaflet of the plasma membrane consist of Phosphatidylethanolamine, __________, and ___________. |
|
Definition
Phosphatidylethanolamine, phosphatidylserine, and phosphatidylinositol compose the inner leaflet of the plasma membrane. |
|
|
Term
In 2ndary active transport, ________ is used to transport molecules.
a-Indirect Coupling of ATP
b-Direct coupling of ATP
c-Electrochemical potential difference.
d-none of the above.
|
|
Definition
In secondary active transport, c-Electrochemical potential difference is used to transport molecules across the cell. |
|
|
Term
In the Na/Ca antiporter, how many Na:Ca?
a-2:1
b-1:2
c-3:1
d-1:1
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Phlorizin is a drug used to inhibit which intestinal transporter:
a-GLUT 2
b-SGLT1
c-GLUT5
d-GLUT4
|
|
Definition
b-SGLT1 is the Na coupled glucose symporter at the intestinal lumen that is inhibited by Phlorizin. |
|
|
Term
Phoretin and Phlorizin inhibit the same transporter. |
|
Definition
False, Phloretin inhibits GLUT2 @ the basal surface, Phlorizin inhibits SGLT1 (Na/Glucose symporter) |
|
|
Term
_______ transports glucose and fructose, whereas _______ transports only fructose.
|
|
Definition
GLUT 2 transports both glucose and fructose, whereas GLUT5 transports only Fructose. |
|
|
Term
What is the correct order of the plasma membrane with the highest cholesterol content to the lowest?
a-RER ->SER->Golgi->Plama membrane
b-SER -> RER->Plama membrane-> Golgi
c-Plama membrane ->Golgi-> SER-> RER
|
|
Definition
c-Plama membrane ->Golgi-> SER-> RER, the trend increase as you go further from the nucleus. |
|
|
Term
Where on cholesterol is there a Hydroxyl group?
a-C17
b-C3
c-Both A&B
d-None
|
|
Definition
B-C3 contains the OH group. |
|
|
Term
Which carbon on cholesterol has an 8 carbon side chain?
a-C3
b-C15
c-C17
d-C1
|
|
Definition
C17, has the 8 Hydrocarbon tail. |
|
|
Term
Prostaglandins are synthesized by only a select number of cells, act locally, and have extremely long half-life and are store. |
|
Definition
False/Half-truth, Prostaglandins are produced by every cell of the body, act locally, have an extremely short half-life, and are not stored. |
|
|
Term
The action of prostaglandin endoperoxide synthase is ______of ___________ to yield PGH2. |
|
Definition
Prostaglandin endoperoxide synthase oxidatively Cyclizes free arachidonic acid to yield PGH2, which is the 2st step of prostiglandin synthesis. |
|
|
Term
Cyclo-oxygenase ____ is inducible and is expressed in most tissues. |
|
Definition
COX 2 is inducible following inflammation and trauma, its found in immunocompetent cells like leukocytes. |
|
|
Term
T/F COX1 is influenced by steroids, and is influenced by inc cytokines and bacteria. |
|
Definition
False, COX1 is not influenced by steroids, and is not increased by cytokines/bateria. |
|
|
Term
Dietary arachidonic acid/(linoleic acid) contribute to all thru COX1 except:
a-blood clotting
b-Kidney f(x) via PGE2 via inc. blood flow
c-pain
d-Stomach protection via PGI2 by prod. mucous
|
|
Definition
c-pain is not part of the physiological role of COX1. |
|
|
Term
all of the following describe PGE2 except:
a-development & reg. of different immune system cells
b-dec. of MMPs & dec. Apoptosis
c-Tumor promotion
d-Stomach f(x)
e-stimulate uterine contractions during labor
|
|
Definition
b, Matrix Metalloproteases f(x) to increase tumor promotion, it also increase periodontitis. |
|
|
Term
PGD2 --->PGJ2 cause tumor _______. |
|
Definition
inhibition, by decreasing MMPs & proliferation, and increase in Apoptosis. |
|
|
Term
During blood vessel damage, thromboxanes:
a-cause clotting
b-recruits WBCs
c-stimulate PGI2
d-stimulate constriction of Blood vessels.
|
|
Definition
Thromboxanes cause clotting, constricting of blood vessels at site of damage, stimulates PGI2 which causes blood vessel dilation at sites where clots should not form, but does not recruit WBCs. |
|
|
Term
Leukotrienes, a type of PG is related to asthma, how? |
|
Definition
Leukotrienes promotes bronchi constriction. |
|
|
Term
NSAID such as aspirin works by
a-irriveribly binding COX 1 & 2
b-binding Arachidonic acid
c-selectively binding linoic acids
|
|
Definition
a, Aspirin's acetyl group binds serine in COX's 1 & 2's active site blocking arachidonic acids entry. |
|
|
Term
NSAIDs
a-inhibit COX enzymes
b-dec PG's & Thromboxanes
c-reduce pain, fever, inflammation
d-all of the above
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is the NSAID Tylenol thought to work? |
|
Definition
Tylenol inhibits the activity of COX3 enzymes. |
|
|
Term
How is COX2 inhibitors selective for COX2?
|
|
Definition
COX2 enzymes have a side pocket in its active site, which contain a valine residue at position 523, this is not seen in in COX1. |
|
|
Term
Where does Amino acid's nitrogen go? |
|
Definition
The Nitrogen Amino acids go to f(x) in Transamination, Glutamate dehydrogen in producing ammonia, and in urea synthesis. |
|
|
Term
The carbons of amino acids.... |
|
Definition
Are used to produce pyruvate in gluconeogenesis, 2-Produce Acetyl-CoA-->FA, Cholesterol, Steroids, 3-Acetoacetate->Ketone bodies, 4-Succinyl-CoA->TCA, 5-2-oxoglutarate (alpha-KG)->TCA |
|
|
Term
Arginine & Glycine are used to produce:
a-Hormones
b-NO
c-SAM
d-Creatine
e-Cysteine
|
|
Definition
D-Creatine is produced from SAM reacting with Guanidino acetic acid (by transferring methionine group) which is prod. from arginine & glycine. |
|
|
Term
Catecholamines are produced from what amino acid:
a-arginine
b-tryptophan
c-methionine
d-serine
|
|
Definition
Phenylalanine is the precursor amino acid of Catecholamines, as well as Thyroid hormones. |
|
|
Term
NO is produced from what amino acid:
a-methionine
b-tryptophan
c-Phenylalanine
d-arginine
|
|
Definition
d-arginine is the precursor of NO. |
|
|
Term
T/F, Tryptophan is the amino acid that is used to produce the hormone Serotonin.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Phenylalanine is the precursor amino acid of S-adenosyl-L-methionine. |
|
Definition
False, SAM is based off Methionine
|
|
|
Term
Cysteine is based of which 2 amino acids:
a-arginine & glycine
b-tryptophan & Phenylalanine
c-methionine & serine
d-methionine & glycine
|
|
Definition
Methionine & serine are the precursor amino acids of Cysteine. |
|
|
Term
dTMP is built on:
a-arginine & serine
b-serine resynthesis
c-methione & serine
d-methionine resynthesis
|
|
Definition
D-methionine resynthesis is built into dTMP. |
|
|
Term
the inability to metabolize Phenylalanine results in? |
|
Definition
Phenylketonuria (PKU), which is an inborn error in AA metabolism, where Phenylalanine 4-mononoxygenase is defective in Using Phenylalanine+O2+BH4 to prod. Tyrosine or GTP Cyclohydrolase is defective in prod. BH4 from GTP. |
|
|
Term
Transamination uses ________ & aminotransferase. |
|
Definition
Oxo-(keto) acid co-substrate to transfer Nitrogen.
|
|
|
Term
When Pyruvate serves as an oxoacid when it recieves a Nitrogen it becomes ________.
a-apartate
b-glutamate
c-alanine
d-2-OG
|
|
Definition
Alanine is produced from pyruvate by amino transferase. |
|
|
Term
When Oxaloacetate serves as an oxoacid when it recieves a Nitrogen it becomes ________.
a-apartate
b-glutamate
c-alanine
d-2-OG
|
|
Definition
Aspartate is the amino acid prod. from aminotransferase from Oxaloacetate. |
|
|
Term
When __________ serves as an oxoacid when it recieves a Nitrogen it becomes glutamate.
a-apartate
b-glutamate
c-alanine
d-2-OG
|
|
Definition
d-2-OG is the oxoacid used by aminotransferase to prod. glutamate. |
|
|
Term
What is the fate of Glutamate? |
|
Definition
Glutamate is produced from transamination of 2-OG, it enters Glutamate Dehydrogenase to produce Ammonia which enters the Urea cycle. |
|
|
Term
What is the rate limiting step of the Urea cycle? |
|
Definition
The rate determining step of Carbamoylphosphate Synthestase 1 producing Carbamoyl Phosphate from Ammonia and Bicarbonate + 2ATP. CPS1 is upregulated by N-acetylglutamate. |
|
|
Term
What is the 2nd step of the Urea Cycle? |
|
Definition
The production of Citrulline by Ornithine Carbamoyltransferase, which takes Carbamoylphosphate & Ornithine to produce Citrulline. |
|
|
Term
The production of Arginosuccinate is found in what step of the Urea Cycle? |
|
Definition
Citrulline & Aspartate & ATP combined by Argininosuccinate Synthetase to produce Argininosuccinate, the 4th step of Urea Cycle. |
|
|
Term
How and when is Urea generated? |
|
Definition
Arginosuccinate divides into fumarate & Arginine. Arginase takes Arginine & H2O to produce Urea & Ornithine in step 5 of the Urea Cycle. |
|
|
Term
How is N-Acetylglutamate produced? |
|
Definition
Glutamate reacts with Acetyl CoA via N-AcetylGlutamate Synthase to produce N-Acetylglutamate, which f(x) in an Acute regulatory way. |
|
|
Term
Regulation of gene expression of CPS1 gene requires:
a-NAG
b-Acetyl CoA
c-Hepatic nuclear factors (HNFs)
|
|
Definition
c- HNF's regulate transcription of CPS1 gene, requires tissue specificity. |
|
|
Term
Excessive glutamine results in what CNS disease? |
|
Definition
Hypreammonemia, which is ammonia toxicity. |
|
|
Term
The product of Hippuric Acid reflects treatment of __________ by ___________. |
|
Definition
T(x) of Hyperammonemia with Sodium Benzoate results in Hippuric Acid. |
|
|
Term
T(x) of Hyperammonemia by Sodium phenylbutyrate/acetate produce_________. |
|
Definition
Sodium Phenylacetate/butyrate reacts with two NH3 to produce Phenylacetylglutamine. |
|
|
Term
What clinical manifestation can you expect from mutations in one Urea cycle enzyme e.g. Glutamate Dehydrogenase gene (GLUD1)? |
|
Definition
Hyperammonemia leads to serious liver failure, HI/HA syndrome. |
|
|
Term
How does GLUD1 mutation f(x)? |
|
Definition
This is a gain of f(x) mutation where glutamate dehydrogenase is not down regulated by GTP resulting in HI/HA, XS GDase in Beta cell-->HI, XS GDase in liver-- xs ammonia (no surplus glutamate to prod. NAG) & down reg. Urea cycle.
