Shared Flashcard Set

Details

Emb Systems All
American eagle embraer systems all
226
Aviation
Professional
02/13/2012

Additional Aviation Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
How many Digital Acquisition Units (DAUs) does the EMB have?
Definition
2.
Term
How many channels doeseach DAU have?
Definition
2 channels: A and B.
Term
What systems send information to DAU 1?
Definition
  • Forward airplane systems
  • The #1 Engine.
Term
What systems send information to DAU 2?
Definition
  • Aft airplane systems
  • The #2 Engine.
Term
What are the indications of a DAU channel A failure?
Definition
  • EICAS caution message.
  • The digital engine readouts are replaced with dashes on the failed DAU side.
Term
What action would you take after a DAU channel A failure?
Definition
Select channel B by pressing the DAU 1 button on the EICAS reversionary panel
Term
What is the indication of a DAU channel B failure?
Definition
Blue EICAS message.
Term
If a DAU channel A fails, will channel B automatically be selected?
Definition
No. Must press the DAU button on the EICAS reversionary panel.
Term
What is the purpose of the tuning backup control head (TBCH)?
Definition
It is a backup means by which to tune COM#2 and NAV#2 if the RMU is inoperative.
Term
What is being checked when the TO CONFIG Button is pressed?
Definition
  • Parking brake off 
  • Flaps set for takeoff 
  • Spoilers closed
  • Pitch trim in green range
Term
What conditions must be met in order for the Ground Spoilers to deploy?
Definition
  • Aircraft on ground
  • Thrust levers retarded
  • Wheel speed above 25 kts.
Term
What conditions must be met in order for the Speed Brakes to deploy?
Definition
  • Flaps 0° or 9°
  • Thrust levers retarded
  • Speed brake lever OPEN
Term
What might be the reason for a Speed Brake Lever Disagree caution message on the EICAS?
Definition
  • Speed brake lever OPEN with:
    • Thrust levers advanced; or
    • Flaps set above 9
  • Speed brake lever CLOSED;
    • Taxi speed faster than 25 kts.
Term
How many emergency brake uses are available with the emergency brake accumulator?
Definition
6.
Term
How many emergency brake uses are remaining if the EMERG BRK LO PRESS caution message is presented on the EICAS?
Definition
1.
Term
How long will the pressure last in the parking brake accumulator?
Definition
24 hours.
Term
What flight director guidance is provided when the go-around buttons are pushed?
Definition
  • ROL GA mode commanding a pitch attitude of 10°; then
  • ROL IAS mode commanding 170 knots; then
  • ROL IAS mode commanding the blue airspeed bug if unable 170 knots.
Term
What effect does pressing the go-around buttons have on the FMS during an approach?
Definition
It sequences the missed approach in the FMS
Term
When will the stall protection test light be illuminated?
Definition
  • After initial power up
  • After an unsuccessful test
Term
How often must the stall protection system be performed?
Definition
Before every flight.
Term
What systems are lost if one of the stall protection cutout buttons are pressed?
Definition
The stickpusher.
Term
What would be disabled if you pressed the main pitch trim cutout button?
Definition
  • Autopilot
  • Main trim switches on yoke
  • Speed brake auto-trim
Term
What lateral mode is entered when the roll control knob is turned?
Definition
ROL
Term
Can a heading be selected when the ROLL knob is not centered?
Definition
No.
Term
What happens when the DUMP button is pressed?
Definition
Both outflow valves open and cause a rapid decompression. Only works in AUTO mode.
Term
How many outflow valves are active in the AUTO mode?
Definition

2.

  • The electo-pneumatic outflow valve is commanded by the pressure controller 
  • The pneumatic outflow valve is slaved to follow it.
Term
How many outflow valves are active in the manual mode?
Definition
1. The pneumatic outflow valve.
Term
What might happen if the manual selector knob on the pressurization panel is not in the DN position while in the AUTO mode?
Definition
The pneumatic outflow valve could unslave from the electro-pneumatic outflow valve.
Term
How would you know if the auto pressurization system completed a successful power up test?
Definition
"8888" in the display
Term
What happens if a landing field elevation is not entered into the auto pressurization controller?
Definition
The system assumes an 8000 ft landing elevation.
Term
If it became necessary to return to the departure airport, would it be necessary to enter its field elevation?
Definition

No. The cabin altitude is kept at the departure airport field elevation until:

