Term
| T/F: sodium ion-water deprivation works by allowing sodium to move into brain tissue, leading to decreased energy metabolism and an impaired sodium pump. Once rehydration occurs, water moves into the brain, causing cerebral edema. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following does NOT contribute to sodium-ion water deprivation?
a. Cured meats
b. Frozen water
c. Stray voltage
d. Homemade playdough
e. Oil well drinking brine
f. All of the above contribute to salt toxicity |
|
Definition
| f. All of the above contribute to salt toxicity |
|
|
Term
Salt toxicity typically takes ______________ with no water, depending on the sodium content of the diet.
a. 12-24 hours
b. 24-48 hours
c. 48-72 hours
d. 48-96 hours
e. 4-12 hours |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_______________ are the most susceptible to salt toxicity, with rapid onset often occuring after reintroduction to water.
a. Cattle
b. Dogs
c. Swine
d. Cats
e. Horses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Thirst, constipation, blindness, circling, and head pressing are the most common clinical signs of _________ toxicity. |
|
Definition
Salt toxicity.
Dogs will sit with head jerking, progressing to intermittent convulsive seizures.
Cattle will show signs within a few hours. Tremors, ataxia, lateral recumbency, seizures, paddling, muscle tremors and death within 12-24 hours. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: with prolonged signs of salt toxicity/water deprivation, recovery of horses is associated with ataxia and knuckling of the fetlocks. |
|
Definition
| False: recovery of CATTLE is associated with ataxia and knuckling of the fetlocks. |
|
|
Term
Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis with perivascular cuffing is MOST diagnostic of salt toxicity in which species?
a. Swine
b. Cattle
c. Dog
d. Cat
e. Horse |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The CSF sodium content in swine is often higher than the serum sodium content. |
|
Definition
True
CSF/serum in swine--diagnostic is >160 mEq/L or >1800 ppm, but CSF often higher |
|
|
Term
| T/F: cattle often acquire salt toxicity when they have sudden access to salt with limited water intake. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: in cattle, ocular fluid can often be used as a diagnostic indicator of salt toxicity, as ocular fluid sodium is typically 95% of elevated serum. |
|
Definition
True
Serum Na >160 mEq/L or >2000 ppm is diagnostic
Rumen sodium >0.5% DM is diagnostic |
|
|
Term
| T/F: on histopathology, cattle with salt toxicity usually exhibit brain edema with no eosinophils, and survivors may have laminar necrosis similar to polioencephalomalacia. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: dogs with salt toxicity usually exhibit a characteristic eosinophilic brain response with brain edema and serum sodium levels >160 mEq/L. |
|
Definition
| False. Dogs typically have serum sodium levels >160 mEq/L with salt toxicity and may have brain edema, but an eosinophilic brain response is unlikely. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: treatment of salt toxicity often involves free access to water. |
|
Definition
| FALSE--reintroduce water slowly |
|
|
Term
D5W administered intravenously is the first line of treatment for animals with:
a. Ionophore toxicity
b. Salt toxicity
c. Cyanide toxicity
d. Urea toxicity
e. Gossypol toxicity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: mannitol and furosemide are often indicated in cases of salt toxicity. |
|
Definition
True
Mannitol is usually indicated for cerebral edema |
|
|
Term
| The formula to replace the free water deficit in animals with salt toxicity is: |
|
Definition
| 0.6 * BW (kg) * (1-normal Na/current Na) |
|
|
Term
___________ alters the intracellular Na and Ca related to intracellular cation binding during transport, which results in mitochondrial damage and leads to reduced ATP/oxidative metabolism. The myocardium and skeletal muscles are more susceptible.
a. Salt toxicity
b. Ionophore toxicity
c. Gossypol toxicity
d. Mycotoxins
e. Garbage intoxication |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Under normal circumstances, ____________ function to do the following:
1. Positively influence energy and protein metabolism
2. Reduce post-partum metabolic disorders
3. Depress milk fat with little effect on lactose yield or protein content
4. Potentially act to positively influence milk yield and composition |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Monensin is most toxic to ______________, and least toxic to ______________. |
|
Definition
Horses--most susceptible
Chickens--least susceptible
Horses > sheep > swine > dog > goat > cattle > chicken |
|
|
Term
| For cattle, a 10x the normal dose of monensin is lethal. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: monensin toxicity exhibits delayed effects, with clinical signs occuring 12-72 hours after exposure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Myocardial necrosis is the classic lesion associated with monensin toxicity in which species?
a. Horse
b. Cow
c. Dog
d. A and B
e. A and C |
|
Definition
d. A and B
Dogs, sheep, and pigs will exhibit skeletal muscle necrosis with minor/no myocardial damage. |
|
|
Term
| Anorexia, uneasiness, sweating, colic, stiffness, progressive ataxia, getting up and down, posterior paresis, recumbency, tachycardia, hypotension, and possible CHF or sudden death during exercise are common clinical signs seen in horses with _______________ toxicity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: death in cattle with monensin toxicity occurs within 24-72 hours, while death in horses is delayed and not expected until 4-5 days after exposure. |
|
Definition
False
Horses die within 24-72 hours
Cattle die within 4-5 days |
|
|
Term
Pulmonary edema and CHF lesions in the liver are classic signs of monensin toxicity in:
a. Horses
b. Cattle
c. Dogs
d. A and B
e. A and C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: monensin has synergism with tiamulin, which can lead to rapid death in pigs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___________ (species) get acute necrotizing myositis and myoglobinuria associated with monensin toxicity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Anorexia, diarrhea, depression, weakness, ataxia, sternal recumbency, paralysis, skeletal/cardiac/liver/GI lesions, cardiac hypertrophy, ascites, infertile eggs, early embryonic death, weak at hatching, and infertility that gradually returns 3-4 weeks post exposure occurs in birds with ____________ toxicity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: and ECG is useful for determining the prognosis of an animal with monensin toxicity. |
|
Definition
True
Prolonged AV depolarization, prolonged repolarization, depressed ST, increased S amplitude, increased T wave, PVCs, tachycardia, arrhythmias, AV block, or A-fib all worsen the prognosis. |
|
|
Term
Increases in all of the following EXCEPT ___________ are helpful in diagnosing ionophore toxicity.