|
|
|
Term
Amino Acids the are used to make Pyruvate: GAS ACT = Pyrv |
|
Definition
G-Glycine
A-Aspartate
S-Serine
A-Alanine
C-Cysteine
T-Tryptophan
|
|
|
Term
Ace (Acetyl CoA) uses amino acids that have a TILL. |
|
Definition
T-Tryptophan
I-Isoleucine
L-Lysine
L-Leucine
|
|
|
Term
T/F Acetyl-CoA is used in all except:
a-TCA
b-FA synthesis
c-Cholesterol synthesis
d-Steroids
e-Amino Acid synthesis
|
|
Definition
Amino acid synthesis is not used by Acetyl-CoA. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Decarboxylation of Acetoacetate produces__________
a-pyruvate
b-Acetyl group
c-Acetone
d-3-Hydroxybuterate
|
|
Definition
C- Acetone is prod. by decarboxylation of Acetoacetate. |
|
|
Term
3-Hydroxybutyrate is produced by... |
|
Definition
Ketone reduction of Acetoacetate. |
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of Ketone bodies
A-energy for organs when hungry
B-When one can't metabolize glucose
c-nutrient for brain during starvation
d-during insulin shock
|
|
Definition
B & C, during starvation brain use Ketone bodies for nutrients and during diabetes, where the body can not metabolize glucose. |
|
|
Term
Succinyl-CoA is produced by VIT-M
Thus Suc = VIT-M
|
|
Definition
V-Valine
I-Isoleucine
T-Threonine
M-Methionine prod. Succinyl-CoA
|
|
|
Term
What process of amino acid catabolism uses Vitamin B12? |
|
Definition
The production of Succinyl-CoA by VIT-M amino acids by Methylmalonyl-CoA mutase uses Vit. B12 |
|
|
Term
2-OG is prod. by which amino acids? |
|
Definition
HAG -P
H-Histidine
A-Arginine
G-Glutamate
P-Proline
|
|
|
Term
What amino acid is used in non-invasive test for Folate?
a-methionine
b-asparigine
c-histidine
d-glycine
|
|
Definition
c-Histidine, is used in non-invasive test for folate, b/c if folate works formininoglutamate will form ---> tetrahydrofolate-->5-formiminotetrahydrofolate. If there is a problem w/Folate Histidine will be excreted in Urine. |
|
|
Term
Phenylalanine prod. what hormones? |
|
Definition
Epi, Norepi, Dopamine, and Thyroid hormones. |
|
|
Term
NOS uses all except:
a-NADPH
b-Heme
c-FMN
d-FAD
e-GTP derivative BH4
|
|
Definition
F, all of the above, NOS use BH4, FAD, FMN, Heme, and NADPH. |
|
|
Term
Pulp congestion, edema, & necrosis is caused by what culprit during dental preps? |
|
Definition
NO, as well as increased mineralization. |
|
|
Term
Does NO signal use Adenylate cyclase? |
|
Definition
No, NO signals use Guanylyl cyclase which is soluble converting GTP into cGTP. |
|
|
Term
I limit vascular inflammation and limit thrombosis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
SAM is prod. from methionine + ATP, it serves as methyl donor for Creatine, Epi, Phophatidylcholine, & DNA methylation. |
|
|
Term
dTMP requires
a-Free THF
b-5,10 methylene THF
c-Resynthesized Methionine
d-none
e-all of the above
|
|
Definition
e, in the order of c, a, b |
|
|
Term
Circulating THF exists as... |
|
Definition
5-methyl THF, methionine synthase removes the 5-methyl group producing THF. |
|
|
Term
What is the fate of a cell that does not receive extracellular signals?
a-survive
b-divide
c-hibernate
d-die
|
|
Definition
d-die, a cell will die when there are no extracellular signals. |
|
|
Term
Peptides & Proteins are examples of:
a-amino acid derivatives
b-Growth factors
c-steriods
d-Eicosanoids
|
|
Definition
Growth factors are peptides and protein hormones. |
|
|
Term
PG's & Eicosanoids are examples of:
a-Peptide hormones
b-amino acid hormones
c-steroids
d-fatty acid derivatives
|
|
Definition
d-fatty acid derivatives hormones are Eicosanoids & PGs
|
|
|
Term
Amino acid derivative hormones are:
a-PG's
b-Growth factors
c-Thyroxine
d-Progesterone
|
|
Definition
Thyroxine & Epinephrine are examples of Amino acid hormones. |
|
|
Term
All of these are examples of 2nd messengers except:
a-DAG & Phosphoinositol lipids
b-Ca2+
c-modified proteins
d-amino acids
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hormones suffixed with -ine describe:
a-steriods
b-Growth factors
c-Eicosanoids
d-Fatty acid derivatives
|
|
Definition
B, Growth Factors, are hormones ending in -crine. |
|
|
Term
I have no signal sequence & I am a growth factor of what type:
a-juxtacrine
b-Autocrine
c-Parcrine
d-Holocrine
|
|
Definition
D-Holocrine has no signal sequence and unknown mechanism. |
|
|
Term
Insulin is an example of what type of growth factor?
a-juxtacrine
b-Autocrine
c-Parcrine
d-Holocrine
|
|
Definition
E-Endocrine, b/c this peptide hormone is secreted from the gland into the blood stream targeting distant cells. |
|
|
Term
T/F Hypothalamus has it neurons in the highly vascular terminals of the posterior pituitary. |
|
Definition
False, the neurons of the hypothalamus ends in the anterior pituitary. |
|
|
Term
What is the job of the anterior pituitary? |
|
Definition
The anterior pituitary is the minion of the Hypothalamus carrying out its (rel.& inhibiting hormones) signals to systemic target organs. |
|
|
Term
TSH stimulates all except
a-iodine transport
b-thyroid peroxidase
c-thyroglobulin
d-none of the above
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Thyroid hormone regulation is a classic example of:
a-positive feedback loop
b-negative endocrine regulation
c-neutral feedback
|
|
Definition
b-negative feedback endocrine regulation is part of thyroid regulation. |
|
|
Term
Neurotrophic factors like (NGF, BDNF, and GGF) are what type of growth factor?
a-juxtacrine
b-Autocrine
c-Parcrine
d-Holocrine
e-endocrine
|
|
Definition
c-Neurotrophic factors are paracrine growth factors. |
|
|
Term
High binding affinity, induction of cellular proliferation, survival, and differentiation describe what signaling mechanism?
a-juxtacrine
b-Autocrine
c-Parcrine
d-Holocrine
e-Endocrine
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
I am a growth factor that affect hematopoietic derived cells. I am...
a-Interleukins
b-Cyclins
c-cytokines
d-juxtacrine
|
|
Definition
C-Cytokines affect the humoral & cellular cell of hematopoietic origin. |
|
|
Term
What is the range of IL's? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
I enhance activation of T cells.
a-IL2
b-IL1
c-TNF-ß
d-IFN-alpha
|
|
Definition
B-IL1, enhance activation of Tcells
|
|
|
Term
IL2 induces clonal expansion of _______.
a-Cytokines
b-Leukocytes
c-B cells
d-T cells |
|
Definition
D-T cells respond to IL-2 by clonal expansion, which would be stimulated by TNF-alpha. |
|
|
Term
How does the kidney influence RBC's? |
|
Definition
By producing Erythropoietin. |
|
|
Term
_________ is a drug t(x) of anemia.
a-tamoxifin
b-Vit.K
c-EPOGEN
d-Vit D
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Peripheral neuropathy is casused by...
a-diabetes
b-NGF deficiency
c-smoking
d-demyelination
|
|
Definition
b-NGF deficiency b/c loss of NGF prod. cells lead to peripheral neuropathies. |
|
|
Term
TGF-Alpha uses ________ signaling.
a-juxtacrine
b-Autocrine
c-Parcrine
d-Holocrine
e-Endocrine
|
|
Definition
a-juxtacrine signaling is seen in TGF-alpha signaling. |
|
|
Term
EGFR(Her-2) & EGF use ______ signaling and is seen in what disease?
a-juxtacrine
b-Autocrine
c-Parcrine
d-Holocrine
e-Endocrine
|
|
Definition
b-Autocrine, Breast cancer |
|
|
Term
Receptors that stimulate intracellular proteolysis:
a-Glucagon
b-Insulin
c-TGF-ß
d-TNF-alpha
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do the insulin receptor and Neurotrophic receptors have in common? |
|
Definition
The are receptors with intrinsic enzymatic activity. |
|
|
Term
T/F kinase activity is restricted to one site on the substrate polypeptide sequence. |
|
Definition
False, kinase activity is not restricted to one site on the polypeptide chain or just 1 kinase. |
|
|
Term
Kinases are all except:
a-contain consensus amino acids
b-expose domain buried in the protein structure
c-instrumental in formin new SH2 domains
d-Phosphorylate several sequence motifs
|
|
Definition
d-each kinase works on particular seq. motifs. |
|
|
Term
If protein synthesis is inhibited how will early response genes change activity? |
|
Definition
The normally inc then dec when protein synthesis takes place, since this won't occur Early response genes will remain activated. |
|
|
Term
T/F growth factors activate receptor tyrosine kinase activity. |
|
Definition
True, once bound ligand induced dimerization occurs, and autophosphorylation of tyrosine residues = activation. |
|
|
Term
The autophophorylation on the Receptor Tyrosine Kinsase recruits
a-Abl
b-Src Homology 3
c-Ras
d-SH2
|
|
Definition
d-Src Homology 2 is magnetized to the autophosphorylation of tyrosine.The protein has SH2 & SH3 domains. |
|
|
Term
SH2 specificity is achieved by A.A. directly N-terminal to pTyr. |
|
Definition
False, specificity is achieved by A.A. directly of C-terminal. |
|
|
Term
What is the consequence of SH2 proteins binding to RTK? |
|
Definition
SH2 domain proteins/GRB2 binds Sos protein which brings Ras & activates it, Ras-GTP activates MAP kinase which translocates to the nucleus activating transcription factors. |
|
|
Term
A V12 and N17 Ras mutant leads to .....