  • Theoretical cabin altitude increases; or
  • 15 minutes.
Term
If you noticed a single PFD,MFD, or EICAS CRT go blank, what would you suspect has happened?
Definition
A CRT (tube) has failed.
Term
If the captain's PFD went dark, what action would you take?
Definition
Turn the MFD knob on the captain's reversionary panel to the PFD position.
Term
How would you know if an air data computer(ADC) has failed?
Definition

A red "X" over the

  • Airspeed 
  • Altitude
  • VSI
Term
If the captain's ADC has failed, what action would you take?
Definition
Press the ADC button on the captain's reversionary panel.
Term
What would you see after pressing the ADC button on the reversionary panel?
Definition
Amber ADC 2 label in upper left corner of Captain's PFD.
Term
How would an AHRS failure appear on the PFD?
Definition
  • Blue horizon
  • Red X over the Heading indicator
  • ATT FAIL 
  • HDG FAIL
Term
How would you fix a FO's AHRS failure?
Definition
Press the AHRS button on the FO's reversionary panel.
Term
What would be seen after pressing the AHRS button on the reversionary panel?
Definition
  • Amber ATT1 in the lower left corner of the FO's PFD.
  • Amber MAG1 above the FO's Heading indicator.
Term
What is indicated by a large red X covering the Captain's PFD, MFD, and EICAS?
Definition
The #1 IC 600 has failed.
Term
How could you fix a #1 IC 600 failure?
Definition
Press the SG button on the Captain's reversionary panel.
Term
What labels would be seen after pushing the SG button on the Captain's reversionary panel?
Definition
  • SG 
  • ADC2 
  • ATT2 
  • MAG2 
Term
How do you test the IC 600?
Definition
On the ground, press and hold the RA button for more than 6 seconds
Term
What is indicated by a CAS MSG on your PFD?
Definition
The CAS message count is different in both IC 600s.
Term
What action would you take after a CAS MSG?
Definition
  • Select both (CA's and FO's) MFD reversionary knobs to EICAS 
  • Determine which IC 600 is accurate.
Term
How long will a blue advisory EICAS message flash?
Definition
5 seconds.
Term
How long will the standby attitude indicator be reliable after it loses power?
Definition
9 minutes.
Term
When would you use the magnetic compass calibration card?
Definition
In an electrical emergency.
Term
How do you know if you are flying an aircraft with an AHRS-800?
Definition
  • AHRS panel 
  • Flux valve in wing
Term
What does the SLVD position on the AHRS command?
Definition
The DG is slaved to the flux valve.
Term
What does the DG position on the AHRS command?
Definition
The DG operates as a pure (non slaved) directional gyro.
Term
What happens when the emergency button is pressed on the Digital Audio Panel (DAP)?
Definition
  • Captain hard wired to COMM 1 and NAV 1.
  • FO hard wired to COMM 2 and NAV 2.
  • Observer loses radio communication.
Term
How is the WX radar displayed on the PFD?
Definition
By pressing the FULL/WXbutton on the Display Control Panel (DCP).
Term
What happens to the EHSI display when the FULL/WX button is pressed?
Definition
The EHSI display changes from a full compass rose to a 180° arc format.
Term
What happens when the NAV or FMS button on the DCP is pressed twice?
Definition
  • Cross-side NAV or FMS navigation source is selected.
  • CDI display changes to yellow
Term
What is the range of the radar?
Definition
5 to 300 nautical miles.
Term
What does the RCT button on the radar control panel command?
Definition
The radar automatically increases sensitivity when rain echo attenuation is present.
Term
What does the blue color in RCT mode represent?
Definition
Radar has automatically reached its maximum gain. These areas should be considered to be very dangerous.
Term
What does the TGT button on the radar control panel command?
Definition
The radar monitors for returns beyond the selected range and 7.5 deg on either side of the aircraft's heading.
Term
What does the SECT button on the radar control panel command?
Definition
It selects between 60 deg radar sweep (faster refresh rate) and 120 deg of radar sweep (normal refresh rate).
Term
What does the STB button on the radar control panel command?
Definition
It selects the stabilization mode.
Term
What happens if the radar is not turned off prior to landing?
Definition
The radar enters forced standby (FSB) due to weight on wheels logic.
Term