a. AST, CPK, protein
b. Serum K, Na, Ca
c. Urine glucose, urine protein
d. Myoglobin
e. Hemoglobin |
|
Definition
b. Serum K, Na, Ca
These will be decreased. Also, urine SG will be decreased. |
|
|
Term
| When submitting skeletal muscle samples for ionophore diagnostics, what muscles should be included (4 of them)? |
|
Definition
1. Diaphragm
2. Quadriceps
3. Medial septum (heart??)
4. Both ventricles of heart |
|
|
Term
| T/F: there is no specific antidote for ionophore toxicity. |
|
Definition
True
Reduce stress, give activated charcoal early, saline cathartics if no diarrhea, fluids for shock |
|
|
Term
| ____________ and ______________ can be given to help treat ionophore toxicity, but must be given before clinical signs occur to help reduce effects. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: ionophores help improve efficiency of production by suppressing Gram + and favoring Gram - bacterial growth. This helps favor the production of proprionate and succinate, while reducing acetate, butyrate, hydrogen, ammonia, and lactic acid, leading to reduced ketosis, increased ruminal escape of dietary protein, decreased rumen ammonia formation, and milk fat depression with little effect on the lactose or protein content of milk. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: lasalocid is 5-10x more toxic to horses than monensin. |
|
Definition
| False: lasalocid is 5-10x less toxic |
|
|
Term
| ___________________ is used in baby calves as an anti-cryptosporidial drench or added to milk replacer in newborn calves. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
______________ causes a flaccid, ascending paralysis in dogs, leading to respiratory paralysis within a few hours and making botulism a top differential.
a. Salt toxicity
b. Monensin
c. Lasalocid
d. Urea
e. Mycotoxins |
|
Definition
c. Lasalocid
In baby calves, toxicity can cause reduced metabolism and heart failure with high death losses. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: dogs often recover from lasalocid toxicity with little other than supportive care. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_________________ is a beta-adrenergic agonist that enhances growth by repartitioning nutrients such that lean tissue grows over fat. However, its use has led to increases in "downer" pigs near finishing or at packing plants such that cautions are given for using when there is stressful handling of pigs.
a. Urea
b. Lasalocid
c. Monensin
d. Phenylarsenics
e. Ractopamine |
|
Definition
e. Ractopamine
Note that using 18g/ton of feed improves feed efficiency by 13% |
|
|
Term
| _____________ is a polyphenolic pigment found in the glands of the cotton seed and appear as tiny black spots in de-linted seed. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: cottonseed products are high in lysine and tryptophan. |
|
Definition
| False: cottonseed products are low in lysine and tryptophan. |
|
|
Term
The mechanism of ____________ is unknown, but some thoughts include inhibition of protein synthesis, iron chealation, interference with oxidative processes, cardiotoxic, inhibition of spermatogenesis, and binding iron in egg yolks leading to green egg yolks.
a. Ractopamine
b. Salt toxicity
c. Gossypol
d. Urea
e. Monensin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: increased dietary iron interferes with the absorption of gossypol, resulting in decreased toxicity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ________________ and ______________ are usually considered resistant to gossypol, while ____________ (category of animals) are considered susceptible. |
|
Definition
Ruminants and horses = resistant
Monogastrics (except horses) susceptible--swine, pre-ruminant lambs, calves, dogs, rabbits, guinea pigs |
|
|
Term
| T/F: toxicity to gossypol is cumulative. |
|
Definition
True
4 weeks to 1 year exposure |
|
|
Term
Slow growth, anorexia, weight loss, weakness, dyspnea, emaciation, generalized edema, and death are clinical signs associated with gossypol toxicity in:
a. Swine
b. Pre-ruminants
c. Dogs
d. Horses
e. Dairy cows |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Congestive heart failure and sudden death are clinical signs associated with gossypol toxicity in:
a. Swine
b. Pre-ruminants
c. Dogs
d. Horses
e. Dairy cows |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Poor fertility is a clinical sign associated with gossypol toxicity in:
a. Swine
b. Pre-ruminants
c. Dogs
d. Horses
e. Dairy cows |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ill thrift, decreased production, and decreased fertility are clinical signs associated with gossypol toxicity in:
a. Swine
b. Pre-ruminants
c. Dogs
d. Horses
e. Dairy cows |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: gossypol toxicity can result in widespread congestion, edema, ascites, hydrothorax, degenerative hepatocytes, biliary fibrosis, and myocardial necrosis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Measuring free gossypol levels in feed, as well as histopath of the ___________ and ___________ can help diagnose toxicity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Treatment of gossypol toxicity involves all of the following except:
a. Supplementing free gossypol
b. Supplementing iron at a 1:1 ratio with gossypol
c. Supplementing Vitamin A
d. Supplementing lysine
e. Supplementing protein |
|
Definition
a. Supplementing free gossypol
Free gossypol is toxic, while bound gossypol is non-toxic |
|
|
Term
| T/F: contamination of hauled water can be a source of urea poisoning in animals. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ______________ is hydrolyzed to ammonia by the action of ___________ (enzyme) in the rumen. If there is high ammonia in the rumen, then it will be absorbed into the blood and cause clinical signs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The optimum temperature for urease activity is ____ C, and the optimum pHis ___-____. |
|
Definition
49C
7.7-8.0
This is why samples must be kept frozen or cold! Ammonia will increase in samples not kept cool. |
|
|
Term
All of the following are factors that can contribute to urea poisoning EXCEPT:
a. Fasting/low energy diet
b. Low rumen pH
c. High rumen temperature
d. Hepatic insufficiency
e. Low intake of natural protein |
|
Definition
b. low rumen pH
High rumen pH (7.7-8.0) predisposes for urea poisoning. |
|
|
Term
FYI slide:
Urea lethal doses:
Ruminant: 1.0-1.5 g/kg (0.3-0.5 g/kg is usually toxic)
Horse: 4 g/kg lethal
Pig: doses up to 100 g/kg are non-toxic--increase diuresis and BUN |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: urea poisoning is cumulative and chronic. |
|
Definition
| False: rapid onset 10 minutes to 4 hours after ingestion |
|
|
Term
Frothy salivation, teeth grinding, abdominal pain, bloat, regurgitation, polyruia, muscle tremors, incoordination, weakness, rapid breathing, violent struggling, terminal tetanic spasms, and acute death are all clinical signs of ____________ toxicity.