a-always active
b-always inactive
c-dead molecule
|
|
Definition
c-dead molecule, no effect. |
|
|
Term
__________ & _______ lead to the JNK pathway.
a-mitogens
b-growth factors
c-cytokines
d-cell stress
|
|
Definition
C&D, cell stress & cytokines stimulate the JNK pathway, (ERK pway). |
|
|
Term
The Ras pathway is the survival pathway. |
|
Definition
false, the Ras is the proliferation pathway. |
|
|
Term
Anticancer therapy targeted to __________ is seen in Gleevac
a-Ras
b-TK, Abl
c-Raf
d-RTK
e-MAP-kinase
|
|
Definition
Gleevac targets Tyrosine Kinase; Abl |
|
|
Term
_________ targets STAT3 is in anti-cancer therapy.
a-Gleevac
b-Nu2048
c-BAY439006
d-AG490
e-Gefitinib
|
|
Definition
d-AG490, targets STAT3 in prostate cancer. |
|
|
Term
________ targets RTK in anti-cancer therapy.
a-Gleevac
b-Nu2048
c-BAY439006
d-AG490
e-Gefitinib
|
|
Definition
e-Gefitinib, target and inhibits RTK. |
|
|
Term
BAY439006 targets ? in anti-cancer therapy.
a-MAP Kinase
b-STAT3
c-Raf
d-Ras
e-TK, Abl
|
|
Definition
c-Raf is the target of BAY439006 in kidney cancer therapy. |
|
|
Term
Nu2048 targets ? in anti-cancer therapy.
a-MAP Kinase
b-STAT3
c-Raf
d-Ras
e-TK, AblV
|
|
Definition
none of the above, Nu2048 targets intra-nuclear transcription factor Cdk. |
|
|
Term
Metabolic rate is influenced by all except:
a-stress
b-temperature
c-eating
d-physical activity
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the hypothalamus's role in metabolism? |
|
Definition
The hypothalamus regulates eating behavior. |
|
|
Term
Lesion to the ventromedial area of the hypothalamus results in
a-hyperphagia
b-hypophagia
c-high labido
d-low labido
|
|
Definition
a-hyperphagia or excessive hunger is the result of lesions to the ventromedial area. |
|
|
Term
Hypophagia results from______? |
|
Definition
Lateral hypothalamus lesions result in decrease eating or hypophagia. |
|
|
Term
T/F adipocytes secret TNF-alpha? |
|
Definition
True, TNF-alpha is secreted by adipocytes to regulate sensitivity of skeletal muscle to insulin. |
|
|
Term
T/F cardiac muscle uses glucose for fuel. |
|
Definition
False, Cardiac muscle uses only fatty acids & ketone bodies for fuel. |
|
|
Term
What organ contributes most to digesting proteins?
a-stomach
b-mouth
c-small intestine
d-pancreas
|
|
Definition
The pancreas secretes typsin, chymotrypsin, elastase and carboxypeptidases in the Small intestines, at the brush border is where most digestion takes place. |
|
|
Term
Ketone bodies come from what fuel source? |
|
Definition
Amino acids are the source of ketones, in ketone body formation. |
|
|
Term
What is the middle ground of blood glucose level? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What cell produces glucagon and what type of cell is it?
a-D cells
b-ß-cells
c-Alpha cells
d-exocrine cells
e-endocrine cells
|
|
Definition
Glucagon is produced by alpha cells, which are endocrine cells. |
|
|
Term
In what part of the pancreas is digestive enzymes and NaHCO3 produced? |
|
Definition
Digestive enzymes and NaHCO3 are prod. by the exocrine cells of the pancreas. |
|
|
Term
T/F insulin decreases the exocytosis of glucose permease molecules? |
|
Definition
F, insulin increases the exocytosis of glucose permease. |
|
|
Term
T/F only in ketone formation is amino acids used for fuel? |
|
Definition
False, when Glucagon is released, it in increases Protein breakdown & dec. protein synthesis, this occurs also in adipose tissue. |
|
|
Term
Increase in glucose oxidation is seen in:
a-glycolysis
b-gluconeogenesis
c-ketongenesis
d-protein synthesis
|
|
Definition
a-during glycolysis is where glucose oxidation occurs. |
|
|
Term
Which of these can cause Coma in diabetes?
a-acidosis
b-dyhydration
c-Hyperosmolarity
d-lactic acidosis
|
|
Definition
All of these can cause diabetic coma. |
|
|
Term
On a balanced diet what is the insulin:glucagon ratio:
a-2.3
b-25
c-17
d-6.6
|
|
Definition
a-2.3 is normal for a balanced diet. |
|
|
Term
After being hospitalized for having too much fun, I found a glucose IV tracked into my arm. What will my insulin:glucagon ratio be?
a-2.3
b-25
c-17
d-6.6
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Before going to the gym its recommended to ingest protein, how is this significant? |
|
Definition
Protein ingestion makes insulin:glucagon ratio jump to 17, which remember is a growth hormone. |
|
|
Term
All of these describe insulin except:
a-increased transport of glucose
b-inc. transport of amino acids
c-Stimulation of protein synthesis
d-inhibition of protein degration
e-inc mRNAs for Lipogenic enzymes.
|
|
Definition
All of the above describe insulin's actions. |
|
|
Term
Cortisol causes all except
a-increased protein breakdown
b-increase lipolysis
c-increase gluconeogenesis in liver, acting synergistically w/epi & glucagon
d-inhibit cytokine activation/anti-inflammatory
|
|
Definition
All are what cortisol's f(x), |
|
|
Term
Growth hormone is inhibited by:
a-Insulin
b-somatostatin
c-IGF
d-none of the above
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Insulin like growth factors are released from;
a-hypothalamus,
b-Anterior pituitary
c-Liver
d-kidney
|
|
Definition
IGF are released mainly from the liver. |
|
|
Term
Growth Hormone is anabolic all its processes. |
|
Definition
False, it is only anabolic in protein synthesis, it is catabolic in glycogen and fatty acids. |
|
|
Term
Cortisol synthesis takes place in what tissue and has affects on what organ? |
|
Definition
The adrenal glands is the site of cortisol production, and cortisol affects the liver inc. 4 gluconeogenic enzymes. |
|
|
Term
What is the starting molecule in hormone synthesis? |
|
Definition
Cholesterol is the starting molecule in the synthesis of hormones. |
|
|
Term
Pregnenolone is a steroid produced from _________ by ________.
a-pregestrone & 3B Dehydrogenase Isomerase.
b-17 alpha-Hydroxy Progesterone & 17 Hydroxylase
c-Cortexolone & 21 Hydroxylase
d-Cholesterol & Desmolase
|
|
Definition
d-Cholesterol & Desmolase prod. Pregnenolone. |
|
|
Term
3ß Dehydrogenase + __________ produce Progestrone. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___________ + Progesterone produce 17 alpha-hydroxyprogesterone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
21 Hydroxylase prod. _________ from _________(in the direct cholesterol path). |
|
Definition
Cortexolone from 17 alpha-hydroxy Progesterone. |
|
|
Term
11 Hyrdroxylse prod. ______ in the direct cholesterol path? |
|
Definition
Cortisol is prod. by 11Hydroxylase from Cortexolone. |
|
|
Term
Progesterone to 18 Hydroxy Corticosterone takes ___ ___ & _____ Hydroxylase. |
|
Definition
21, 11, and 18 Hydroxylase to prod. 18 Hydroxy Corticosterone from Progesterone. |
|
|
Term
What is the starter steroid in the synthesis of Aldosterone?
a-Cortisol
b-Progesterone
c-Pregnenolone
d-17 alpha Hydroxy Progesterone
|
|
Definition
b-Progestrone is the starter molecule in the synthesis of aldosterone. |
|
|
Term
How is 18 Hydroxy Cortisosterone converted to Aldosterone.
|
|
Definition
Dehydrogenase catalyses this step. |
|
|
Term
Where in the body is testosterone produced? |
|
Definition
Testosterone synthesis takes place in the Testes, testosterone effects muscle mass. |
|
|
Term
Where is estradiol synthesized? |
|
Definition
Estradiol is synthesized in the ovary & adrenals, it targets the uterus inc. its proliferation. |
|
|
Term
How many carbons do adrenal corticosteroids contain? |
|
Definition
Adrenal Corticosteroids are steroids with 21 carbon atoms. |
|
|
Term
What steroids compose glucocorticoids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
__________ is the only steroid with an aldehyde group @ Carbon 18.
a-Estradiol
b-cortisol
c-aldosterone
d-corticosterone
|
|
Definition
c-Aldosterone is the only steroid with an Aldehyde group at carbon 18. |
|
|
Term
These steroids have 19 carbon atoms
a-glucocorticoids
b-adrenal corticosteroids
c-adrenal androgens
d-testes androgens
|
|
Definition
Only Adrenal androgens produce steroids with 19 carbon atoms. |
|
|
Term
Produced mainly in the Testes.
a-Androgens
b-estrdiol
c-Testosterone
d-Androstenedione
|
|
Definition
C & D Testosterone & Androstenedione are produced in the testes. |
|
|
Term
All of the following compose Adrenal androgens except,
a-Testosterone
b-Esterone
c-Androstendione
d-DHEA
|
|
Definition
B, Esterone compose Adrenal estrogen an is a steroid w/ 18 carbons. |
|
|
Term
This adrenal steroid has an A ring with a 4,5 double bond. |
|
Definition
The only adrenal steroid w/ an A ring w/ 4,5 double bond is Testosterone. |
|
|
Term
This steroid has a phenolic ring. |
|
Definition
Estradiol is the only steroid w/ a A ring with a Phenolic ring. |
|
|
Term
What is the primary glucocorticoid secreted by the adrenal cortex? |
|
Definition
Cortisol is the primary glucocorticoid secreted by the Adrenal Cortex. |
|
|
Term
How does stress produce cortisol?
|
|
Definition
Stress-->Hypothalamus->(CRF)->
Adenohypophysis->(ACTH+)->Adrenal Cortex->Cortisol
|
|
|
Term
These Hydroxylase are located in the ER
a-17 & 18 Hydroxylases
b-18 & 21 Hydroxylases
c-17 & 21 Hydroxylases
d-11 & 18 Hydroxylases
|
|
Definition
c-17 & 21 Hydroxylases are located in the ER |
|
|
Term
11 & 18 Hydroxylase are located:
a- in the ER
b- @ the golgi
c- in the mitochondria
d-in the cytosol
|
|
Definition
the mitochondria is the site of 11 & 18 Hydroxylases. |
|
|
Term
Hyper-function of the adrenal glands cause & is called:
a-Cushing's Syndrome
b-Addison's Disease
c-Pineal Cancer
d-None of these
|
|
Definition
Hyperf(x) of the adrenal cortex cause moonface, virilism, and central obesity due to excess production of Cortisol & androgens=Cushing's Syndrome. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Hypof(x) of adrenal cortex (inadequate mineralocorticoid secretion) this causes bronzing of the skin, gums first. |
|
|
Term
Which protein transports sex hormones in the blood.
a-CBG
b-SHBG
c-Albumin
|
|
Definition
SHBG, binds and transports Testosterone & Estradiol. |
|
|
Term
What molecule is Diethylstilbestrol analogous to? |
|
Definition
Estradiol is the sex steroid the Diethylstilbestrol analogous to in binding to the estrogen receptor in the uterus. |
|
|
Term
CBP/p300 have anti steroid activity how?
a-bind and restrict steroid entrance to nucleus
b-methylate DNA
c-histone acetyltransferase activity
|
|
Definition
c-histone acetyltransferase activity is conducted by CBP/p300 to regulate steroid hormone transcription activity. |
|
|
Term
Tamoxifen is an antiestrogen that is most useful in .... |
|
Definition
Breast cancer patients who are positive for both estrogen and progesterone receptors. |
|
|
Term
I am a hormone that is insoluble in H20, bind cytoplasmic receptors, act in hours, and I affect transcription.
