Term
| What portion of the brain is supplied by the anterior cerebral artery? |
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Definition
| Medial surface: premotor/sensory of legs and feet |
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Term
| What portion of the brain is supplied by the middle cerebral artery? |
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Definition
| Lateral surface: Broca's and Wernicke's area; Motor sensory of face and arms |
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Term
| What group of genes is responsible for skeletal development |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the classical clinical presentation of a thyroglossal duct cyst? |
|
Definition
moves with swallowing, midline neck
Often found in pt under 30 yrs |
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Term
| Which hepatic phase of metabolism is first lost by geriatric patients? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What hepatic phase of metabolism is mediated by cytochrome p450? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What are the 4 obligate aerobic bacteria? |
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Definition
Pseudomonas
Mycobacterium TB
Nocardia
Bacillus spp |
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Term
Which type of vasculitis fits the following description:
Necrotizing granulomas of the lung and necrotizing glomerulonephritis |
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Definition
|
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Term
Which type of vasculitis fits the following description:
Necrotizing immune complex inflammation of visceral/renal vessels |
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Definition
|
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Term
Which type of vasculitis fits the following description:
Young asian women |
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Definition
|
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Term
Which type of vasculitis fits the following description:
Young asthmatics |
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Definition
|
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Term
Which type of vasculitis fits the following description:
Infants and young children, involves coronary arteries |
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Definition
|
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Term
Which type of vasculitis fits the following description:
Most common vasculitis |
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Definition
|
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Term
Which type of vasculitis fits the following description:
A/w hep B infection |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What can prevent neurotoxicity in isoniazid? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What is the treatment for TCA cardiotoxicity? |
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Definition
| Alkalynize the urine (Soidum bicarb) |
|
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Term
| What is the treatment for theophylline cardiotox? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What is the difference between malingering and facticious disorder? |
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Definition
Malingering is faking for some kind of benefit (workers comp, etc)
Facticious disorder doesn't know why they are faking |
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Term
Which artery is damaged with the following presentation:
Aneurysm causing the eye to look down and out |
|
Definition
| Posterior communicating artery |
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Term
Which artery is damaged with the following presentation:
Aneurysm may cause bilateral loss of lateral visual fields |
|
Definition
| Anterior communicating artery |
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Term
Which artery is damaged with the following presentation:
Broca or Wernicke's aphagia |
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Definition
|
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Term
Which artery is damaged with the following presentation:
Unilateral lower extremity sensory and/or motor loss |
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Definition
|
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Term
Which artery is damaged with the following presentation:
Unilateral facial and arm sensory and/or motor loss |
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Definition
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Term
Which spinal tract conveys the following info:
Touch, vibration, pressure sensation |
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Definition
|
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Term
Which spinal tract conveys the following info:
Voluntary motor command from motor cortex to body |
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Definition
| lateral and ventral Corticospinal |
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Term
Which spinal tract conveys the following info:
Voluntary motor command from motor cortex to head/neck |
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Definition
|
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Term
Which spinal tract conveys the following info:
Alternate routes for the mediation of voluntary movement |
|
Definition
| Reticulospinal and rubrospinal |
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|
Term
Which spinal tract conveys the following info:
Pain and temperature sensation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which spinal tract conveys the following info:
Important for postural adjustments and head movements |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which spinal tract conveys the following info:
Proprioceptive info from the cerebellum |
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Definition
| Dorsal and ventral Spinocerebellar tract |
|
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Term
| What are the findings of Brown-Sequard syndrome? |
|
Definition
1. Ipsilateral UMN signs below lesion
2. Ipsilateral loss of tactile, vibration, proprioception sense below lesion
3. Contralateral pain and temperature loss below lesion
4. Ipsilateral loss of sensation at level of lesion
5. LMN signs at level of lesion |
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Term
| What is the most common site of a berry aneurysm? |
|
Definition
| Circle of Willis (anterior communicating artery) |
|
|
Term
| Where does the dorsal column-medial lemniscus tract dessucate? |
|
Definition
| Medulla (2nd order neuron) |
|
|
Term
| Where does the lateral corticospinal tract dessucate? |
|
Definition
| Caudal medulla (2nd order neuron) |
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|
Term
| Where does the spinothalamic tract dessucate? |
|
Definition
| Anterior white commissure (1st order neuron) |
|
|
Term
| What is the classic presentation of syringomyelia |
|
Definition
| Bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation (usually C8-T1) |
|
|
Term
| What are the cardinal features of Parkinson's disease |
|
Definition
| Shuffling gait, resting tremor, cogwheel rigidity, akinesia |
|
|
Term
| What are the classic signs of UMN lesion? |
|
Definition
| Hyperreflexia, Babinski sign, weakness, spastic paralysis |
|
|
Term
| What are the signs of LMN lesion? |
|
Definition
| Hyporeflexia, atrophy, flaccid paralysis |
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Term
| A man in his 40s begins to develop dementia and uncontrollable movements in his upper extremities. In what portion of the brain do you expect to see atrophy? |
|
Definition
| Huntington's disease--> cuadate |
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Term
| A male presents with involuntary flailing of one arm. What is the lesion? |
|
Definition
| Subthalamic nucleus (contralateral) |
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Term
| A 28 year old chemist presents with MPTP exposure. What neurotransmitter is depleted? |
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Definition
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Term
| A person cannot abduct her left eye on lateral gaze and convergence is normal. She is also having difficulty smiling. In was part of the CNS is the lesion? |
|
Definition
| Abducens and facial nerves; Pontine lesion |
|
|
Term
| A lesion of what artery can cause "locked in" syndrome? |
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Definition
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Term
| A 25 year old woman is involved in a motor vehicle accident. She initially feels fine but minutes later she loses consciousness. CT reveals a hemorrhage that does not cross the suture lines. What bone and vessel were likely injured in the crash? |
|
Definition
Temporal bone; Middle meningeal artery
(epidural bleed) |
|
|
Term
| A 40 year old man with Marfan's syndrome and HTN presents with a severe headache. A head CT is normal at presentation and examination of the CSF reveals numerous RBCs. What is the cause of this man's headache? |
|
Definition
| Berry aneurysm rupture (subarachnoid hemorrhage) |
|
|
Term
| An 85 year old man with Alzheimer's falls at home and presents 3 days later with severe headache and vomiting. What is the most likely dx and what structures were damaged |
|
Definition
| Subdural hematomal from ruptured bridging veins |
|
|
Term
| If the right vagus nerve or nuclei is damaged, to which side will the uvula deviate |
|
Definition
| To the left (opposite side of the lesion) |
|
|
Term
| If a portion of the right motor cortex that innervates the soft palate is damaged, to which side will the uvula deviate? |
|
Definition
| Since the soft palate fibers from the right motor cortex cross over to the left nucleus ambiguus, the uvula will deviate to the right (same side of the lesion) |
|
|
Term
| Which cranial nerves have their nuclei located in the medulla? |
|
Definition
| CN IX, CN X, CN XI, CNXII |
|
|
Term
| Which cranial nerves have their nuclei in the pons? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cranial nerves have their nuclei in the midbrain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cranial nerve is responsible for eyelid opening? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cranial nerve is responsible for taste from anterior 2/3 of tongue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cranial nerve is responsible for Head turning |
|
Definition
| CN XI (Spinal accessory n) |
|
|
Term
| Which cranial nerve is responsible for tongue movement? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cranial nerve is responsible for muscles of mastication? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cranial nerve is responsible for balance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cranial nerve is responsible for monitoring carotid body and sinus chemoreceptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What info is communicated at the nucleus soltarius? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What info is communicated at the nucleus ambiguus? |
|
Definition
| Motor innervation of pharynx, larynx, and upper esophagus |