How can forced standby be de-selected on the ground?
Definition
Press the STAB button 4 times in 3 seconds.
Term
What is the maximum radar tilt range?
Definition
+/- 15 degrees.
Term
How do you manually adjust radar receiver gain?
Definition
  • Pull the gain knob out. 
    • Amber VAR flag on the PFD's and MFD's.
Term
What airspeeds will be commanded in a climb by selecting the FLC button on the flight guidance controller?
Definition
  • 240 KIAS below 10,000 ft
  • 240-270 KIAS between 10 - 12,000 ft
  • 270 KIAS below 18000 ft
  • .56 MACH below FL 370
Term
What vertical speeds will be commanded in a descent by selecting the FLC button on the flight guidance controller?
Definition
  • 2000 fpm above 12,000ft
  • 2000-1000 fpm between 12,000-10,000 ft
  • 1000 fpm below 10,000 ft
Term
When is low bank mode automatically selected?
Definition
Above FL250.
Term
In what vertical mode is the pitch control wheel effective?
Definition
PIT mode.
Term
How would you know if the ELT was ON?
Definition
A flashing red light on the ELT remote panel.
Term
How would you reset the ELT?
Definition
  1. Select TEST/RESET
  2. Then ARM.
Term
How many Gs are required to activate the ELT?
Definition
5 Gs.
Term
Where is the ELT physically located?
Definition
In the right side of the lavatory compartment, above the toilet.
Term
When would you press the EGPWS terrain system override button?
Definition
  • Operating in dead reckoning mode
  • Taking off or landing within 15NM of an airport that has a runway which:
    • Is less than 3,500 feet long
    • Is not in the database
    • No IAP
Term
What is accomplished when the EGPWS terrain system override button is pressed?
Definition
The "enhanced" feature of the EGPWS is inhibited, thus avoiding unwanted terrain alerts in airports not covered by the EGPWS database.
Term
When will the MFD automatically display terrain information?
Definition
Within 10 nm of a terrain threat.
Term
When will the "landing gear" aural warning be heard?
Definition
  • Below 1200ft RA and Gear NOT down and locked; with
    • Thrust levers retarded; or
    • Flaps 45°
Term
How can the "landing gear" warning aural alert be silenced?
Definition
  • Press landing gear warning cutout button; with 
    • Flap lever less than 22 deg
Term
Pressing the landing gear warning cutout button causes the amber bar in the button to illuminate. How can the landing gear warning be reset extinguishing the amber bar?
Definition
  • Thrust levers advanced; or
  • Flap lever set above 22 deg; or
  • Landing gear down and locked
Term
What does the ON inscription mean on the passenger oxygen control panel?
Definition
The electric latches for the cabin O2 masks are energized.
Term
What else happens when the electric latches are energized?
Definition
  • Fasten Seat Belts Signs illuminated
  • No Smoking Signs Illuminated
Term
After the masks have presented is there any way to turn the No Smoking and Seatbelt signs off?
Definition
Yes. Select the passenger O2 selector knob to the OFF position.
Term
With the passenger O2 selector knob in the AUTO position, when will the cabin O2 masks be presented?
Definition
Cabin altitude reaches 14,000 feet.
Term
How many minutes will the passenger O2 generators last?
Definition
12 minutes.
Term
When the oxygen for the crew reaches 400 PSI, how many minutes of oxygen remain for three crewmembers?
Definition
12 minutes.
Term
What is the minimum O2 pressure required for the walk-around O2 bottle?
Definition
1200 psi.
Term
How many hours does the CVR record?
Definition
2 hours.
Term
How do you erase the CVR?
Definition
Push ERASE with the Parking brake set
Term
What is the first flight of the day check for the CVR?
Definition
Press the TEST button and observe the light for 1 second.
Term
When do the engine driven generators come online?
Definition
At 57% N2.
Term
What is the output of an engine driven generator?
Definition
400 Amps; 28 Volts.
Term
What does GPU AVAIL mean?
Definition
GPU power is detected. Not necessarily acceptable power.
Term
What is the output of the APU generator?
Definition
400 Amps; 28 Volts. (300 Amps above 30,000 ft)
Term
What type of main batteries are installed ?
Definition
2 NiCads.
Term
What is the output of each main battery?
Definition
24 Volts; 44 Amps.
Term
How long will the main batteries last in an electrical emergency?
Definition

40 minutes.