I am?
a-peptided hormone
b-ligand
c-steroid hormone
d-gas hormone
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does Eukaryotic DNA replication address RNA primer removal? |
|
Definition
Telomerase fills up 5' end, that was once a Primer. |
|
|
Term
PCNA = ?
a-repair factor
b-replication
c-processivity factor
d-none of the above
|
|
Definition
c-processivity factor is PCNA |
|
|
Term
__________ synthesizes primer RNA and very little DNA.
a-Polß
b-Pol-alpha
c-Pol-Delta
d-Pol-Sigma
|
|
Definition
b-Pol-alpha, synthesizes primer RNA & very little DNA. |
|
|
Term
Pol Delta & Sigma are:
a-primase
b-proofread through exonuclease activity
c-replication
|
|
Definition
b-proofread through exonuclease activity, and interact w/PCNA |
|
|
Term
Terminal Deopxnucleotidyl transferase, viral reverse transcirptase, and viral replication describe:
a-polymerase
b-telomerase
c-ligase
d-PCNA
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the equivalent of DNA Pol I in eukaryotes:
a-Pol-alpha
b-Pol-ß
c-FEN-1
d-RPA
|
|
Definition
c-FEN-1, in Eukaryotes removes RNA primers. |
|
|
Term
What is the Eukaryotic equivalent of SSB.
a-FEN-1
b-RPA
c-DNA Pol I
d-Pol-ß
|
|
Definition
b-RPA, is a single strand binding protein. |
|
|
Term
One strand rich in GGGGs, and CCCC rich in the other, composed of 6-10bp (2k-3K) describe:
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Telomerase extends
a-DNA at 5' end
b-degrades RNA primer & extends 3' end
c-Adds Nucleotide at 3' end
d-forms telomere strand from an RNA template
|
|
Definition
C & D, telomerase Adds Nucleotide at 3' end and forms telomere strand from an RNA template. |
|
|
Term
How does TdT differ from Telomerase?
|
|
Definition
Terminal Deoxyribonucleotidyl Transferase (TdT) adds to the 3' end of DNA, and so does Telomerase, however TdT does not need a RNA primer template, TdT does, TdT also can add to ds/ss DNA. |
|
|
Term
In Prokaryotic RNA Polymerase, which structure finds a start point.
a-Core enzyme
b-Holoenzyme
c-AUG receptor
d-IRES
|
|
Definition
Holoenzyme is a sigma subunit that finds a starting point. |
|
|
Term
_____________ elongates the RNA chain.
a-Core enzyme
b-Holoenzyme
c-AUG receptor
d-IRES
|
|
Definition
Core enzyme elongates the RNA chain in Prokaryotic RNA Polymerase. |
|
|
Term
T/F RNA polymerase elongates in the 5' - 3' direction in the positive supercoil direction. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
DNA synthesis occurs 5' to 3'. |
|
Definition
False, DNA is synthesized by the addition of DNTP to 3' end thus synthesis occurs 3'->5'. |
|
|
Term
In what direction is the overall growth of DNA?
a-5'-3'
b-3'-5'
c-both
d-neither
|
|
Definition
although synthesis is 3'-5', overall growth is 5'-3' |
|
|
Term
Primers for DNA/RNA sythesis must have
a-15 bases H-bonded
b-20 bases H-bonded
c-10 bases H-bonded
d-5 bases H-bonded
|
|
Definition
c-10 bases need to be H-bonded for a primer to be functional. |
|
|
Term
What is the function of Topoisomerases?
a-synthesize DNA
b-edit DNA
c-convert supercoiled DNA to relaxed form
d-seperate 2 parental strands of DNA
|
|
Definition
c-convert supercoiled DNA to relaxed form, is the f(x) of topoisomerases. |
|
|
Term
Bidirectional replication occurs in:
a-Plants
b-Eukaryotes
c-Prokaryotes
d-Archea
|
|
Definition
c-Prokaryotes have bidirectional replication. |
|
|
Term
The lagging strand:
a-has synthesis 5'->3'
b-Is begun with Short RNA primer
c-Moves in a moonwalking fashion in synthesis
d-Is slower than the leading strand.
|
|
Definition
all of the above are correct. |
|
|
Term
In bacteria, ______ excises RNA primer & gap is filled.
a-DNA polymerase III
b-DNA polymerase II
c-DNA polymerase I
e-RNA polymerase I
|
|
Definition
c-DNA polymerase I excises RNA primer, & fills Gaps between DNA. |
|
|
Term
RNA polymerase is elongated by ________?
a-DNA polymerase III
b-DNA polymerase II
c-DNA polymerase I
e-RNA polymerase I
|
|
Definition
a-DNA polymerase III, elongates RNA primer. |
|
|
Term
RNA primers are synthesized from ______.
a-RNA polymerase
b-Primase
c-DNAase
d-SSB
|
|
Definition
b-Primase, synthesizes RNA primer. |
|
|
Term
_________ decatenates replicated circles.
a-dnaA
b-dnaB
c-Pol I
d-Primase
e-Topo IV
|
|
Definition
e-Topo IV, decatenates replicated circles. |
|
|
Term
dnaB __________
a-Ori C
b-Joins DNA ends
c-Decatenates replicated circles
d-DNA synthesis
e-Begins unwinding
|
|
Definition
e-Begins unwinding DNA is the job of dnaB. |
|
|
Term
OriC is initiated by
a-dnaB
b-dnaC
c-dnaD
d-dnaA
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the replisome assembly composed of
a-primase
b-helicase
c-DNAase
d-Pol II
e-Pol III
|
|
Definition
A & E, Pol III and primase form the replisome assembly. |
|
|
Term
DNA ligase needs _______ to join small DNAs.
a-ATP
b-Mg
c-NADH
d-FADH
e-NAD
|
|
Definition
Both NAD or ATP serve as cofactors for DNA ligase. |
|
|
Term
Termination of prokaryotic replication occurs at:
a-UGA
b-UGG
c-TUS factor
d-UAG
|
|
Definition
c-TUS factor, is the termination signal for prokaryotes. |
|
|
Term
DNA Pol III has 5' to 3' exonulcease activity.
|
|
Definition
false, DNA pol I has exonuclease activity, but it is 3' - 5'. |
|
|
Term
ß-clamp's function....
a-DNA elongation
b-Nucelase activity
c-Binding protein
d-equivalent to PCNA
|
|
Definition
d-equivalent to PCNA, ß-clamp is the processivity factor which increase rate and length of DNA> |
|
|
Term
T/F RNA polymerase elongates in the 5' - 3' direction in the positive supercoil direction. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In Prokaryotic RNA Polymerase, which structure finds a start point.
a-Core enzyme
b-Holoenzyme
c-AUG receptor
d-IRES
|
|
Definition
b-Holoenzyme, is the sigma subunit that finds the start point. |
|
|
Term
___________ elongates the RNA chain of prokaryotic RNA chain. |
|
Definition
Core enzyme elongates the RNA chain in Prokaryotic RNA Polymerase. |
|
|
Term
The direction of RNA synthesis is
a-3'-5'
b-5'-3'
c-none of the above
d-both
|
|
Definition
b-5'->3' is the direction of RNA synthesis. |
|
|
Term
What are sigma factors and what is their purpose?
|
|
Definition
Sigma factors are prokaryotic transcription initiation factors that enables specific binding of RNA polymerase to gene promoter w/ A or G. |
|
|
Term
Termination of RNA transcription in prokaryotes is ...
a-A & Sigma factor
b-U sequence + Hairpin + Rho factor
c-G Sigma factor
|
|
Definition
b-U sequence + Hairpin + Rho factor is needed for prokaryotic RNA termination. |
|
|
Term
The promoter region recognized by RNA polymerase is
a-Pribnow box
b-TATA Box
c--10 sequence
d--35 sequence
|
|
Definition
all of the above, The Pribnow box=TATA box and its at -10. |
|
|
Term
Where is the start site of prokaryotic RNA transcription
a--35
b--10
c--1
d-+1
|
|
Definition
The start of prokaryotic transcription is at the +1 site. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Rifampin prevents RNA synthesis, by binding RNA polymerase and distorting its conformation. |
|
|
Term
Eukaryotic promoter at TATA box is at:
a-+1
b--10
c-+25
d--25
|
|
Definition
D, -25 is the TATA Box site in Eukaryotic RNA. |
|
|
Term
Eukaryotic RNA polymerase I =
a-mRNA
b-tRNA
c-rRNA
d-siRNA
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Eukaryotic RNA polymerase III =
a-mRNA
b-tRNA
c-rRNA
d-siRNA
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Eukaryotic RNA polymerase II=
a-mRNA
b-tRNA
c-rRNA
d-siRNA
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which RNA polymerase is resctricted to the Nucleoli |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
CTF, SP1, TFIID are...
a-enhancer binding transcription factors.
b-Transcription binding factors of Prokaryotes.
c-Transctiption binding factors of Eukaryotes.
d-None of the above
|
|
Definition
CTF, SP1, TFIID are transctiption binding factors of Eukaryotes. |
|
|
Term
mRNA is postranscriptionally modified by
a-methylation
b-methylguanosine cap
c-acetylation
d-demethylation
|
|
Definition
b-methylguanosine cap one of the posttranscriptional modification of mRNA.
|
|
|
Term
What are the steps of mRNA splicing?
|
|
Definition
1)-Primary transcript combines w/snRNPs (when folded=spliceosome)
2)-the 2'-OH of the A at the branch site attacks the 5'-p at the splice donor site of exon 1.
