Term
| What are 5 examples of encapsulated bacteria? What test is used to detect them? |
|
Definition
Strep pneumo
Klebsiella
H. influezae
Neisseria meningitidis
Salmonella
Group B strep
*Quelling's test |
|
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Term
What is the drug of choice for: 1.cardiogenic shock?
2.Anaphylactic shock?
3.Septic shock? |
|
Definition
1. Dobutamine
2. Epinephrine
3. Norepinephrine |
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Term
| Which antibiotics are used for narrow-spectrum anaerobic infection? |
|
Definition
| Metronidazole, Clindamycin |
|
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Term
| What portion of the Brachial Plexus is injured in Erb-Duchenne muscular dystrophy? |
|
Definition
Upper (superior) trunk; C5-C6
Waiter's tip (loss of abductors, lateral rotators, biceps) |
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Term
What pathology fits the following statement?
Elastic skin, joint hypermobility |
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Definition
|
|
Term
What pathology fits the following statement?
Enlarged, hard, left supraclavicular node |
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Definition
| Virchow's node (abdominal metastasis) |
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|
Term
What pathology fits the following statement?
Large bulls-eye rash |
|
Definition
| Erythema migrans (Lyme disease, Borrelia burgdorferi from Ixodes tick bite) |
|
|
Term
What pathology fits the following statement?
Strawberry tongue |
|
Definition
| Scarlet fever, Kawasaki's, Toxic shock syndrome |
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|
Term
What pathology fits the following statement?
Resting tremor, rigidity |
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Definition
|
|
Term
What pathology fits the following statement?
Rash on palms and soles |
|
Definition
| Coxsackie A virus, Rickettsia rickettsii, Syphilis |
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|
Term
| What cytokines are secreted by the two different T helper cells |
|
Definition
Th1: IL-2, IFN-g
Th2: IL-4, IL-5, IL-10 |
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Term
| What are the 3 different G proteins and what are their downstream effects? |
|
Definition
q: Activates phospholipase C-->generates IP3-->increases intracellular Ca++-->generates DAG which activates protein kinase C
s: Stimulates adenylyl cyclase-->generates cAMP from ATP-->cAMP activates protein kinase A
i:inhibits anedylyl cyclase-->decreases cAMP-->decreases protein kinase A |
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Term
|
Definition
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|
Term
|
Definition
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Term
| Which mature defense mechanism fits the following statement: Voluntarily choosing not to think about a piece of bad news |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which mature defense mechanism fits the following statement: A person using comedy to express feelings of discomfort |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Which mature defense mechanism fits the following statement: Arsonist donates money to the fire department |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which mature defense mechanism fits the following statement: Using ones aggression to succeed in business adventures |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which mature defense mechanism fits the following statement:
Realistically planning for future discomfort |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which mature defense mechanism fits the following statement:
Consciously postponing an inner conflict until after a big project is completed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which mature defense mechanism fits the following statement:
Redirecting impulses to a socially favorable object |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which immature defense mechanism fits the following statement:
Not acknowledging a piece of bad news as if it never happened |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which immature defense mechanism fits the following statement:
Involuntary withholding of a feeling from conscious awareness |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Which immature defense mechanism fits the following statement:
A veteran that can describe horrific details without any emotion |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which immature defense mechanism fits the following statement:
A child abuser was abused himself as a child |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which immature defense mechanism fits the following statement:
A man yells at his family when he had a bad day at work |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which immature defense mechanism fits the following statement:
A closet homosexual hates homos bc of the way they make him "feel" |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Which immature defense mechanism fits the following statement:
Using intellectual processes to avoid affective expression |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Which immature defense mechanism fits the following statement:
Belief that people are either all good or all bad |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which immature defense mechanism fits the following statement:
Believing an external force is responsible for an inner impulse |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which immature defense mechanism fits the following statement:
Expressing aggression through passivitiy, masochism, and turning against self |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which immature defense mechanism fits the following statement:
Changing ones character of personal identity to avoid emotional distress |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which immature defense mechanism fits the following statement:
Returning to an earlier level of maturation to avoid conflict at the current maturation level |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which immature defense mechanism fits the following statement:
Offering an explanation of an unacceptable attitude/belief |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Which immature defense mechanism fits the following statement:
A thought that is avoided is replaced by an unconscious emphasis on the opposite |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Which immature defense mechanism fits the following statement:
Converting mental conflicts into bodily sxx |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which immature defense mechanism fits the following statement:
Temporarily inhibiting thinking but continuing to build more tension |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which immature defense mechanism fits the following statement:
Avoiding interpersonal intimacy to resolve conflict and obtain gratification |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Which immature defense mechanism fits the following statement:
Extreme forms can result in multibple personalities |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which immature defense mechanism fits the following statement:
Chronically giving in to an impulse to avoid tensions from an unexpressed unconscious wish |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Which defense mechanism underlies all other mechanisms? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What neurotransmitter changes are seen in Anxiety disorders? |
|
Definition
Increased NE
Decreased Serotonin
Decreased GABA |
|
|
Term
| What neurotransmitter changes are seen in Depression? |
|
Definition
Decreased NE
Decreased Serotonin
Decreased Dopamine |
|
|
Term
| What neurotransmitter changes are seen in Mania? |
|
Definition
Increased NE
Increased Serotonin
Increased Dopamine |
|
|
Term
| What neurotransmitter changes are seen in Alzheimer's disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What neurotransmitter changes are seen in Huntington's disease? |
|
Definition
Decreased GABA
Decreased ACh |
|
|
Term
| What neurotransmitter changes are seen in Parkinson's disease? |
|
Definition
Decreased Dopamine
Increased ACh |
|
|
Term
| What neurotransmitter changes are seen in Schizophrenia? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| You are on call and receive a phone call from a nurse who is wondering if she can give a sleep aid or diphenhydramine to an elderly dementia patient who has been having trouble sleeping. What do you tell her? |
|
Definition
| No, diphenhydamine or benzo can worsen sxx because of the anticholinergic effect. Give Trazodone or Haloperidol |
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|
Term
| What are the sxx of serotonin syndrome? |
|
Definition
hyperthermia, myoclonus, cardiovascular collapse, flushing, diarrhea, seizure
Tx: cyproheptadine (5-HT receptor antagonist) |
|
|
Term
| What are the sxx of neuroleptic malignant syndrome? |
|
Definition
Rigidity, myoglobinuria, autonomic instability, hyperpyrexia
Tx: dantroline or D2 agonist (bromocriptine) |
|
|
Term
| What are the criteria for the dx of Major Depressive Disorder? |
|
Definition
SIG E CAPS
Sleep disturbances
Loss of interest
Guilt
Loss of energy
loss of concentration
Appetite/weight changes
Psychomotor disturbances
Suicidal ideation |
|
|
Term
| What is a milder form of depression? |
|
Definition
| Dysthymia-milder form of depression lasting at least two years |
|
|
Term
| What is atypical depression? |
|
Definition
| Differs from classical form of depression in that it is characterized by hypersomnia, overeating, and mood reactivity. Associated with weight gain and sensitivity to rejection |
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|
Term
| A patient mentions that he has thoughts of suicide. What factors determine whether this patient is at high risk for completing the suicide? |
|
Definition
SAD PERSONS
Sex, Age, Depression, Previous attempt, Ethanol or drug use, loss of Rational thinking, Sickness, Organized plan, No spouse, Social support lacking |
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|
Term
| A 28 year old woman has had sxx of mild depression for 6 years. Diagnosis? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 2 months after losing her spouse, a 42 year old is having trouble eating, concentrating, and sleeping. She only sleeps 2-3 hours a night. Dx? What do you do for this patient? |
|
Definition
| Normal bereavement with insomnia. Address insomnia...benzo, trazodone |
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Term
|
Definition
| Fluoxetine, Citalopram, Sertraline, Paroxetine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Amitriptyline, nortriptyline imipramine, desipramine, clomipramine, doxepin, amoxapine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Tranylcypromine, Phenelzine, Isocarboxazid, Selegiline |
|
|
Term