|
|
Term
| What info is communicated at the dorsal motor nucleus? |
|
Definition
| Autonomic info from heart, lungs and upper GI |
|
|
Term
| A woman involved in a motor vehicle accident cannot turn her head left and has right shoulder droop. What structure is damaged? |
|
Definition
| Right spinal accessory nerve |
|
|
Term
| A 19 year old presents with a furuncle on his philtrum. His cavernous sinus has become infected. What neurological deficits might you see? |
|
Definition
Extraoccular movement: CN III, IV, VI
Hypo/hyperasthenia: CN V |
|
|
Term
| A patient has leftward deviation of the tongue on protrusion and has right sided spastic paralysis. Where is the lesion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient cannot blink his right eye nor seal his lips. Dx? What nerve is affected? |
|
Definition
| Facial nerve; Bell's palsy |
|
|
Term
| What are the muscles of mastication? |
|
Definition
Temporalis, Masseter, Medial pterygoid
Lateral pterygoid helps opening |
|
|
Term
| What are the endogenous agonists to the different opioid receptors? |
|
Definition
Mu-morphine
Delta-enkephalin
Kappa-dynorphin |
|
|
Term
Which medication fits the following description:
Opioid cough suppressant commonly used with the expectorant guaifenesin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which medication fits the following description:
Opioid used in the treatment of diarrhea |
|
Definition
| loperamide, diphenoxylate |
|
|
Term
Which medication fits the following description:
Opioid commonly used in the treatment of acute heart failure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which medication fits the following description:
Opioid receptor antagonist |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which medication fits the following description:
Non-addictive weak opioid agonist |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which medication fits the following description:
Partial opioid agonist that causes less respiratory depression |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 5 classes of drugs are used in the treatment of glaucoma |
|
Definition
alpha agonists
beta blockers
cholinomimetics
prostaglandins
diuretics |
|
|
Term
| What drugs are known for causing Stevens-Johnson syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Seizure drugs, Sulfonamides, -cillins, allopurinal |
|
|
Term
| How is barbiturate overdose managed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is benzodiazepine overdose managed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which anesthetic fits the following:
IV, a/w hallucinations and bad dreams |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which anesthetic fits the following:
Inhaled, SE= nephrotoxicity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which anesthetic fits the following:
IV, most common drug used for endoscopy |
|
Definition
Benzodiazepines
Medazolam + opioid |
|
|
Term
Which anesthetic fits the following:
Inhaled, SE= convulsions, seizures |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which anesthetic fits the following:
Inhaled, SE= hepatotoxic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which anesthetic fits the following:
IV, used for rapid anesthesia induction in short procedures |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which anesthetic fits the following:
Inhaled, used for rapid anesthesia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which anesthetic fits the following:
IV, decreases cerebral blood flow (important for brain surgery) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which anesthetic fits the following:
IV, does not induce histamine release like morphine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which anesthetic fits the following:
High triglyceride content increases risk of pancreatitis with long term use |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drugs are used to treat parkinson's disease? |
|
Definition
| Levodopa, carbidopa, bromocriptine, amantadine, selegiline, antimuscarinics |
|
|
Term
| What side effect is common to most all of the anti-epileptics? |
|
Definition
| Diplopia, sedation, ataxia, dizziness |
|
|
Term
| What are the toxic side effects of phenytoin? |
|
Definition
| Stevens-Johnson syndrome, Gingival hyperplasia, Drug-induced lupus, Hirsutism, fetal hydantoin syndrome |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of dantrolene |
|
Definition
| Inhibits Ca release from sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of local anesthetics? |
|
Definition
| Block Na channels by binding to specific receptors on the inner portion of the channel |
|
|
Term
| Which nerve fibers are blocked first with local anesthetics? |
|
Definition
Pain fibers:
Small myelinated > small unmyelinated > large myelinated > large unmyelinated |
|
|
Term
| What drugs can be used to reverse neuromuscular blockade? |
|
Definition
| Neostigmine, edrophonium, and other cholinesterase inhibitors |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of drugs used to treat Alzheimer's disease? |
|
Definition
Increase ACh:
Memantine = NMDA receptor antagonist
Donepezil, galantamine, rivastigmine = Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of sumatriptan? |
|
Definition
5HT(1B/1D) agonist that causes vasoconstriction, inhibition of trigeminal activation and vasoactive peptide release
Treats acute migraine and cluster headaches |
|
|
Term
| For what populations is sumatriptan contraindicated? |
|
Definition
| CAD or Prinzmetal's angina because it can cause coronary vasospasm |
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