a. Ractopamine
b. Urea
c. Gossypol
d. Lasalocid
e. Cyanide |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____________, ___________, and ____________ are three differentials for urea poisoning. |
|
Definition
Organophosphate toxicity
Soybean overload
4-methyl imidazole |
|
|
Term
| A rumen content of >_____ mg/dl, a serum level of > ____ mg/dl, and aqueous humor of > ____ mg/dl ammonia nitrogen is usually diagnostic for urea poisoning. |
|
Definition
Rumen: >80 mg/dl
Serum > 2 mg/dl (clinical signs @ >1 mg/dl)
Aqueous humor > 2 mg/dl (1.5 mg/dl suspect) |
|
|
Term
All of the following are acceptable therapeutic options for urea poisoning EXCEPT:
a. Activated charcoal
b. Cold water into the rumen
c. Acetic acid (vinegar) into the rumen
d. Rumenotomy
e. All of the above are acceptable methods |
|
Definition
a. Activated charcoal
Activated charcoal is ineffective. All other therapies are directed at stopping further ammonia production in the rumen by cooling it or lowering the rumen pH. |
|
|
Term
All of the following are acceptable therapeutic options for urea poisoning EXCEPT:
a. Activated charcoal
b. Cold water into the rumen
c. Acetic acid (vinegar) into the rumen
d. Rumenotomy
e. All of the above are acceptable methods |
|
Definition
a. Activated charcoal
Activated charcoal is ineffective. All other therapies are directed at stopping further ammonia production in the rumen by cooling it or lowering the rumen pH. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: urea is an economical source of non-protein nitrogen in the ruminant, and is slowly incorporated by rumen microbes into microbial protein. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___________________ is caused by imidazoles in the hay formed by a browning reaction with amino groups and a reducing sugar. It usually occurs when ammoniation is applied to higher quality forages and the ammonia interacts with higher levels of reducing sugars. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: temperatures >70 C during formation promotes hyperexcitable imidazoles. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___________ causes trembling and wild stampeding interrupted by periods of calm. Rapid blinking, involuntary ear twitching, dilated pupils, rapid respiration, salivation, urination, bellowing, and seizures are all clinical signs.
a. Phenylarsonics
b. Nitrates
c. Imidazoles
d. Urea
e. Monensin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: routine assays for imidazoles in the forage, milk, and serum are the most common methods for diagnosing Bovine Bonkers Syndrome. |
|
Definition
| False: assays are not routinely offered. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: thiamine is a recommended treatment for bovine bonkers syndrome. |
|
Definition
True
Also give sedatives. Rapid recovery usually occurs when feed is removed. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: phenylarsonics, such as roxarsone, are sometimes used as a growth promotant and to treat swine dysentery. |
|
Definition
True
25-37.5ppm = growth promotant
200ppm for 6 days = tx swine dysentery
250ppm for 3-10 days = toxicosis |
|
|
Term
____________ causes peripheral neuromuscular degeneration and demyelination, leading to reduced motor control, hypermetria, blindness, occasional torticollis, episodes of muscle tremors and seizures, and incoordination due to lack of proprioception in pigs (mainly).
a. Phenylarsonic toxicity
b. Nitrate toxicity
c. Salt toxicity
d. Mycotoxins
e. Imidazole toxicity |
|
Definition
| a. Phenylarsonic toxicity |
|
|
Term
| Phenylarsonic toxicity will often look like selenium toxicity, but the difference is that with selenium toxicity ________________________________. |
|
Definition
| Hoof/skin lesions will be present |
|
|
Term
| Analysis of the __________ or ___________ can be used for phenylarsonic diagnosis, but these tissues have short residue time. For long term residues, the ____________ should be used. In addition, histopathology of the _____________ nerve will reveal demyelination. |
|
Definition
Liver, kidney--short residue time
Brain--long residue time
Sciatic nerve--histopath |
|
|
Term
| T/F: phenylarsonic toxicity has a relatively short recovery time when treated with good nursing care, B vitamins, and clean feed. |
|
Definition
False: relatively long recovery time
Change to clean feed
Treat with nursing care, B vitamins
Watch for pneumonia |
|
|
Term
| T/F: nitrite salts are directly toxic without the action of gut bacteria. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This compound, when combined with hemoglobin, forms MetHb, which cannot carry oxygen because the iron molecule is oxidized from ferrous(2+) to ferric(3+) iron.
a. Urea
b. Lasalocid
c. Imidazole
d. Nitrate
e. Carbonate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _________________ (group of animals) are most susceptible to nitrate toxicity, while ________, __________, and _________ are considered resistant. |
|
Definition
Ruminants most susceptible
Horses, pigs, dogs resistant |
|
|
Term
Achlorhydria leading to higher bacterial populations in the gut and causing "blue baby" syndrome in human infants is caused by:
a. Nitrate toxicity
b. Gossypol toxicity
c. Mycotoxins
d. Phenylarsonic toxicity
e. Urea toxicity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following predispose to nitrate toxicity except:
a. Adaptation to previous exposure
b. High dietary energy
c. Endogenous nitrate reductase in plants
d. Drought
e. Methemoglobin reductase activity in animals |
|
Definition
b. High dietary energy
Should say low dietary energy |
|
|
Term
| Clinical signs of nitrate toxicity occur when methemoglobin concentrations reach ___-___%, and death occurs when they reach ___-___%. |
|
Definition
1-3% normal
20-40% clinical signs
50-90% death |
|
|
Term
| Salivation and frequent urination are early signs of this toxicant. Later, anoxia leads to dyspnea, rapid weak pulses, cyanotic to brown MM, weakness, ataxia, tremors, low tolerance to exercise, and death within a few minutes to 24 hours. Abortions due to anoxia usually occur 1-3 days after exposure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: rapid freezing of suspect samples of nitrate toxicity is required for diagnostics. |
|
Definition
False: MetHb rapidly decays after collection, so diagnostic value is limited. Rapid freezing may or may not adequately preserve the MetHb.