| Name the NDRI used for depression |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the tetracyclic antidepressants |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What antidepressant has priapism as a SE? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What antidepressant lowers the seizure threshold? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What antidepressant works well with SSRIs and increases REM sleep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What antidepressant is an appetite stimulant that is likely to result in weight gain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What antidepressant can be used for smoking cessation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What antidepressant can be used for bedwetting in children |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the sx of TCA overdose? |
|
Definition
Convulsions, Cardiotoxicity, Coma; also respiratory depression, hyperpyrexia. Confusion and hallucinations in elderly due to anticholinergic effects
Tx: NaHCO3 for CV tox |
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|
Term
| What happens if you ingest tyramine while taking MAO inhibitors? |
|
Definition
| MAO breaks down tyramine, so if you inhibit that, you will get a build up of tyramine, which causes release of NE. If you ingest tyramine while taking MAO inhibitors, you can induce a hypertensive crisis |
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|
Term
What somatiform disorder matches the following description:
Unexplained pain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What somatiform disorder matches the following description:
Patient with normal anatomy is convinced there is something wrong with her anatomy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What somatiform disorder matches the following description:
Unexplained loss of sensory or motor function (tests and PE are negative) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What somatiform disorder matches the following description:
Unwavering believe by the patient that she has a specific disease despite medical reassurance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What somatiform disorder matches the following description:
Unexplained complaints in multiple organ systems |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What somatiform disorder matches the following description:
False belief of being pregnant |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What personality disorder fits the following statement:
Excessive need to be taken care of, submissive and clinging behavior, low self confidence, fears of separation and losing support |
|
Definition
| Dependent personality disorder |
|
|
Term
What personality disorder fits the following statement:
Gradiosity, feels he is entitled to things, lacks empathy |
|
Definition
| Narcissistic personality disorder |
|
|
Term
What personality disorder fits the following statement:
Suicide attempts, unstable mood and behavior, feeling of emptiness and loneliness, impulsivity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What personality disorder fits the following statement:
Distrustful, suspicious, litigious |
|
Definition
| Paranoid personality disorder |
|
|
Term
What personality disorder fits the following statement:
Lifelong voluntary social withdrawal, no psychosis, emotional expression is limited (restricted range of affect) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What personality disorder fits the following statement:
Feelings of inadequacy, hypersensitive to rejection or criticism, socially inhibited, shy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What personality disorder fits the following statement:
Constant mood of unhappiness and pessimism |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What personality disorder fits the following statement:
Odd appearance, thoughts, and behavior; No psychosis; social awkwardness |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What personality disorder fits the following statement:
Controlling, perfectionistic, orderly, stubborn, indecisive |
|
Definition
| Obsessive-compulsive personality (not OCD) |
|
|
Term
What personality disorder fits the following statement:
Criminality, unable to conform to social norms, disregard for others rights |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What personality disorder fits the following statement:
Excessively dramatic, emotional, extroverted; sexually provocative behavior, unable to maintain intimate relationships |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the Cluster A personality disorders? |
|
Definition
"Weird"=Accusatory, Aloof, Awkward
Schizoid, Schizotypal, Paranoid |
|
|
Term
| What are the Cluster B personality disorders? |
|
Definition
"Wild"=Bad to the Bone
Anti-social, Borderline, Histrionic, Narcissistic |
|
|
Term
| What are the Cluster C personality disorders? |
|
Definition
"Worried"=Cowardly, Compulsive, Clingy
Avoidant, Obsessive-compulsive, Dependent |
|
|
Term
What drug is causing the following symptoms:
Post-op constipation and or resp depression |
|
Definition
| Opiod (morphine) intoxication |
|
|
Term
What drug is causing the following symptoms:
Severe depression, headache, fatigue, insomnia/hypersomnia, hunger |
|
Definition
| Cocaine or amphetamine withdrawal |
|
|
Term
What drug is causing the following symptoms:
Pinpoint pupils, N/V, seizures |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drug is causing the following symptoms:
Belligerence, nystagmus, impulsiveness, homicidal ideations, psychosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drug is causing the following symptoms:
Anxiety/depression, headache, weight gain |
|
Definition
| Nicotine/caffeine withdrawal |
|
|
Term
What drug is causing the following symptoms:
Anxiety/depression, delusions, hallucinations, flashbacks |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drug is causing the following symptoms:
Euphoria, social withdrawal, impaired judgement, hallucinations |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drug is causing the following symptoms:
Rebound anxiety, tremors, seizures, life-threatening |
|
Definition
| Alcohol withdrawal, benzo or barbituate withdrawal |
|
|
Term
What drug is causing the following symptoms:
Anxiety, piloerection, yawning, fever, rhinorrhea, nausea, diarrhea |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What Rickettsial spp. has properties unique from the other Rickettsia organisms? What are the differences? |
|
Definition
| Coxiella burnetti which causes Q fever. It does not cause a rash and there is no vector. It is spread through respiratory droplets from cattle placenta and tick feces. Also will have a negative Weil-Felix reaction |
|
|
Term
| What infections are caused by Chlamydia? What is the tx for most Chlamydial infections |
|
Definition
Chlamydia trachomatis: urethritis/PID, ectopic pregnancy, neonatal pneumonia, neonatal conjunctivitis
C. pneumoniae: atypical pneumonia
Chlamydia psittasi: interstitial pneumonia in parrot handlers
Doxycyline or azithromycin treats most infection |
|
|
Term
| What is the classic presenting sx in a pt with Lyme disease? |
|
Definition
| Bulls-eye lesion (Erythema chronicum migrans) |
|
|
Term
| What is the distinction between Ghon complex and Ghon focus? |
|
Definition
| Ghon complex includes Ghon focus plus lobar and perihilar lymph node involvement. Both occur in Primary TB infection |
|
|
Term
| Which Mycobacterium spp causes leprosy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which Mycobacterium spp causes pulmonary TB like symptoms in COPD patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which Mycobacterium spp causes cervical lymphadenitis in children? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which Mycobacterium spp causes a disseminated disease in AIDS patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which Mycobacterium spp causes hand infection in aquarium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Rickettsial triad of sxx? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A 25 year old with Mycoplasma atypical pneumonia exhibits anemia due to cryoagglutinins. What type of immunoglobulins are responsible for the anemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A homeless alcoholic vomited while intoxicated and subsequently developed foul-smelling sputum. What organism is the most likely cause of the infection? |
|
Definition
| Klebsiella pneumoniae or anaerobic pneumonia |
|
|
Term
| Which antibiotic should be used to treat Mycoplasma pneumonia? |
|
Definition
| Doxycycline or macrolides |
|
|
Term
| Which antibiotic should be used to treat Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which antibiotic should be used to treat early Lyme disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which antibiotic should be used to treat late Lyme disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which antibiotic should be used to treat Syphilis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which antibiotic should be used to treat leprosy |
|
Definition
| oral dapsone or combo of rifampin, dapsone, clofazamine for 6-24 months |
|
|
Term
| Which antibiotic should be used to treat bacterial vaginosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drug coctail can be used in the treatment of M. tuberculosis? |
|
Definition
| Isonizid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol |
|
|
Term
| What is the only agent used as solo prophylaxis in TB? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What antibiotic is used for prevention of MAI (m. avium-intracellulare) in AIDS patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an important side effect of ethambutol? |
|
Definition
| optic neuropathy (red-green color blindness) |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of isoniazid? Side effects? |
|
Definition
| Decreses synthesis of mycolic acids. Toxicity includes neurotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, lupus |
|
|
Term
| What drugs are known for causing drug induced lupus? |
|
Definition
Sulfonamides,hydralazine, isoniazid, phenytoin, procainamide
*will see anti-histone antibodies in serum |
|
|
Term
| For which infections is rifampin used? |
|
Definition
| M. tubuculosis; prophylaxis for close contacts of N.meningitidis patients |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 R's of rifampin? |
|
Definition
RNA polymerase inhibitor
Revs up microsomal p450
Red-orange body fluids
Rapid resistance if used alone |
|
|
Term
| What drugs are famous for inducing p450? |
|
Definition
OCPs
Phenytoin
Barbituates
Alcohol
Rifampin
Levodopa
Methadone
St. Johns Wort |
|
|
Term
| What drugs are famous for inhibiting p450? |
|
Definition
Protease inhibitors
Isoniazid
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole
Erythromycin
Grapefruit juice
Sulfonamides |
|
|
Term
| What agents are used for prophylaxis for Gonorrhea infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What agents are used for prophylaxis for Syphilis infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What agents are used for prophylaxis for recurrent UTIs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What agents are used for prophylaxis for P. jiroveci pneumonia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What agents are used for prophylaxis for exposure to meningococcal or H. influenza type B meningitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What agents are used for prophylaxis for endocarditis prevention in patient with tubulent flow heart disease (with surgical or dental procedures) |
|
Definition
|
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