Note: Can be increased to 45 minutes if you shut-off PITOT 3 heat

Term
How many APU start attempts are assumed in the 40 minutes of main battery power?
Definition
3
Term
If a main battery temperature exceeds +70C will it drop offline?
Definition
No, You will get an EICAS message.
Term
What does the ESSENTIAL POWER button do?
Definition
It forces the "electrical emergency" configuration. The main batteries are connected to the essential busses.
Term
When would you press the ESSENTIAL POWER button?
Definition

When directed by a checklist.

Example: ELEC ESS TFR FAIL procedure

Term
What is the definition of an electrical emergency?
Definition
Loss of all 5 generators in flight.
Term
What would the PFD, MFD and EICAS look like in an "electrical emergency?"
Definition
  • PFDs and MFDs - dark 
  • EICAS and RMUs - lit.
Term
What is an "electric essential transfer failure" (ELEC ESS XFER FAIL)?
Definition
The EDL failed to configure for an electrical emergency when required. The DC buses aren't isolated from the batteries and since it's an electrical emergency the batteries aren't being charged!
Term
What would the PFDs, MFDs and EICAS look like during an "electric essential transfer fail" (ELEC ESS XFER FAIL)?
Definition
Normal
Term
What are the main purposes of the central DC bus?
Definition
To connect the GPU and APU to the electrical system and to allow load sharing between the busses.
Term
How many generators need to be online to automatically power the shed busses?
Definition
3
Term
How can you power the shed busses with less than 3 generators online on the ground?
Definition
SHED BUSSES knob to OVRD.
Term
Can you power the shed busses with less than 3 generators online while in flight?
Definition
No
Term
What happens if you turn BUS TIES knob to the OFF position?
Definition
It opens the bus tie contactors regardless of any command from the electrical system logic.
Term
What happens when the BUS TIES knob is in the AUTO position?
Definition
The EDL controls the bus tie contactors.
Term
What happens when the BUS TIES knob is in the OVRD position?
Definition
The bus tie connectors close regardless of EDL unless one of the GCUs detects an over-current condition.
Term
What is an "electric emergency abnormal"?
Definition
The EDL configured for an electrical emergency when not required. The DC busses are isolated. Batteries supplying Central & Essential Busses and not being charged!
Term
In the case of an "electrical emergency abnormal" can you reconnect the 3 networks?
Definition
No. But you can start the APU to keep the batteries charging while they power the Central and Essential busses.
Term
How is the AC inverter powered?
Definition
DC Bus 1.
Term
What is the purpose of the back-up battery?
Definition
It provides stabilized power to the GCUs.
Term
When is the back-up battery connected to the electrical system?
Definition
  • BATT 1 - AUTO; and
  • BACKUP button - in.
Term
Can external power charge the back-up battery?
Definition
No
Term
How much power does the back-up battery provide?
Definition
24 Volts; 5 amps.
Term
Where is the back-up battery located?
Definition
In the floor in front of the F/O.
Term
Why do we deselect the back-up battery when "re-booting" the aircraft?
Definition
The back-up battery powers the EDL (Electrical Distribution Logic).
Term
When is the ground service bus powered?
Definition
  • GPU Connected
  • GPU button out
  • BATT 1 & 2 knobs OFF
Term
If the Flight Attendant turns the emergency lights on from the F/A panel, can they be turned off from the cockpit? 
Definition
No
Term
How long will the emergency light batteries last?
Definition
15 minutes.
Term

Pulling the handle does what?

[image]

Definition

It closes the following Shut Off Valves (H.A.L.F)

  • Hydraulic Pump SOV
  • Bleed Air SOV
  • Engine Lip Anti-ice SOV
  • Fuel SOV
Term

When this handle is pulled, what EICAS messages will you see?

[image]

Definition
  • FUEL SOV CLSD
  • HYDR SOV CLSD
  • BLEED SOV CLSD
* No message for engine inlet anti-ice valve
Term

When will this handle illuminate?

[image]

Definition
When a fire signal is detected
Term

Can you cancel the visual warning of the Fire Handle?

[image]

Definition
No, only the fire bell can be canceled. The Handle will remain lit as long as a fire signal is detected
Term
How does the fire detection sensor detect a fire?
Definition
It senses changes in gas (volume and pressure)
Term
How many fire extinguisher bottles protect the engines?
Definition
2
Term
How does the LAV fire extinguisher bottle work?
Definition
Heat in the LAV trash melts a fuse and the bottle is discharged
Term
How do you know if the LAV fire extinguisher is discharged?
Definition
It's part of the FA's preflight inspection
Term
How will you know if there is a LAV fire?
Definition
EICAS message
Term

What do these knobs do?