For diagnostics, use aqueous humor or vitreous eye fluid:
Normal is <10ppm
High >20ppm
Abortions >30-40ppm
Acute death >100ppm |
|
|
Term
| __% nitrate on a dry matter basis is considered diagnostic for nitrate toxicity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The antidote for nitrate toxicity is:
a. Activated charcoal
b. Digoxin
c. Methylene blue
d. Saline cathartics
e. Furosemide |
|
Definition
c. Methylene blue
Also want to do rumen lavage with cold water and oral penicilling to help slow the reduction of nitrate to nitrite
Big thing is prevention: know major sources and circumstances for nitrate risk, introduce ruminants to high risk forages slowly, provide readily utilized energy source, recognize causes of nitrate accumulation (drought, plant species, frost damage) |
|
|
Term
| T/F: in nitrate toxicity, nitrite is converted to nitrate by bacteria in the stomach or rumen. |
|
Definition
| False: nitrATE is converted to nitrITE |
|
|
Term
| T/F: the older the plant, the higher the risk of cyanide toxicity. |
|
Definition
False: young, rapidly growing plants have the highest risk.
Other risk factors:
1. Wilting/frost--release beta glucosidase
2. Drought
3. Stress
4. Increased Temperature
5. Decreased light
6. Soil pH |
|
|
Term
| T/F: selective breeding and genetic modification have decreased cyanide toxicity potential. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_____________ interferes with cytochrome oxidase, inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation such that tissues can't accept oxygen from oxyhemoglobin. As a result, blood remains bright red, while tissues become hypoxic.
a. Nitrate
b. Cyanide
c. Urea
d. Phenylarsonic
e. Imidazole |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What species has a beta-glucosidase, which increases its toxicity to cyanide?
a. Cow
b. Horse
c. Dog
d. Cat
e. Pig |
|
Definition
a. Cow--ruminants in general
Glycoside-->beta-glucosidase-->glucose + HCN |
|
|
Term
| T/F: equine sorghum/cystitis may be due to cyanide toxicity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ______________ is a rapid, violent toxicant that causes initial excitement and muscle tremors within 30 minutes. It then produces polypnea, dyspnea, histotoxic anoxia that rapidly affects the CNS, seizures, and rapid progression to coma. The mucus membranes, however, appear well oxygenated. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Blood that clots slowly, appears well oxygenated, and and animal that has agonal petichial hemorrhages would have a most likely diagnosis of _______________ toxicity. To be sure samples should be frozen/cooled/warmed, and ______________ acid paper can be used for a quick test of plants. |
|
Definition
Cyanide
Frozen
Picric acid paper |
|
|
Term
| The antidote for cyanide toxicity is __________________, and it works by forming methemoglobin, which forms CNMetHb, such that it binds with thiosulfate and is excreted as thiocyanate. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: the antidote for cyanide toxicity must be administered very quickly and should be followed with administration of sodium thiosulfate to form thiocyanate for excretion. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Mycotoxins are products of molds. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Individual filaments of molds are termed _________________, while masses of filaments are termed _________________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| __________________ are metabolites of fungi that are recognized and toxic to other life forms. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: mycotoxins are relatively unstabile. |
|
Definition
| False: they are relatively stabile once formed. |
|
|
Term
The basic needs for fungal growth include all of the following except:
a. Energy
b. Moisture
c. Temperature
d. Oxygen
e. pH |
|
Definition
e. pH
Maybe it is a need, but it wasn't in the notes! |
|
|
Term
| T/F: mold spore counts can predict mycotoxin production. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: visual inspection of feed is effective at detecting mycotocin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The black light test for mycotoxin detection is useful only for:
a. Aflatoxin
b. Ochratoxin
c. Tricothecene
d. Zearalenone
e. Ergot Alkaloid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: mold inhibitors suppress mold growth but do not destroy mycotoxins and will not restore grain quality. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Factors favoring aflatoxin production include all of the following except:
a. 78-90 degree temperatures
b. Drought stress
c. Insect damage
d. Low relative humidity
e. Grain moisture |
|
Definition
d. Low relative humidity
High relative humidity favors aflatoxin. |
|
|
Term
_________________ is metabolized to an epoxide that bidns to nucleic acids, which inhibits protein synthesis and results in liver damage.
a. Ochratoxin
b. Zearalenone
c. Ergot alkaloid
d. Aflatoxin
e. Slaframine |
|
Definition
d. Aflatoxin
Carcinogenic in laboratory animals |
|
|
Term
| Young/Old animals are generally more at risk of aflatoxin poisoning. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: the black light test for aflatoxin is a quantitative test. |
|
Definition
False: qualitative--"firefly" or bright green-yellow fluorescence is positive. Best if grain is cracked.
Other diagnostic include increased liver enzymes and decreased liver products (TP, albumin, globulins, coagulation factors) |
|
|
Term
| The FDA action level for milk levels of aflatoxin is ____ ppb. |
|
Definition
0.5 parts per BILLION
Associated with human liver cancer, primarily where hepatitis virus exists concurrently. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: tricothecene is associated with crib-stored ear corn. |
|
Definition
| False: ochratoxin is associated with crib-stored ear corn. |
|
|
Term
| __________________ is a mycotoxin that causes "blue eye" of corn kernels. In animals with toxicity, it causes toxic tubular damage to the kidneys and is often accompanied by gastric ulcers. Affected animals have hyposthenuria, PU/PD, and survivors may have chronic renal scars. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Tricothecene production is favored by cool temperatures or alternating cool/warm temperatures and higher moisture >20%. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: feed refusal makes toxicity to tricothecene self-limiting. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are effects of tricothecene toxicity except:
a. Radiomimetic syndrome--pancytopenia, diarrhea
b. Necrotizing to mucosae and skin
c. Profuse salivation 30 minutes after ingestion
d. Lymphoid depletion of the GIT and thymic involution/suppression
e. Immunosuppression, specifically of CMI |
|
Definition
c. Profuse salivation
This is slaframine toxicity |
|
|
Term
The species most susceptible to vomitoxin (deoxynivalenol) is the:
a. Cow
b. Horse
c. Dog
d. Bird
e. Pig |
|
Definition
e. Pig--reduced feed intake at 1ppm; vomiting at 5-8ppm
Dairy cattle tolerate up to 6ppm
Beef cattle tolerate up to 10-12 ppm
Horses similar to cattle
Dogs similar to pigs (so could have said c as well) |
|
|
Term
| _________________ is a mycotoxin that is estrogenic. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are the result of zearalenone toxicity except:
a. Swollen genitalia
b. Straining and rectal prolapse
c. Abortion
d. Implantation failure
e. Decreased libido/fertility |
|
Definition
c. Abortion
Zearalenone is leutotropic and is NOT abortive. At low levels, it can produce hyperestrogenism, at medium levels it can produce anestrus, and at high levels, it can produce embryonic loss due to implantation failure. |
|
|
Term
| Fumonisins most affect which two species? |
|
Definition
Horses
Swine
Equine > swine > ruminants > poultry |
|
|
Term
_____________ causes a leukoencephalomalacia in horses manifested as stumbling, blindness, ataxia, depression, anorexia, and high mortality. In swine, it produces pulmonary edema that manifests as dyspnea, cyanosis, weakness, and death within 3-4 hours. It is carcinogenic.