3)-the 3'-OH of exon 1 attacks the 5'-p of exon 2 at the splice acceptor site.
|
|
|
Term
What is the name of the excised intron? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
CCA are added to all
a-rRNA
b-tRNA
c-mRNA
d-siRNA
|
|
Definition
b-tRNA ends are added CCA |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Actinomycin D & Quinacrine are:
a-enzym specific drugs
b-substrate analogs
c-DNA intercalating agents
|
|
Definition
c-DNA intercalating agents
|
|
|
Term
Ara - C, and Ara-A are... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Amino acids are not:
a-optically active
b-have a tetrahedral alpha cardon
c-Naturally occur in the D form
d-None of the above
|
|
Definition
C-, amino acids naturally occur in it L form not the D. |
|
|
Term
Amino acid properties are determined by __________? |
|
Definition
The side chains of amino acids determine its properties. |
|
|
Term
Alanine(A), Valine(V), Leucine(L), Isoleucine(I), Proline(P), Methionine(M), Phenylalanine(F), and Tryptophan(W) compose what type of Amino Acid? |
|
Definition
Alanine, Valine, Leucine, Isoleucine, Proline, Methionine, Phenylalanine, and Tryptophan compose Hydrophobic amino acids. |
|
|
Term
Hydrophilic Amino acids are composed of __________? |
|
Definition
Glycine(G), Serine(S), Threonine(T), Cysteine(C), Asparagine(N), Glutamine(Q), and Tyrosine(Y) compose the hydrophilic amino acids. |
|
|
Term
The two acidic amino acids contain _____ groups? |
|
Definition
Aspartic Acid(D) and Glutamic Acid(E) compose the acidic amino acids and contain two carboxylic groups each. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Lysine(K), Arginine(R), and Histidine(H) compose the Basic Amino Acids because the contain more than one Basic group. |
|
|
Term
What are some rare amino acids? |
|
Definition
4-Hydroxyproline, 5-Hydroxylysine, Desmosine, sigma-N-Methyllysine, 3-Methylhistidine, and Isodesmosine. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where are the regions of buffering of an amino acid? |
|
Definition
The buffering region is seen around the pKs of the amino acids. |
|
|
Term
What is the primary structure of amino acids? |
|
Definition
The primary structure of amino acids is
a sequence of amino acids joined together by peptide bonds.
|
|
|
Term
Describe the peptide bond? |
|
Definition
It is between N and C, and is double bond in nature. |
|
|
Term
Beta pleated sheets, and Alpha Helix describe what about amino acids? |
|
Definition
The secondary structure of single interamino acid structure is seen as Beta pleated sheet, and or Alpha Helix. |
|
|
Term
What are elements of tertiary structure of proteins?
a-Disulfide bonds
b-Hydrogen bonds
c-Salt bridges
d-hyrophilic interactions
e-none of the above
f-all of the above except d
|
|
Definition
f, Disulfide bonds, Hydrogen bonds, Salt bridges and hydrophobic interactions between separate amino acids are elements of tertiary structure of amino acids.
|
|
|
Term
In a triple helix amino acid, what is the stabilizing force? |
|
Definition
The stabilizing force of a triple helix amino acid is found in the hydrogen bonding of Glycine on one chain and proline of another with 1Hydrogen bond per triplet. |
|
|
Term
Type 5 collagen is found in what tissues? |
|
Definition
Cornea, placenta, bone, and heart valve is composed of Type 5 collagen. |
|
|
Term
Endothelial & epithelial membranes are composed of ________ collagen. |
|
Definition
Type 4 collagen compose Endothelial & epithelial membranes. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Is found in intestinal and uterine wall tissue. |
|
|
Term
Nucleus pulposus and hyaline cartilage are made up of _________ collagen. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
bone, tendon, fibrocartilage, dermis and cornea compose.... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does one purify a protein from a cell?
a-disrupt cells
b-solubilize the protein
c-Gel filtration on Sepharose beads
d-Ion exchange chromatography
e-Affinity chromatography
f-All of the above
e-non of the above
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What process uses the size of protein to discriminate them. |
|
Definition
Gel filtration, and SDS PAGE utilizes protein size to separate them. |
|
|
Term
In gel filtration fractionation of protein by size, you expect _______ molecules to pass 1st. |
|
Definition
Large molecules pass 1st, as they pass quickly. |
|
|
Term
________ is used for For determining the the subunit composition and molecular weight of the subunit. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Chymotrypsin hydrolyzes ___________? |
|
Definition
Hydrophobic side chains are hydrolyzed by chymotrypsin. |
|
|
Term
Trypsin hydrolyzes:
a-Hydrophobic side chains
b-Lysine only
c-Arginine only
d-A,B, and C
e-B & C
|
|
Definition
Lysine and arginine side chains are only hydrolyzed by trypsin. |
|
|
Term
Chymotrypsin and trypsin are used in what analysis process?
a-Sanger DNA sequencing
b-Edman degradation
c-SDS PAGE
d-Gel Filtration
|
|
Definition
B, Edman degradation utilizes chymotrypsin, and trypsin hydrolysis in sequencing amino acid |
|
|
Term
What is normal blood glucose concentration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hypoglycemia will result in a individual with blood glucose below ________. |
|
Definition
Below 45mg/dL will result in hypoglycemic shock(coma). |
|
|
Term
What blood glucose concentration will result in diabetes & its diseases? |
|
Definition
A persistent blood glucose level above 125 mg/dL will result in diabetes. |
|
|
Term
The correct sequence of insulin processing is:
a-Proinsulin + signal peptide, C-peptide + insulin, preproinsulin
b-Preproinsulin, C-peptide + insulin, Proinsulin + signal peptide
c-Preproinsulin, proinsulin + signal peptide + C-peptide + insulin.
|
|
Definition
C- Preproinsulin, proinsulin + signal peptide (N-terminal) + C-peptide + insulin |
|
|
Term
How does insulin react with its receptor? |
|
Definition
Insulin causes dimerization & aggregation of the receptor. |
|
|
Term
What is the consequence of the receptor dimerization & aggregation of the insulin receptor? |
|
Definition
The insulin receptor when dimerizes autophosphorylates effector proteins. |
|
|
Term
Anti glucagon effects include all but:
a-inc in protein tyrosine kinase
b-Phosphoprotein phosphatase dec
c-phosphodiesterase is inc
d-GTPase is inc
|
|
Definition
d- Phosphoprotein phosphatase increase in insulin receptor activation which has anti-glucagon effects. |
|
|
Term
Insulin recruits GLUT 1 to the plasma membrane. |
|
Definition
False GLUT4 is stimulated by insulin to move to the plasma membrane. |
|
|
Term
Once insulin binds to its receptor it stays there until enough glucose has been absorbed and is released from the receptor. |
|
Definition
False, insulin undergoes receptor internalization and degradation, which leads to desensitization. |
|
|
Term
Plasma insulin in response to oral glucose has ____ phases of synthesis.
a-1
b-2
c-3
d-4
e-0
|
|
Definition
b-2 phases of synthesis is seen in insulin synthesis. |
|
|
Term
What is the reason behind the 1st phase of insulin synthesis?
|
|
Definition
The 1st phase is caused by insulin secretion initiated by inc ATP/ADP ratio w/i the cell which close ATP sensitive K channels causing depolarization of the cell. This voltage change opens Ca channel, influxing Calcium causing release of insulin packaged into secretory vesicle in the golgi = Short 1st phase. |
|
|
Term
How do the two phases of insulin synthesis differ? |
|
Definition
Phase 1= ATP dependent K and Ca induced is short.
Phase 2=cytosolic long chain fatty acyl CoA, using Diacyl glycerol & PKC signaling, induction is prolonged.
|
|
|
Term
Diabetes is classified in ______ ways. |
|
Definition
4, gestational, other, Type 2, and Type 1.
|
|
|
Term
Which type of diabetes is autoimmune destruction of Beta cells? |
|
Definition
Type 1, insulin is absent here. |
|
|
Term
After sending unheeded messages to take up glucose, I just gave up.
What cell am I?
|
|
Definition
beta cell in diabetes type 2, where insulin resistance leads to Beta cell failure. |
|
|
Term
What type of diabetes commonly cause keto acidosis? |
|
Definition
Type 1 Diabetes commonly cause keto acidosis. |
|
|
Term
Which of these are most probable sites of insulin resistance in diabetes?
a-prereceptor where insulin receptor antibodies
b-decrease # of insulin receptors
c-post receptor, where defects in signal transduction, dec IRS-1 level
d-glucose transport
|
|
Definition
c-post receptor is the site of insulin resistance, where defects in signal transduction, defects in tyrosine phosphorylation, red. IRS-1 level, dec phosphatidylinositol 3 kinase, dec pyruvate dehydrogenase or glycogen synthase. |
|
|
Term
High hemoglobin A1c or hbA1c = |
|
Definition
High glucose concentration (hyperglycemia) which is common in diabetic patients, isulin should be administered here. |
|
|
Term
An hbA1c of 7% says what about the diabetic status of this patient? |
|
Definition
hbA1c of 7% = poor control of diabetes. |
|
|
Term
How does lack of insulin result in acidosis? |
|
Definition
Lack of insulin induces glucagon to stimulate increased lipolysis-->increased ketogenesis-->Ketonemia-->Acidosis--> Compensetory hyperventilation. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of dehydration in diabetics? |
|
Definition
Inc gluconeogenesis & Dec glucose uptake-->Hyperglycemia-->glycosuria-->osmotic diuresis--->dehydration. |
|
|
Term
_______ & _______ lead to ketone body formation how?
|
|
Definition
Diabetes & Starvation lead to excess Fatty acid oxidation, 2Acetyl CoA combine to form Acetoacetyl-CoA-->ß-Hydroxy-ß-methyl Glutaryl-CoA=(HMG-CoA)-->Acetoacetate--->Acetone + CO2 and/or D-ß-hydroxybutyrate. |
|
|
Term
All of these are major long term complications of diabetes except:
a-Retinopathy
b-Macroangiopathy
c-Nephropathy
d-Periodontitis
e-Diabetic foot
f-Diarrhea & impotence
g-exema
|
|
Definition
g-exema is not a complication of diabetes. |
|
|
Term
In periodonatal Disease the patient posses plaque, tartar, ______ & ___.
a-inc alveolar bone length
b-PMNs
c-reduced bone level
d-increased gingival pocket
|
|
Definition
c&d, increased gingival pocket. |
|
|
Term
t/f, pregnancy can cause periodontal disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In periodontal disease attachment loss & probing depth is attributable to:
a-poor hygeine
b-genetics
c-degree of disease
d-diabetes
|
|
Definition
B, genetics is the main player of periodontal attachment loss & probing depth in periodontal disease. |
|
|
Term
_______ stimulates Osteoclast progenitor with_________ & _______ to become _______. |
|
Definition
Osteoblasts / stromal cell, M-CSF & RANKL, Osteoclast. |
|
|
Term
1.5 - 2 ATP is the biochemical worth of what reduced co-enzyme?