[image]

Definition
Selects the fuel pump that will continuously operate for that engine
Term

What happens if the selected fuel pump fails?

[image]

Definition
The remaining pumps would cycle causing a "clicking" sound. The cycling of the pumps can be verified on the MFD
Term
What is the minimum fuel tank temperature?
Definition
-40C
Term
Where is the fuel tank temperature taken?
Definition
The left fuel tank
Term
What is the minimum fuel temperature leaving the FCOC?
Definition
4C
Term

What buss(es) power the fuel pumps?

[image]

Definition

Pumps A,B - Essential Buss

Pump C - DC Buss

Term

When these knobs are in the off position?

[image]

Definition
The selected fuel pump is de-energied
Term

When these knobs are in the ON position?

[image]

Definition
The selected fuel pump is energized
Term

When this knob is in the OFF position?

[image]

Definition
XFEED valve closes and electric fuel pumps return to normal operation
Term

When this knob is in LOW 1?

[image]

Definition
Opens XFEED valve and shuts off the left selected fuel pump
Term

When this knob is in the LOW 2 position?

[image][image]

Definition
Opens XFEED valved and shuts off right selected fuel pump
Term
What is the purpose of the ejector pump?
Definition
It helps keep the collector box filled
Term

What does this button do?

[image]

Definition
Generates a cabin chime and allows communication between FA and Pilots
Term
What does this button do?[image]
Definition
Same as CABIN button except EMER PILOT is illuminated on the FA's panel
Term

What does this button do?

[image]

Definition
  • Allows communication between FA and pilots if the normal mode fails
  • Both CABIN AND CAB EMER illuminate on ICU
  • Both PILOT AND EMER PILOT illuminate on FA panel
Term
Can the cabin interphone be deferred?
Definition
No, it's required by TSA
Term
How many NAV lights are ON at 1 time?
Definition

4 Total:

  • 1 in each wing
  • 2 in the tail
Term
How many NAV lights are there in total?
Definition

8 total:

  • 2 in each wing
  • 4 in the tail
Term
If one NAV light has failed, how do you selected the other one?
Definition
A toggle switch in the relay box behind the Captain
Term
When does the DFDR start recording?
Definition
  • When RED BCN to ON; or
  • Aircraft is airborn
[image]
Term
How many hours does the DFDR hold?
Definition
25
Term

What does this button do?

[image]

Definition
Remeber 4 things (EXTG has 4 letters)
  • Sends stop signal to FADEC
  • Closes APU SOV in Wing
  • Closes Fuel valve on APU
  • Discharges APU fire bottle
Term
Will the APU auto shutdown when a fire is detected?
Definition
Only on the ground
Term

What does this button do?

[image]

Definition

Tests the first detection system.

Should hear Fire bell and should see (Remember 3-4-5):

  • 3 lights illuminated (2 fire handles, 1 BAGG EXTG button)
  • 4 lights flashing (2 warning, 2 caution)
  • 5 Messages (2 warn, 3 caution)
    • APU FIRE
    • ENG 1(2) FIRE
    • BAGG SMOKE
    • APU FIRE DET FAIL
    • ENG 1(2) FIRE DET FAIL
Term

When will this button illuminate?

[image]

Definition
When smoke is detected in the baggage compartment
Term

What happens when this button is pushed?

[image]

Definition
  • Both bottles discharged (High rate & Metered)
  • Baggage compartment fans off
50 minutes of protection
Term
How many smoke detectors are in the baggage compartment?
Definition
2
Term
Can the baggage smoke detectors be reset by the pilots?
Definition
No, Maintenance must reset them
Term

What happens when this knob is selected OFF?

[image]

Definition

4 things (Remember OFF has 3 letters + 1):

  • Sends a stop signal to FADEC
  • Closes APU FUEL SOV in Wing
  • Closes Fuel valve on APU
  • Indications and alarms are disabled
Term

What happens when this knob is selected ON?

[image]

Definition

4 things (Remember ON has 2 letters x 2):

  • FADEC energized
  • FADEC performs self-test
  • Opens APU FUEL SOV in Wing
  • Enables indications and alarms for APU
Term

What happens when this knob is selected START?