a. Zearalenone
b. Fumonisins
c. Ergot alkaloid
d. Aflatoxin
e. Tremorogenic mycotoxins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| With ergot alkaloid toxicity, _______________(mold name) invades the ovary of the grass flower during maturation, forming sclerotia in place of the normal seed or kernel. |
|
Definition
Claviceps purpurea
The sclerotia contain ergopeptide alkaloids that are similar in action to ergovaline from tall fescue. |
|
|
Term
Ergot alkaloid most commonly affects:
a. Cattle
b. Horses
c. Dogs
d. Cats
e. Swine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is LEAST likely to occur as a result of ergot alkaloid toxicity?
a. Peripheral gangrene
b. Abortion
c. Prolactin inhibition resulting in non-inflammatory agalactia and starvation of neonates
d. Hyperthermia/heat intolerance
e. Hyperexcitability/tremors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Sclerotia associated with ergot alkaloids are allowed in hay an grain on a wt basis as long as they are ___%. It is best if they are <___% though. |
|
Definition
0.3% allowed
Best if <0.1% |
|
|
Term
| T/F: ergot alkaloids are rapidly excreted. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Slaframine:
a. is associated with the mold Rhizoctonia legumincola
b. is associated with red clover and sometimes other legumes
c. is favored by cool, wet weather
d. is bioactivated by the liver microsomes to a parasympathomimetic quaternary amine very similar to acetylcholine
e. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| __________________ causes profuse salivation about 30 minutes after ingestion, but stops a few hours after ingestion ceases. Horses and cattle are the most affected. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___________________ are indole structures similar to lysergic acid.
a. Slaframine
b. Penitrem A
c. Roquefortine
d. A and B
e. B and C |
|
Definition
e. B and C
Both are Penicillium fungi
Penitrem A--moldy cream cheese, bread, macaroni & cheese, walnuts
Roquefortine--moldy blue cheese, cream cheese, decaying organic matter (compost) |
|
|
Term
____________ are most affected by tremorogenic mycotoxins.
a. Cattle
b. Horses
c. Dogs
d. Cats
e. Swine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Tremorogenic mycotoxins:
a. Produce cumulative, chronic clinical effects
b. Can often look like strychnine poisoning in advanced cases, as animals are often hyperresponsive to external stimuli and have tetanic seizures, hyperthermia, exhaustion, and dehydration
c. are often associated with ingestion of grasses growing Claviceps purpurea
d. Can be diagnosed with the use of a black light on feedstuffs |
|
Definition
b. looks like strychnine
Treat these animals with diazepam or methocarbamol, decontaminate with activated charcoal and saline cathartic, administer IV fluids
Recovery is usually within 24-48 hours with aggressive treatment. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: the final product of any distiller plant is ethanol. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: the majority of error in feed analysis is from feed sampling. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The optimum size of feed particles for swine is _____________ microns, while the optimum size of feed particles for cattle is _______________. A particle standard deviation greater than ____ is undesireable and promotes ingredient separation. |
|
Definition
Swine: 700-800 microns
Cattle: 1628 microns for feed efficiency and 1744 microns for maximum gain
Standard deviation greater than 2 is undesireable |
|
|
Term
| T/F: use of mold spores or mold counts are a good indicator of mold growth and toxin production, but are a poor indicator of sporulation. |
|
Definition
| False: use of mold spores/mold counts are a POOR indicator of mold growth and toxin production, but are an indicator of sporulation (reproduction). |
|
|
Term
| The #1 nutrient for all species is ________________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: the amount of feed intake directly impacts water intake. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Coliforms in water:
a. Are indicators of fecal contamination, sanitation, and degree of pollution
b. Are reported as # per 100ml, and must be <3/100ml to reach EPA human standards
c. Include E. coli, Enterobacter, Klebsiella, and Aeromonas
d. Are defined as any bacteria capable of fermenting lactose with the production of acid and gas in 48 hours at 35C under aerobic conditions, and are found naturally in the intestines of warm-blooded animals and humans
e. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: the presence of Enterococcus is a good indicator of fecal contamination of recreation surface water. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: iron bacteria, found in wells, produces a foul smelling slime that clogs pumps and fixtures, and is of significant health concern to animals drinking from infected wells. |
|
Definition
| False: it does produce foul smelling slime, but it is not of direct health concern |
|
|
Term
| The best thing we can look at in animal water is ________________. |
|
Definition
| Salinity (total dissolved solids--TDS) |
|
|
Term
The risk for health problems associated with water of increased TDS goes up when ________________ is a major part of the salinity.