a-NADH & H+
b-FADH2
c-GTPH
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Fatty acid oxidation takes place:
a-Cytosol
b-extracellular
c-Intra-nuclear
d-Mitochondrion
|
|
Definition
D, mitochondria is the site of Fatty acid oxidation. |
|
|
Term
How does electrons enter the mitochondria from the cytosol. |
|
Definition
Electrons carried by NADH are transferred to the mitochondria by electron shuttles, i.e. glycerol phosphate shuttle and malate-apartate shuttle. |
|
|
Term
How does the glycerol phosphate shuttle work? |
|
Definition
In the cytosol, 1) glycerol 3-phosphate dehydrogenase catalyzes reduction of Dihydroxyacetone phosphate by NADH, 2)-Glycerol Phosphate catalyzes transfer of electrons from Glycerol 3-Phosphate to FAD. 3)-Reduced FAD is oxidized by complex 2 in the electron transport chain. |
|
|
Term
How does the Malate-Aspartate shuttle work? |
|
Definition
1-Oxaloacetate is converted to Malate by Cytosolic malate dehydrogenase & NADH + H+, Malate enters the mitochondrial matrix reacting with NAD+ & Mitochondrial malate dehydrogennase producing NADH+ H+ and Oxaloacetate, NADH & H+ enter the electron-transport chain. Oxaloacetate leaves the matrix by entering Amino transferase with Glutamate to produce Alpha-ketoglutarate & Aspartate which can both leave the matrix. |
|
|
Term
How much energy does anaerobic glycolysis produce? |
|
Definition
Anaerobic glycolysis produces 2 ATP and 2 molecules of Lactic acid. |
|
|
Term
Hydrolase activity is seen in what organelle?
a-mitochondrion
b-nucleus
c-lysosome
d-plasma membrane
|
|
Definition
Lysosomes are the sites of hydrolase activity. |
|
|
Term
Oxidation of very long fatty acids occur in the mitochondrion.
|
|
Definition
False, long fatty acids are oxidized in peroxisomes, i.e. perioxidation. |
|
|
Term
Protein synthesis occurs in what organelle? |
|
Definition
The ER is the site of protein synthesis and xenobiotic metabolism. |
|
|
Term
The complete oxidation of glucose to CO2 = ? |
|
Definition
2 ATP, 2GTP, 10NADH, and 2FADH |
|
|
Term
The golgi is the site of ________ & _________. |
|
Definition
Glycosylation & sulfation |
|
|
Term
What is the bioenergetic worth of Reduced coenzyme = NADH? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The mechanism of irreversible inhibitors are through _________. |
|
Definition
Covalent binding at the active site of enzyme is the mechanism of Irreversible inhibition of enzymes. |
|
|
Term
In drug design competitive inhibitors increases both Km and Vmax. |
|
Definition
False, only Km is increased by competitive inhibition not Vmax. |
|
|
Term
para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) is used in function as a coenzyme in the conversion of certain chemical intermediates to purines. What is PABA's competitive inhibitor. |
|
Definition
PABA is inhibited by Sulfanilamide which is its anti-metabolite. |
|
|
Term
Adenine is competitively inhibited by? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Anti-cancer therapy through competitive inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase is produced by..... |
|
Definition
Methotrexate is the competetive with 5,6,7,8-Tetrahydrofolate in inhibiting Dihydrofolate reductase. |
|
|
Term
Collagenase competitive inhibition for the control of periodontal disease is performed through what drug? |
|
Definition
Doxycycline competitively inhibits collagenase. |
|
|
Term
Mozenavir & Tipranavir are drugs given to ______? |
|
Definition
Treat HIV, through competitive inhibition of HIV protease. |
|
|
Term
Xanthine oxidase is the enzyme made famous by its participation in gout, its inhibited by:
a-AZT
b-Doxycycline
c-Tipranavir
d-Methotrexate
e-Allopurinol
|
|
Definition
E, Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase competitively. |
|
|
Term
The Km on the graph of an enzyme that is competitively inhibited would _________? |
|
Definition
increase to the right in a normal graph, but will become more negative in the linweaver-burke plot. |
|
|
Term
In a noncompetitive inhibition, how would the graph Vmax and Km look? |
|
Definition
In a noncompetitive inhibition, only Vmax is shifted, in the normal plot it is shifted downward(dec) in the Y-axis, in the lineweaver-burke plot 1/Vmax is shifted upward on the y axis. Km & 1/Km remains the same. |
|
|
Term
Flouride is a ____________ inhibitor of enolase. |
|
Definition
Flouride is a non-compeptitive inhibitor. |
|
|
Term
Non-nucleoside drugs are inhibitors of what type of HIV RT? |
|
Definition
Non-nucleoside drugs are non-competitive inhibitors of RT. |
|
|
Term
Penicillin is an example of a non-competitive inhibitor.
|
|
Definition
False, Penicillin & Amoxicillin is an irreversible inhibitor of glycopeptide transpeptidase where the reactive peptide bond on the Beta-lactam ring causes the covalent bond of irreversibility. |
|
|
Term
Augmentin is composed of what drugs, what do they do? |
|
Definition
Amoxicillin and Clavulinic acid compose Augmentin, Amoxicillin is an irreversible inhibitor of glycopeptide transpeptidse, and Clavulinic acid irreversibly inhibits Beta-lactamase. |
|
|
Term
Elastase is significant how? |
|
Definition
It is the protein that is pivital in Emphysema that is inhibited irreversibly no more by deficient Alpha 1 antitrypsin. |
|
|
Term
Aceytcholinesterase is irreversibly inhibited by________? |
|
Definition
Sarin (Nerve gas) irreversibly inhibits acetylcholinesterase. |
|
|
Term
5-Fluorouricil is an irreversible inhibitor of:
a-aceylchlnesterase
b-glycopeptide transpeptidase
c-dihydrofolate reductase
d-thymidylate synthetase
|
|
Definition
d, thymidylate synthetase is one target for anti-cancer therapy where 5-Fluorouracil irreversibly binds it. |
|
|
Term
Chronic Periodontitis is treated by
a-Penicilln
b-doxycilin
c-sarin
d-minocycline
|
|
Definition
d, minocycline is an enzyme inhibitor used clinically to treat chronic periodontitis. |
|
|
Term
True/False Ribozymes are proteins? |
|
Definition
False, Ribozymes are non-protein enzymes. |
|
|
Term
What enzyme lowers the activation energy of respiration and how? |
|
Definition
Carbonic Anydrase lowers the activation energy of respiration in the lungs by converting bicarbonate and H+ to CO2 & H2O. In repsiring tissue CA converts CO2 & H2O into bicarbonate and H+. |
|
|
Term
What reaction does Carbonic Anhydrase catalyze in respiratory tissue? |
|
Definition
CA catalyzes CO2 and H2O into HCO3+ and H+. |
|
|
Term
How does specific activity differ from turnover number of enzyme? |
|
Definition
both calculate mole of substrate converted too product by specific activity = per unit time/mg protein, and turnover # = per mole of active site. |
|
|
Term
What is a holoenzyme composed of?
a-Rybozyme
b-apoenzyme
c-cofactor
d-coenzyme
e-A&B
f-B&D
g-A&C
|
|
Definition
Holoenzyme is active form of an apoenzyme that has bound its coenzyme. |
|
|
Term
How do coenzyme and cofactors affect the inactive enzyme to make them active? |
|
Definition
Coenzymes and cofactors alter the conformation around the active site of the enzyme activating it. |
|
|
Term
What is the activation energy? |
|
Definition
Activation energy is the energy required to convert 1 mole of substrate to the activated complex. |
|
|
Term
_________ is the sole determinant whether the reaction will proceed in the direction written. |
|
Definition
Free Energy, is negative for spontaneous reaction. |
|
|
Term
Standard free energy change can be used to_________? |
|
Definition
Determine Keq., is zero when Keq=1, and neg. when Keq < 1. |
|
|
Term
How do you calculated the free energy? |
|
Definition
Free energy = Standard Free Energy + 2.303RT x log[P]/[S] |
|
|
Term
Proteolytic cleavage of _____ leads to active enzymes. |
|
Definition
Proenzymes/zymogens, e.g. pepsinogen to pepsin, & coagulation cascade; fibrinogen ->fibrin. |
|
|
Term
A covalent modification of a protein that may increase or decrease its activity is _______ |
|
Definition
Phosphorylation by Kinases or dephosphorylation by Phosphatases covalently modify proteins. |
|
|
Term
PKA activation by cAMP is an example of:
a-Covalent modification
b-Protein-protein interaction
c-proteolytic cleavage
d-none of the above
|
|
Definition
Protein-protein interaction is seen in PKA activation by cAMP. |
|
|
Term
__________ is an enzyme that is inhibited by end product. |
|
Definition
Allosteric enzymes are enzymes that usually begin a cascade of reactions where end product neg. feedbacks by allosterically inhibiting the enzyme. |
|
|
Term
Which is not correct about allosteric enzymes?
a-can be down regulated by allosteric inhibitors @ constant [S]
b-follows MM kinetics
c-contain 1 polypeptide chains
d-none of the above
|
|
Definition
b-allosteric enzyme does not follow MM kinetics. |
|
|
Term
What enzyme show allosteric behavior? |
|
Definition
Hemoglobin is classic allosteric enzyme, which shows positive cooperativity, and sigmoid kinetics. |
|
|
Term
A high plasma concentration of Asn/Apsaragine is seen in what condition? |
|
Definition
High plasma Asparagine is seen in Leukemia patients. |
|
|
Term
Km is a property of the concentration of E & S. |
|
Definition
False, Km is the property of only ES complex. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The mechalis constant is a ratio of the rate constants of K1
E + S ---> ES ---> P
<--- K3
K2
Where k2 + k3/k1 =Km=[S] @ 1/2 Vmax
|
|
|
Term
The efficiency of catalysis is measured by what ratio? |
|
Definition
Efficiency of catalysis = Vmax/Km |
|
|
Term
The Enzyme-Substrate complex is describe by..... |
|
Definition
The Michaelis-Menten Equation describes the formation of ES complex, where the maximal velocity when enzyme is saturated with substrate times Substrate concentration divided by the Michaelis constant plus Substrate. |
|
|
Term
Vmax is directly proportional to:
a-Km
b-[S]
c-ES complex
d-[E]
|
|
Definition
D, Vmax is directly proportional to the concentration of Enzyme concentration. |
|
|
Term
What are the steps of enzyme, substrate relation? |
|
Definition
Enzyme + Substrate leads to Enzyme-Substrate complex leading to Enzyme + Product. |
|
|
Term
What happens in the brain and liver when ATP is at 1.0mM? |
|
Definition
In the liver glucose will be oxidized at 25%, in the brain 100%. |
|
|
Term
What is the Lineweaver-Burke plot? |
|
Definition
Lineweaver-Burke plot describes the behavior of E-S complex like the mechalis menton equation, however its inverted.
The equations = 1/v =(Km/Vmax)(1/[S]) + 1/Vmax
|
|
|
Term
What is the wrong characteristics of enzyme kinetics?
a-enzyme activity increase with the concentration of substrate.
b-enzyme activity increases with concentration of substrate to a point then acts independent of [S].
c-Enzyme activity increase as it is cooled.
d-A&B
e-A&C
|
|
Definition
E, only Enzyme activity increases with concentration of substrate to a point then acts independent of [S]. |
|
|
Term
Where is the Km & Vmax in the Lineweaver-Burke plot? |
|
Definition
Vmax, or rather where 1/Vmax is located on at the X-intercept at the 1/S value of O.