[image]

Definition
Initiates the start cycle
Term

What happens when this button is pushed?

[image]

Definition

2 things:

  • Sends stop request to FADEC
  • Closes fuel valve on APU
Term

What happens when this button is pushed?

[image]

Definition

3 things (Remember 3 syllables in button name):

  • Sends stop request to FADEC
  • Closes APU FUEL SOV in Wing
  • Closes fuel valve on APU
Term
When is the APU able to provide power?
Definition
95% rotation speed + 7 seconds
Term
How many APU swing starts are permitted?
Definition
1
Term

What happens when this knob is selected OFF?

[image]

Definition

Auto-relight is disabled

* Doesn't actually turn off the ignitors

Term

What happens when this knob is selected AUTO?

[image]

Definition

Active FADEC controls ignition (A or B)

  • 1 ignitor for ground start (14% N2)
  • 2 ignitors for air start (10% N2)
  • Auto-relight (above 53% N2)
Term

What happens when this knob is selected ON?

[image]

Definition
Both ignitors operate continuously
Term

When would you select this knob to ON?

[image]

Definition
  • First flight of the day
  • Cold engine start OR Oil < 5C
  • Ext Air or XBLEED start
  • Contaminated rwy AND OAT < 10C
  • Moderate or greater turbulence
  • Heavy precip
Term

What happens when this knob is selected RESET?

[image]

Definition
Resets FADEC and clears faults
Term

What happens when this knob is selected ALTN?

[image]

Definition

Alternates the FADEC in control

* Switch becomes inop if held for more than 3 seconds

Term

What happens when this knob is selected STOP?

[image]

Definition
Commands FADEC to shut engine down if Thrust Lever is IDLE
Term

What happens when this knob is selected RUN?

[image]

Definition
Allows normal engine operations
Term

What happens when this knob is selected START?

[image]

Definition
  • Initiates start cycle
  • Switches FADEC from the last one that succesfully started the engine
* Switch inop if held for 3 seconds. Can be reset by turning to STOP then reset FADEC
Term

What happens if this button is held for more than 10 seconds?

[image]

Definition
The APU would shut down
Term
During an APU start, what does Battery 1 do?
Definition
It provies stable power to sensitive electrical equipment
Term
How long can the APU be run unattended?
Definition
30 minutes
Term
Describe the basic design of the engine
Definition

2 Spool High Bypass Turbofan

  • High pressure spool
    • 14 stage compressor
    • 2 stage turbine
  • Low pressure spool
    • 1 high bypass fan
    • 3 stage turbine
Term
What is Compressor Variable Geometry?
Definition
The first 5 inlet vanes are FADEC controlled to maximize compressor efficiency
Term
What moves the inlet guide vanes?
Definition
High pressure fuel
Term
What components are driven by the engine accessory gearbox?
Definition
  • Hydraulic Pump
  • Electrical Generators
  • ATS (Air Turbine Starter)
  • PMA (Primary Magnetic Alternator)
  • Oil Pump
  • FPMU (Fuel Pump Metering Unit)
Term
What does the Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA) power?
Definition
Ignition and FADECs
Term
When will the FADEC not protect the engine from excessive ITT?
Definition
During engine start
Term
What does ATTCS stand for?
Definition
Automatic Takeoff Thrust Control System
Term
When is ATTCS activated?
Definition
  • FADEC receives engine inop signal; or
  • Opposite engine thrust level is retarded; or
  • Opposite engine does not arm within 2 seconds
Term
When should T/O-1 thrust be used for takeoff?
Definition
  • Windshear
  • ATTCS inoperative
  • Runway is contaminated
  • Performance requires it
  • Discretion of the Captain
Term
Describe N2 events during a start cycle
Definition

10% - PMA powers ignition

14% - FADEC enables ignition

28% - Fuel flows

42%-48% - Possible hung start range

50% - PMA powers FADEC

53% - Start control valvle closes

57% - Ignition OFF, Generators online

64% - Ground Idle

Term

When does Rudder SYS 1 automatically shutoff?