a. Calcium
b. Sulfate
c. Nitrite
d. Nitrate + Nitrite
e. Magnesium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hardness refers to:
a. The total dissolved solids that are present within animal drinking water
b. The calcium and magnesium content of the water expressed as their equivalent carbonate vs. water volume or weight |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: hardness alone has little health implication in animal drinking water |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When collecting water for testing:
a. A sample of 50 mL is adequate
b. A clean, plastic container is best
c. A mid-stream sample should be collected
d. Water should be kept at room temperature and transported rapidly to the lab
e. All of the above |
|
Definition
c. a mid-stream sample should be collected
A sample of one pint is adequate
A clean, GLASS container is best
Water should be COOL and transported rapidly
Collect untreated water near source |
|
|
Term
A primary water analysis includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Calcium levels
b. Total dissolved solids
c. Nitrates
d. Sulfates
e. Coliforms |
|
Definition
a. Calcium levels--this is part of secondary testing
Secondary is done if TDS high: sodium, magnesium, chloride, calcium, potassium, manganese |
|
|
Term
Disinfection methods for water include:
a. UV light
b. Chloride
c. Peroxide
d. Ozone (O3)
e. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most common byproduct of water chlorination is _______________, which include chloroform. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: trihalomethanes are carcinogens and of significant consequence to animals. |
|
Definition
| False: they are carcinogens, but are of little consequence to animals |
|
|
Term
Polioencephalomalacia is a major concern for cattle with:
a. High sulfur diets
b. Thiamine deficiency
c. Salt toxicosis
d. Lead toxicosis
e. All of the above |
|
Definition
e. All of the above
Will see flattened gyri and cerebellar coning |
|
|
Term
| T/F: urine sulfhemaglobin is a good measure in a live animal to determine sulfur toxicosis. |
|
Definition
False--use serum sulfide concentration, measure rumen gas cap hydrogen sulfide concentration with gas tubes, measure urine thiosulfate
Post-mortem--gross and microscopic examination |
|
|
Term
| T/F: mycotoxins are concentrated 3-fold during fermentation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The FDA/CVM approved the use of virginiamycin with dextrose to help in the control of distiller toxicity issues when the antibiotic is:
a. Added during the fermetation phase
b. Used at a rate of 2-6 ppm
c. Has a maximum residue level of 0.2-0.5 ppm in the resulting co-product, with the maximum value dependent upon the addition rate
d. A and B
e. A, B, and C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
High sulfur diets:
a. Contribute to polioencephalomalacia development
b. Contribute to acute interstitial pneumonia due to eructated gas
c. Interfere with zinc absorption and affect hoof quality
d. Contribute to copper depletion
e. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _________________ is a layman's term for new bone growth on the proximal, middle, or distal phalanx, often with degeneration of joint surfaces due to a skewed Ca:P ratio. |
|
Definition
Ringbone
Ca:P ratio is altered in distillation--increase concentration and bioavailability of phosphorous in corn co-products; see increased incidence of milk fever in older cows and urinary calculi in steers on high inclusion rates. Want ratio to be closer to 2:1 |
|
|
Term
The species most commonly affected by garbage toxicosis is the:
a. Dog
b. Cat
c. Horse
d. Cow
e. Pig |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The most common cause of clostridial enterotoxemia is:
a. C. tetani
b. C. botulinum
c. C. novyi
d. C. perfringens
e. C. chauvoei |
|
Definition
d. C. perfringens
Types C and D are the most common causes
Types A and E less frequent--E not seen in US |
|
|
Term
| T/F: garbage intoxication can often look like acute abdomen. |
|
Definition
True
WTF is acute abdomen??? |
|
|
Term
| T/F: emesis is often indicated with endotoxemia. |
|
Definition
| False-ish...can try it, but likely won't work like it does for enterotoxemia. |
|
|
Term
| In addition to recognizing the appropriate clinical signs of botulism, what else needs to be done to diagnose botulism? |
|
Definition
| Need to ID toxin in serum, vomitus, ingesta, or feces |
|
|
Term
The most probable exposure to C. botulinum toxin is from:
a. waterfowl
b. carrion
c. Low protein garbage
d. A and B
e. A, B, and C |
|
Definition
d. A and B
C should be high protein garbage |
|
|
Term
Canine cases of botulism have all been type:
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E |
|
Definition
C
Dogs may be less sensitive than mice
Pups more sensitive |
|
|
Term
| T/F: botulism toxin inhibits the release of acetylcholine. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A bird dog comes into your clinic with clinical signs of vomiting, pain in the anterior abdomen, salivation, dry eyes, rear limb weakness, deep tendon reflexes, gagging, and depressed pupillary reflexes. The owner reports that he had been hunting waterfowl yesterday morning. What is your most likely diagnosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The trivalent botulism antitoxin contains types ___,___, and ____. |
|
Definition
A, B, E
If you have a dog that is affected, type C should be used if available.
Also administer activated charcoal, Penicillin G, and physostigmine/neostigmine as needed. |
|
|
Term
________________ affects nerve synapses by working as a postsynaptic cholinergic nicotinic agonist, resulting in depolarization of the neuromuscular blockade and tetanus-like paralysis.
a. Anatoxin
b. Saxitoxin
c. Microcystis
d. Aphanizomenon |
|
Definition
a, Anatoxin
See emesis, muscle fasciculations, weakness, convulsions, paralysis, and possible death within minutes after ingestion. Also see acute hepatocellular necrosis. |
|
|
Term
______________ is a unicellular cyanobacteria that is microscopic in size and produces an acute hepatocellular necrosis.
a. Anabaena
b. Saxitoxin
c. Microcystis
d. Aphanizomenon |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_____________ functions by decreasing Ach at the motor endplate and shares two toxins with paralytic shellfish poison: saxitoxin and neosaxitoxin. Clinical signs include weakness, staggering, loss of muscle coordination, difficulty in swallowing, labored respiration, complete muscle paralysis, and death.
a. Anabaena
b. Saxitoxin
c. Microcystis
d. Aphanizomenon |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: no specific antidote is available for blue-green algae toxicosis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following best categorizes Anabaena, Microcystis, and Aphanizomenon?
a. Molds
b. Enterotoxins
c. Blue-green algae
d. Insect venoms
e. None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Gases exist in a vapor state at the normal range of ambient temperature. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are traditional routes of gas exposure except:
a. Respiratory
b. Dermal absorption
c. Ingestion
d. Ocular absorption |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The critical factor in ventilation failure is:
a. Oxygen depletion
b. Hyperthermia
c. Carbon dioxide increase
d. Moisture increase |
|
Definition
| b. Hyperthermia--results from metabolic activity of large animals, thermal input from exterior (summer), inadequate building ventilation, heat generated by manure stored in pits. |
|
|
Term
______________ is a direct irritant and oxidant that causes lipid peroxidation. It is heavier than air and accumulates in low areas. It is a strong irritant to the eyes, respiratory tract, and lungs, and has a detectable odor.