1/Km is located where the Y-intercept is 0.
|
|
|
Term
Excess oxidation of fatty acids during starvation & diabetes = |
|
Definition
Formation of ketone bodies. |
|
|
Term
The need for oxidation of fatty acid does not begin:
a- when running more than 100 yards.
b-extended aerobics
c-by Heart muscle
d-during starvation
e-by diabetics w/low glucose metabolism.
f-when brain ATP is low
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is fatty acid oxidation? |
|
Definition
Fatty acid oxidation is the mobilization of fatty acids and there activation in the cells, transporting them to mitochondria and oxidation, excess oxidation =ketone bodies. |
|
|
Term
How is fat mobilized from adipose? |
|
Definition
Glucagon binds to its receptor on adipose cells stimulating---> Adenylate cyclase producing cAMP-->PKA--->activating Hormone Sensitive Lipase to Phospho-HSL hydrolyzing Triglyceride producing Glycerol & Fatty acid which is release into blood. |
|
|
Term
How is fatty acid removed from albumin to get inside cellular mitochondria? |
|
Definition
Fattyacyl CoA synthetase uses ATP & CoA to cleave Fatty Acid - FABP complex producing Fattyacyl-SCoA which enters mitochondria from cytosol. |
|
|
Term
Oxidation of fatty acids occur in the:
a-Cytosol
b-Inner mitochondrial membrane
c-matrix
d-outer membrane
|
|
Definition
c-fatty oxidation of fattyacyl-CoA occurs in the Matrix. |
|
|
Term
Where happens when Fatty acyl CoA meet Carnitine Palmitoyl Transferase (CPT1)? |
|
Definition
Fatty acid is converted into Fatty Aylcarnitine in the intermembranous space. |
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|
Term
Where is Fatty acyl CoA is produced? |
|
Definition
In the outer mitochondrial membrane lies Acyl CoA synthetase takes ATP + CoA + Fatty acid producing Fatty acyl CoA in the cytosol and is transferred into the intermembranous space. |
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Term
What process does it take for Fatty acylcarnitine to traverse the inner mitochondrial membrane and enter the the matrix? |
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Definition
Fatty acylcarnitine reacts with Carnitine acylcarnitine translocase which translocates it to the matrix. |
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Term
In the matrix, Fatty acylcarnitine reacts with ____________ in the inner mitochondrial membrane producing Fatty acyl CoA, releasing Carnitine. |
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Definition
Carnitine palmitoyl transferase 2 (CPT2). |
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Term
How many ATPs are produce for each cycle of ß-oxidation of Fatty acids? |
|
Definition
2 ATP for FADH2 & 3ATP for NADH = 5ATP/cycle of ß-oxidation. |
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Term
The production of 8 acetyl coA is produced in ___________ cycles. |
|
Definition
7 cycles of ß-oxidation produces 8 acetyl CoA. |
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Term
Carnitine deficiency is results in... |
|
Definition
Lipid deposits in muscles and fatigue. |
|
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Term
Hereditary fatty acid disease leading to extreme fatigue, perspiration, vomiting, coma, and death. |
|
Definition
Medium chain fatty acyl CoA dehydrogenase (MCAD) |
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|
Term
CPT2 is the rate limiting enzyme in fatty acid oxidation and is inhibited by Propionyl CoA. |
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Definition
False, CPT1 is the rate limiting enzyme and is inhibiting by Malonyl CoA. |
|
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Term
In Fatty acid regulation Hormone Sensitive Lipase activity is increased by:
a-Insulin
b-Epinpherine
c-Glucagon
d-Leptin
|
|
Definition
B & C, Epi and Glucagon increase HSL activity. |
|
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Term
|
Definition
Envelope protein on HIV connected to gp41; binds host CD4 antigen |
|
|
Term
What are the Inner layer HIV proteins? |
|
Definition
p17 Matrix protein & p24 Capsule protein |
|
|
Term
Where is p24 capsule protein located in HIV? |
|
Definition
Surrounds reverse transcriptase and RNA molecule |
|
|
Term
Gag encodes ________, __________, _________. |
|
Definition
Matrix, Capsid, Nucleocapsid proteins |
|
|
Term
Pol encodes _________, _________, ___________? |
|
Definition
Protease, Reverse Transcriptase, and Integrase protein |
|
|
Term
Env encodes _________, __________, ___________? |
|
Definition
Encodes GP160, which encodes Gp120 & Gp41 |
|
|
Term
Non-structural Genes in HIV are? |
|
Definition
VIF, TAT, VPU, REV, NEF, VPR |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Encodes 9 ORF, 15 proteins |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
TAT f(x) as an anti-terminator of transcription. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
NEF down regulates CD+ antigens & induces cytokines. |
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|
Term
CCR5 is a protein used by macrophage to do... |
|
Definition
CCR5 is employed by macrophage -tropic HIV in early stages (unclear) |
|
|
Term
CXCR4 (fusin) function in what way? |
|
Definition
CXCR4 is a G-protein-coupled receptor promoting infection fusion of CD4+ T cells. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
CCR2 is a Co-receptor, where mutation results in long term survival of HIV patients. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
binds to chemokines-RANTES, MIP1a, MIP1b, suppressing HIV's ability to infect cells, two copies of defective gene confers immunity from HIV infection; single results in delayed AIDS progression |
|
|
Term
Heperan Sulfate in HIV functions as? |
|
Definition
A macrophage proteoglycan the binds Gp 120 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Antigen on Macrophage that interacts w/HSP acquired by HIV |
|
|
Term
What are DC-SIGN proteins? |
|
Definition
DC-SIGN on macrophages recognises and binds to mannose type carbohydrates, a class of Pathogen associated molecular patterns PAMPs commonly found on viruses, bacteria and fungi. This binding interaction activates phagocytosis |
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|
Term
Galactocerebroside Receptor is used by HIV how? |
|
Definition
Galactocerebroside Receptor are used to infect non CD4 cells in brain and intestine. |
|
|
Term
RT Inhibitor Drugs - Nucleoside? |
|
Definition
Competitive inhibitors, DNA chain terminators = AZT, DDI, 3TC |
|
|
Term
RT Inhibitors Drugs - Non Nucleoside? |
|
Definition
non competitve inhibitors = Nevirapine, Delavirdine, and efavirenz |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
NonNucleoside (Viramine, BIRG-587) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
NonNucleoside (Rescriptor) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
NonNucleoside (DMP266, Sirstiva) |
|
|
Term
Azido -2,3 dideoxythymidine? |
|
Definition
Nucleoside class, (Zidoudine, Retrovir) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Nucleoside class (Didanosine, Videx) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Nucleoside class (Lamivudine, Epivir) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
AZT is phosphorylated b/c AZT-triphosphate, 2nd its incoporated into viral genome & blocks synthesis b/c 3' phosphate ester can't be formed |
|
|
Term
Protease Inhibitors work on HIV how? |
|
Definition
they act as analogs binding to active site of viral protease. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Saquinavir (SQ), Ritonavir, HAART, |
|
|
Term
Nucleotides come from which glycolytic intermediate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Fructose 6 phosphate forms what compounds? |
|
Definition
Amino sugars, glycolipids, and glycoproteins are formed from F6P. |
|
|
Term
Lipids are derived from _________?
a-amino sugars
b-Glyceraldehyde 3 Phosphate
c-phosphenolpyruvate
d-dihydroxyacetone phosphate
|
|
Definition
Dihydroxyacetone phosphate form lipids. |
|
|
Term
_____________ forms amino acids & pyrimidines.
a-dihydroxyacetone phosphate
b-fructose 6-phosphate
c-phosphenolpyruvate
d-glucose 6-phosphate
|
|
Definition
c-Phosphoenolpyruvate composes amino acids and pyrimidines. |
|
|
Term
In glycolysis, serine is derived from Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate.