[image]

Definition
Speed greater than 135 kts. Reduces rudder authority at high speed.
Term
With Rudder SYS 1 automatically shutdoff and Rudder SYS 2 fails, what happens?
Definition
Rudder SYS 1 comes back online and an EICAS message is displayed
Term
When would you see the EICAS message RUDDER OVERBOOST?
Definition
If neither Rudder SYS shuts down past 135 kts
Term
When would Rudder Hardover Protection activate?
Definition
  • Force on any pedal > 130 lbs; and
  • Rudder deflected > 5o to opposite side; and
  • Both engines running (N2 > 57%)
Term
Is Rudder Hardover Protection inhibited with one engine operating?
Definition
Yes
Term

What does this button do?

[image]

Definition
Closes HYD SOV. Engine Hydraulic Pump still runs, just valve is closed.
Term

What happens when this knob is selected OFF?

[image]

Definition
Electric Hydraulic Pump is switched off
Term

What happens when this knob is selected AUTO?

[image]

Definition

Electric Hydraulic pump turns on if:

  • Hydraulic pressure falls below 1600 psi; or
  • N2 < 57%
Term

What happens when this knob is selected ON?

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Definition
Electric Hydraulic Pump turns on
Term
At what pressure would you see the HYD SYS 1 (2) FAIL message?
Definition
< 1300 psi
Term
How much pressure does the engine driven hydraulic pump provide?
Definition
3000 psi
Term

How much pressure does the electrical hydraulic pump provide?

Definition
2900 psi
Term
When would you see the E1 (2) HYD PUMP FAIL message?
Definition
  • Hydraulic pressure < 1600 psi; or
  • N2 < 57%
Term
When would you see the HYD 1 (2) LO QTY message?
Definition
Hydraulic reservoir < 1 liter
Term
What is the hydraulic reservoir capacity?
Definition
6 liters
Term
What is the difference between hydraulic system 1 and 2?
Definition
Hydraulic system 1 has a priority valve
Term
What is the purpose of the priority valve?
Definition
It prioritizes flow of hydraulic fluid to the flight controls when the landing gear is actuated with the electric pump running
Term
Why is it necessary to prioritize fluid when only the electric pump is operating?
Definition
Less volume of fluid is pumped by the electric pump
Term
What happens when you pull the landing gear free fall lever?
Definition
  • Gear uplocks are mechanically released
  • Landing hydraulic pressure is relieved
Term
What happens when the electric gear override switch is selected GEAR/DOORS?
Definition
The Landing Gear Electronic Unit is bypassed
Term
When is the DOME light connected to the HOT BATTERY BUSS?
Definition
When courtesy lights are AUTO
Term
When are the FSTN BELTS and NO SMKG passenger signs turned on automatically?
Definition
When the passengers O2 units open
Term
What EICAS messages will be presented when entering icing conditions?
Definition
  • ICE CONDITION (blue)
  • SPS/ICE SPEEDS (blue)
Term
How can the SPS/ICE SPEEDS message be cancelled?
Definition
By doing the SPS test
Term
After closing the bleeds, why must you wait 10 seconds before performing the ice protection (electrical) test?
Definition
To allow the valves to fully close.
Term
If the ice detection OVERRIDE knob is ENG, what ice protection is provided?
Definition
  • ENGINE AIR INLET - When engine is running  
  • WING and STAB A/I - When icing detected and wheel speed > 25 kts.
Term
If the ice detection OVERRIDE knob AUTO, what ice protection is provided?
Definition
  • ENGINE AIR INLET - When icing detected  
  • WING and STAB A/I - When icing detected; and wheel speed >25 kts or airborne
Term
If the ice detection OVERRIDE knob is ALL what ice protection is provided?
Definition
  • In air, Everything regardless of ice detection.  
  • On ground, WING and STAB are inhibited if wheel speed < 25 kts
Term
When will the cross bleed valve open automatically if the XBLEED knob is AUTO?
Definition
Cross bleed starts.
Term
What condition would direct you to turn the XBLEED knob to OFF?
Definition
A bleed leak.
Term
What happens if the PACK button is deselected?
Definition
  • Pack valve closes
  • Associated recirc fan is deactivated
Term
When does the left pack valve automatically de-energize?
Definition
Below FL250 in icing conditions.
Term
When would you be directed to deselect the RECIRC Button?
Definition
  • Cabin/Cockpit Smoke or Fumes
  • Hot soaked aircraft
Term
What components are cooled by the gasper fan system?
Definition
  • Individual gasper outlets
  • O2 bottle compartment
  • Relay box
  • Rear electronics compartment
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