a. Nitrogen Dioxide
b. Methane
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Ammonia
e. Carbon monoxide |
|
Definition
| a. Nitrogen dioxide--forms HNO2 |
|
|
Term
All of the following are TYPICAL clinical signs associated with nitrogen dioxide except:
a. Coughing
b. Asphyxiation
c. Pulmonary edema, hyperemia, hemorrhage, emphysemia, and bronchitis
d. Reddened mucous membranes
e. Laxrimation, salivation, fever |
|
Definition
b. Asphyxiation
I'm sure it can happen, as nitrogen dioxide can be fatal, but asphyxiation was the major problem with METHANE |
|
|
Term
| _______________ is an odorless gas that displaces oxygen, leading to asphyxiation at very high levels, though it is not considered to be toxic. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: carbon dioxide is odorless, heavier than air, and can cause respiratory distress and coma. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ammonia:
a. Reduces pulmonary bacterial clearance, and decreases feed intake and growth rate at low levels
b. Causes eye and respiratory irritation, salivation, lacrimation, and corneal damage at medium to high levels
c. Can cause decreased egg production in birds
d. Can cause terminal signs of cyanosis, violent struggling, and clonic convulsions.
e. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___________________ is a direct irritant to the eyes an lungs with cyanide-like effects (carotid body, cytochrome oxidase inhibition). It collects in low places and is formed by anaerobic decomposition of amino acids.
a. Ammonia
b. Carbon monoxide
c. Nitrogen dioxide
d. Hydrogen sulfide
e. Anhydrous ammonia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: hydrogen sulfide can cause olfactory paralysis at 200 ppm. |
|
Definition
True
Lower than 200ppm--offensive odor, irritating to eyes and respiratory tract
>500 ppm--pulmonary edema, potentially lethal
>1000ppm--respiratory paralysis and collapse
>3000 ppm--death after a few violent gasps |
|
|
Term
Which of the following clinical signs is SPECIFIC to hydrogen sulfide toxicity?
a. Dark blood that fails to clot
b. Tissue cyanosis
c. Asphyxiation
d. Decreased egg production
e. Necrosis of cerebral cortex, white matter, globus pallidus, and brain stem. |
|
Definition
a. Dark blood that fails to clot
Also see coughing, lacrimation, nasal discharge, dyspnea, depression, fluid sounds in lungs, terminal cyanosis and convulsions. See edema in lung, intestine, and brain. |
|
|
Term
| _________ is a gas that is absorbed from the lung and combines with hemoglobin to form _______, which leads to anoxia. |
|
Definition
| Carbon monoxide combines with Hb to form COHb |
|
|
Term
| T/F: the affinity of Hb for CO is 300x more than Hb's affinity for oxygen. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: carbon monoxide poisoning should be expected in any animal rescued from a fire. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Carbon monoxide poisoning:
a. causes bright red blood due to the inherent color of COHb, with pink color of skin and MM
b. Causes necrosis of the cerebral cortex and white matter, globus pallidus, and brain stem
c. Causes drowsiness, weakness, incoordination, lethargy, coma, and death
d. Has ECG readings consistent with anoxia and necrosis of single heart muscle fibers
e. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: blood-tinged fetal thoracic fluid COHb >8% is evidence for a carbon-monoxide induced stillbirth in a fetus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: patients with carbon monoxide poisoning should not be put on hyperbaric or 100% oxygen, as it can cause permanent damage to the lungs. |
|
Definition
| False: patients put on hyperbaric or 100% oxygen recover more quickly. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: fetal hemoglobin is more susceptible to carbon monoxide than maternal hemoglobin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: endotoxin particulates may play a role as inflammatory mediators in swine production workers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: anhydrous ammonia attacks moisture rich tissues such as the cornea, MM, and respiratory epithelium, producing strong alkali burns of tissues. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Anhydrous ammonia:
a. Can cause acute death from laryngospasm
b. Causes sloughing of respiratory epithelium
c. Causes corneal opacity and blindness
d. Can predispose to secondary bacterial invasion
e. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Polytetrafluoroethylene:
a. Attacks moisture-rich tissues
b. Is formed when teflon or silverstone coated cooking pans are left on
c. Is most toxic to pet rabbits
d. Causes blood to become bright red due to anoxia
e. All of the above |
|
Definition
b. is formed when teflon or silverstone coated cooking pans become overheated
Most toxic to pet BIRDS
Causes acute respiratory distress, audible respiration, dyspnea, pulmonary hemorrhage/congestion |
|
|
Term
| Note that respiratory problems and perhaps death may occur in pet birds exposed to natural/liquid product gas leaks, ozone generator air cleaners, or any aerosol products |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Give the poem to know if a coral snake is really a coral snake. :-) |
|
Definition
| Red into yellow, kill a fellow |
|
|
Term
______________ venom is neurotoxic and works by non-depolarizing irreversible binding of the postsynaptic neuromuscular blockade.
a. Coral snake
b. Black widow spider
c. Rattlesnake
d. Brown recluse spider
e. Heloderma lizards |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are clinical signs of coral snake envenomation except:
a. Hypotension
b. CNS depression
c. Salivation
d. Ascending spastic paralysis
e. Death due to respiratory failure |
|
Definition
d. Ascending spastic paralysis
Should say ascending FLACCID paralysis
Also see tachycardia, +/- hemolysis, and bleeding with minimal tissue swelling |
|
|
Term
| T/F: antivenin for a coral snake bite is available and is effective if administered at any time following the bite. |
|
Definition
False: must be administered early to be effective.