|
|
Definition
False, 3-phosphoglycerate precedes serine. |
|
|
Term
alanine is derived from what glycolytic product? |
|
Definition
Pyruvate is converted to alanine. |
|
|
Term
Oxaloacetate is the source of .... |
|
Definition
aspartate, purines, and pyrimidines. |
|
|
Term
Succinyl CoA forms __________. |
|
Definition
Heme & chlorophyll are derived from Succinyl CoA. |
|
|
Term
Glutamate and purines are derived from alpha-ketoglutarate. |
|
Definition
True, alpha-ketogluterate forms glutamate and purines. |
|
|
Term
Fatty acids are derived from succinyl CoA. |
|
Definition
False, citrate are the originators of fatty acids. |
|
|
Term
Pyruvate Carboxylase produces... |
|
Definition
Oxaloacetate is produced by pyrvate carboxylase & CO2. |
|
|
Term
Pantothenate is a vitamin precursor that forms what carrier molecule? |
|
Definition
Coenzyme A is formed from Pantothenate, it carries Acyl. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
pKa + log [conjugated base]/[acid]
or -log[H+]
|
|
|
Term
Phopholipids are similar to triglycerides except for containing a polar head. |
|
Definition
False in addition to containing a polar phosphate head, phospholipids contain two fatty acids bound to glycerol backbone. |
|
|
Term
Phosphatidate is the group carried by what carrier molecule? |
|
Definition
Citidine diphosphate diacylglycerol is the carrier molecule of Phosphatidate. |
|
|
Term
Proteins are ingested from food to use what? |
|
Definition
Proteins are a source of amino acids. |
|
|
Term
Pyruvate binding to ___________ to form Oxaloacetate is an example of ___________ reaction. |
|
Definition
Carbon Dioxide, Ligation reaction via Pyruvate carboxylase. |
|
|
Term
Riboflavin = vitamin B2 is a precursor to what carrier molecule? |
|
Definition
FADH2 and FMNH2 is formed from Vitamin B2, both of which carry electrons. |
|
|
Term
Stearic, oleic, and palimitic acids consists of 18 carbons. |
|
Definition
False, Stearic and Oleic acids contain 18 carbons with Oleic acid containing 1 double bond. Palmitic acid contains 16 carbons. |
|
|
Term
Sucrose is broken down into? |
|
Definition
Glucose and Fructose (5carbon). |
|
|
Term
T/F D-Glucose is a reducing sugar. |
|
Definition
True, D-glucose is a reducing sugar. |
|
|
Term
T/F phosphorylation inactivates glycogenesis? |
|
Definition
True, phosphorylation inactivates glycogenesis |
|
|
Term
True/False as Bicarbonate concentration increases pH dec. |
|
Definition
False, as Bicarbonate concentration increase like during a meal to about 30mM, the pH rises to 7.46. |
|
|
Term
True/false insulin operates through phosphorylation mechanism? |
|
Definition
False, Insulin operates through dephosphorylation mechanisms activating glucogenesis. |
|
|
Term
Uridine diphosphate glucose is the carrier protein of ___________? |
|
Definition
Glucose, is the carrier molecule of UDP glucose. |
|
|
Term
Vitamin B1 / Thiamine is the precursor of what carrier molecule? |
|
Definition
Thiamine pyrophosphate is the carrier molecule of aldehyde which is formed from Vitamin B1/Thiamine. |
|
|
Term
What are some reducing sugars? |
|
Definition
Maltose, D-glucose, and lactose are reducing sugars. |
|
|
Term
What does a peptide bond consist of? |
|
Definition
The peptide bond consists of CO-NH. |
|
|
Term
What does Folate vitamin precursor form? |
|
Definition
Tetrahydrofolate is the activated form of vitamin folate, it carries one Carbon. |
|
|
Term
What does S-Adenosylmethionine serve as? |
|
Definition
S-Adenosylmethionine is a carrier protein for a methyl group. |
|
|
Term
What enzymes execute hydrolytic reactions and where are they performed? |
|
Definition
Hydrolytic reactions are performed by peptidases at the site of peptide bonds on the C-N site. |
|
|
Term
What is considered the futile cycle? |
|
Definition
The futile cycle is when both synthetic and degradative occur at the same time, this causes wasteful hydrolysis of ATP. |
|
|
Term
What is glycogen composed of? |
|
Definition
Glycogen is a polysaccharide of glucose which bonded by alpha 1-4, and alpha 1-6 links. |
|
|
Term
What is Lactose composed of? |
|
Definition
Glucose + galactose = lactose |
|
|
Term
What is the buffer in the oral cavity? |
|
Definition
Bicarbonate is the buffer in the oral cavity, its concentration is 1.3mM |
|
|
Term
What is the catabolic fate of glucose under aerobic conditions? |
|
Definition
Glucose under aerobic conditions is catabolicaly converted to Pyruvate. |
|
|
Term
What is the composition of Maltose? |
|
Definition
Glucose + Glucose = Maltose |
|
|
Term
What is the composition of Triglycerides? |
|
Definition
Triglycerides are composed of glycerol backbone attached to 3 fatty acid chains. |
|
|
Term
What is the fate of Pyruvate during non-strenuous exercise? |
|
Definition
Because non-strenuous exercise is aerobic, pyruvate would be converted into Acetyl CoA. |
|
|
Term
What is the fate of Pyruvate during strenuous exercise? |
|
Definition
During strenuous exercise under Anaerobic conditions Pyruvate is converted to Lactate. |
|
|
Term
What is the pH of saliva during non meals around 2mM? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of enzyme prosecutes the Addition & Removal of functional groups to double bonds? |
|
Definition
Lyases execute the addition and removal of functional groups to double bonds, e.g. Aldolase in taking Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate & Dihydroxyacetone phosphate to produce Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When ________ is high _______ pathways are inhibited. |
|
Definition
When ATP concentration is high, degradative pathways are inhibited. |
|
|
Term
When oral pH rises due to dental plaque how does the buffering system react? |
|
Definition
Carbonic anhydrase 6 produced by the acinar cells of the parotid glands converts bicarbonate to neutralizes the acid by producing CO2 and H2O. |
|
|
Term
• transformation of nutrients
• excretion of waste products
• energy transformations
• synthetic and degradative processes
are summed up in what process?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the amount of calaries does the hydrolysis of ATP yield? |
|
Definition
The Standard change in Free energy that hydrolysis yields is 7300 calories. |
|
|
Term
-0.32 volts is the standard redox potential of:
a-NAD+/NADH
b-1/2 O2/H2O
c-GTP/GDP
d-FAD/FADH H
|
|
Definition
NAD+/NADH has a standard redox of -0.32 volts, Oxygen is much less at +0.82 volts. |
|
|
Term
Where does oxidative phosphorylation take place and what are it's 1st step?
|
|
Definition
Ox Phos takes place in the inner membrane. In oxidative phosphorylation,
1-NADH reduces FMN of NADH-CoQ reductase complex giving it 2e-, 4H+ go from matrix goes to the intermembrane space. The electrons are transfered w/i the complex from FMN to Fe-S, these electrons are transferred to CoQ.
|
|
|
Term
Oxidative phosphorylation Alternative 1st step is? |
|
Definition
At Succinate-CoQ Reductase complex, where Succinate reduces this complex producing Fumarate, and transferring 2e- to FAD then Fe-s then CoQ. FADH2 also reduces this complex prod. 2e-. |
|
|
Term
How does the FADH2 reduction of Succinate-CoQ reductase complex differ than that of Succinate reduction? |
|
Definition
Succinate reduction transfers electrons from FAD->Fe-S->CoQ, however FADH2 transfers electrons straight to Fe-S. |
|
|
Term
What does CoQ do with the electrons it's received from Fe-S from Succinate, FADH2, or NADH? |
|
Definition
CoQ when it receives the 2e- from the electron carriers will pick up 2H+ from the matrix before moving to the next stop of this chain, which is at the CoQH2-cyt c reductase complex. |
|
|
Term
What occurs at the CoQH2-cyt c reductase complex? |
|
Definition
This is the 2nd step, where At the CoQH2-cyt c reductase complex CoQ delivers the 2e- to Cyt b, this causes it to release 2H+ from the matrix into the intermembrane space, the electrons are then transferred through Fe-S to Cyt c1, which transfers it to Cyt C. |
|
|
Term
Why does CoQ pick up 2H+?
|
|
Definition
It picks 2H+ b/c only neutral molecules can move freely w/i the inner membrane, it releases these 2H+ once its reached the CoQH2-cyt c reductase complex. |
|
|
Term
What does Cyt c do with the 2e-? |
|
Definition
This is the 3rd step, where Cyt c transports the 1e- to the Cytochrome c oxidase complex, specifically to Cu subunit. |
|
|
Term
How many electrons can Cyt c carry? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the 3rd step of Ox phos, _______ transfers electrons to Cyt a. |
|
Definition
Cu subunit transfers electrons to Cyt a, Cyt a transfers 2e- to Cyt b-Cyt a3 complex this causes 2H+ to shoot out of the complex from the matrix. |
|
|
Term
The transfer of electrons to Cyt b-cyt a3 is the ________ step at the Cyt c oxidase complex? |
|
Definition
The transfer electrons to Cyt b-cyt a3 is the 2nd to last step before, Cyt b-cyt a3 transfers 2e- to 1/2 O2 & H2 to produce H2O. |
|
|
Term
What happens to the all the H+ that has been building on the intermembranous space? |
|
Definition
Some will combine with OH produced by the OH/HPO4 antiport, most will go to drive the ATP synthase enzyme (3H+) down its concentration gradient. |
|
|
Term
_________ takes ADP & HPO4 & _________to produce ____________. |
|
Definition
ATP synthase take ADP & HPO4 & 3H+ to produce ATP & OH in the matrix, which is shuttled out the ATP/ADP antiporter. |
|
|
Term
Antimycin A inhibits:
a-complex 2
b-complex 3
c-complex 1
d-complex 4
|
|
Definition
Complex 3 is inhibited by Antimycin A. |
|
|
Term
Complex 4 is inhibited by Oligomycin.
|
|
Definition
False, carbon monoxide and cyanide inhibits
complex 4. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Binds and inhibits ATP synthase aka Complex 5. |
|
|
Term
Rotenone inhibits CoQH2-cyt c reductase complex. |
|
Definition
False CoQH2-cyt c Oxidase complex is complex 4 which is inhibited by CO & CN-.
Rotenone inhibits NADH-CoQ complex aka Complex 1.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
CoQH2-cyt c reductase complex is complex 3 which is inhibited by Antimycin A.
|
|
|
Term
What affect would poisoning your arch enemy with Atractyloside do? |
|
Definition
Atractyloside inhibits ATP:ADP Translocase/antiporter preventing ATP synthesis. |
|
|
Term
How does brown adipose make heat? |
|
Definition
It uses an uncoupler of Ox Phos which uses 2,4 dinitrophenol & thermogenin which dissipates proton gradient on inner membrane thus preventing ATP synth, but allowing energy release as heat. |
|
|
Term
Lebers Hereditary optic neuropathy & Leigh syndrome are.... |
|
Definition
Caused by hereditary defect in ox. phos which results in lactic acidosis & muscle & nerve pathology. |
|
|
Term
This process provides reduced NADP for synthetic reactions and reduces glutathione? |
|
Definition
Pentose Phosphate Pathway. |
|
|
Term
I have alpha 1-4, & branch points at alpha 1-6 at every 8-12 alpha 1-4 links. |
|
Definition
I am Glycogen, I have glucosyl residues joined by glycosidic links. |
|
|
Term
Amylo 1-4->1-6 Transglucosylase form? |
|
Definition
Branch points are formed by this branching enzyme. |
|
|
Term
The transfer of glucose from UDP-glucose to glycogen forms:
a-alpha 1-6 links
b-G6P
c-alpha 1-4 links
|
|
Definition
C- Alpha 1-4 links, which is executed by Glycogen synthase. |
|
|
Term
Glucose 6 Phosphate becomes Glucose 1 Phosphate by ______.
|
|
Definition
Phosphoglucomutase catalyzes the reversible product of G1P. |
|
|
Term
Which of these two proteins are inactivated by kinase activity?
a-glycogen synthase
b-PFK2
c-glycogen phosphorylase
d-UDP-glucose pyrophosphorylase
|
|
Definition
A & B Glycogen synthase is halted by kinase phosphorylation (due to Epi/Glucagon) preventing formation of new glycogen, however it activates glycogen cleavage by glycogen phosphorylase cleavage.
PFK2 usually inhibits gluconeogenesis but when PKA is high due to glucagon, its not.
|
|
|
Term
Ca in muscle stimulates _____ during contration. |
|
Definition
Glycogen phosphorylase is activated via Ca binding to the calmodulin subunit of Phosphorylase kinase causing glycogen degradation. |
|
|
Term
During strenuous exercise how is glycogen broken down? |
|
Definition
AMP produced during anoxia & ATP depletion activates glycogen phosphorylase. |
|
|
Term
What are the oxidative reactions of the Pentose Phosphate Pathway? |
|
Definition
G6P to 6-Phosphogluconate to Ribulose 5-Phosphate, catalyzed by NADP+, G6P Dehydrogenase & 6 Phosphogluconolactone hydrolase, and NADP+, 6 Phosphogluconate dehydrogenase. |
|
|
Term
Phospentose epimerase converts ___________ into Xylulose 5-phoshate. |
|
Definition
Ribulose 5-Phosphate, which precedes Glyceraldehyde 3 Phosphate by Thiamine Pyrophosphate & Transketolase. |
|
|