There is potential for anaphylaxis, so close monitoring is essential. |
|
|
Term
_____________ snakes have characteristic elliptical pupils.
a. Coral snake
b. Rattlesnake
c. Copperhead snake
d. Cottonmouth snake
e. Anaconda |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: rattlesnake fangs are hollow and retractable such that they rotate and inject venom in a stabbing motion. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: newborn rattlesnakes are capable of striking and envenomating an attacker. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The toxin responsible for the formation of bradykinin and plasmin and present in both rattlesnake and lizard venoms is:
a. Cytotoxin
b. Neurotoxin
c. Hyaluronidase
d. Hemolysins
e. Kallikrein |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The component of rattlesnake venom that is important for spreading the venom through prey is:
a. Cytotoxin
b. Neurotoxin
c. Hyaluronidase
d. Hemolysins
e. Kallikrein |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The species most often affected by rattlesnake bite is the _____________, while the species more resistant to rattlesnake bites is the _____________. Note, however, that the latter species often has severe lesions due to the small size and delay before treatment. |
|
Definition
Dog most often affected--bites on head and front legs
Cats more resistant--bites on torso
Others:
Horses--bites on muzzle
Cattle--bites on tongue and muzzle |
|
|
Term
| T/F: rattlesnake antivenin will reverse the coagulopathy, thrombocytopenia, and paralysis associated with the venom, but cannot revers the tissue necrosis and renal damage that occurs. |
|
Definition
True
Other signs of rattlesnake venom: local pain and swelling, petechiation, ecchymosis, skin discoloration, hypotension and shock, tissue necrosis, sloughing of tissue |
|
|
Term
| T/F: the bite area of an animal with a rattlesnake bite should be kept below heart level. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: true vipers have a heat-sensing pit located between their eye and nostril on each side of the head, which is their mechanism for strike accuracy. |
|
Definition
False: these are pit vipers
True vipers lack heat-sensing pit organs; not a clinical issue in the US |
|
|
Term
| T/F: lizards deliver venom from the glands in their lower jaw by aggressive chewing action over grooved teeth. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: lizard venom flows by capillary action. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Lizard bites:
a. are very painful--lizards may still be attached to the patient when the patient presents
b. can cause hypotension and tachycardia
c. can cause an ascending flaccid paralysis
d. A and B
e. A, B, and C |
|
Definition
d. A and B
Lizard venom has kallikrein which causes pain and vasodilation (I think), but nothing that involves a neurotoxin. |
|
|
Term
______________ have an alpha-latrotoxin, a neurotoxin which binds presynaptically to cause increased presynaptic vesicle trafficking and release of neurotransmitters, leading to a large release of neurotransmitter followed by depletion.
a. Coral Snake
b. Black Widow Spider
c. Rattlesnake
d. Brown Recluse Spider
e. Gila Lizard |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A bite by a black widow spider:
a. can cause muscle fasciculations and severe abdominal pain
b. can cause ataxia and flaccid paralysis
c. can be treated by antivenin, narcotics, and benzodiazepenes
d. All of the above
e. None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Sphingomyelinase, an enzyme present in brown recluse spider venom (along with hyaluronidase and factors involved in neutrophil recruitment) functions to:
a. Allow the venom to spread
b. Cause platelet aggregation and inactivation of thrombotic mechanisms
c. Induce pain and hypotension
d. Produce bradykinin and plasmin
e. All of the above |
|
Definition
| b. Cause platelet aggregation and inactivation of thrombotic mechanisms |
|
|
Term
A human presents to your vet clinic because she is a trusted client and her own doctor didn't call her back. She has just returned from a camping trip and has a targetoid lesion with a dark central eschar and erythematous background. Based on your super awesome toxicology knowledge, what could have caused this?
a. Coral Snake venom
b. Black Widow spider venom
c. Rattlesnake venom
d. Brown Recluse spider venom
e. Bee sting |
|
Definition
d. Brown Recluse spider venom
After 2-5 weeks, would see the central portion slough with a deep, nonhealing ulcer
For some necrotic lesions, large lesions may require surgical debridement |
|
|
Term
| T/F: individual stings by Hymenoptera species may result in dose-related anaphylactic reaction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: massive envenomation of an animal by Hymenoptera species can cause death in non-allergic individuals. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bee and wasp venoms are mainly protein/alkaloid, while fire ant venom is mainly protein/alkaloid |
|
Definition
Bee/wasp is mostly protein
Fire ant is 95% alkaloid |
|
|
Term
The four possible reactions that can occur after a sting from a Hymenoptera species include all of the following except:
a. Local response
b. Regional response
c. Systemic/anaphylactic/type I hypersensitivity
d. Type III hypersensitivity
e. Type IV hypersensitivity |
|
Definition
d. Type III hypersensitivity
Remember that type IV is delayed type hypersensitivity
See edema, erythema, pain at site of sting
Anaphylaxis within minutes if it is going to occur |
|
|
Term
All of the following would be acceptable therapies for the various presentations of Hymenoptera stings except:
a. Lidocaine SC
b. Epinephrine SC or IV
c. IV fluids to combat shock
d. Topical corticosteroids
e. Local or regional antihistamines |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| __________________ are poisons secreted from the parotid glands caudal to the eye in toads. They are digitalis-like cardioactive compounds that bind the Na/K ATPase pump to alter heart rate and rhythm. _____________ are poisons secreted that are both vasoactive and neuroactive. |
|
Definition
Bufogenins--digitalis-like
Butotenines--vasoactive, neuroactive |
|
|
Term
The most common species affected by toads is the:
a. Dog
b. Cat
c. Horse
d. Cow
e. Pig |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Bufo americanus is the most toxic toad. |
|
Definition
| False--most mild effects--just see ptyalism when mouthed by pets. |
|
|
Term
Toad poisoning from oral exposure:
a. Causes immediate salivation, headshaking, and hyperemic mucous membranes
b. Causes convulsions, ataxia, nystagmus, and stupor
c. Causes trembling, tachycardia, ventricular fibrillations, and death
d. All of the above
e. None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: following oral exposure to toads, owners should aggressively wash the exposed animal's mouth prior to transporting it to the clinic. |
|
Definition
True
Then use emetics if whole toad was consumed and only ptyalism is observed
If advanced clinical signs, use sedative or anticonvulsants to control neurologic signs
Provide cardiac support
Give fluids and other supportive therapy as indicated |
|
|
Term
| _________________ is the toxin that is produced by blister beetles and is an extreme vesicant that induces erosions and ulcers on all mucous membranes, especially GI and urinary. It also causes myocardial necrosis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Cantharidin toxicity diminishes with storage. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The species most affected by cantharidin toxicity is the:
a. Dog
b. Cat
c. Horse
d. Cow
e. Pig |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: cantharidin toxicity is best treated with an antidote. |
|
Definition
False--no antidote
Give symptomatic support
Animals can undergo dehydration and shock--fluids |
|
|
Term
| Phallotoxins/Amatoxins are readily absorbed and resistant to stomach acid. |
|
Definition
Amatoxins
Phallotoxins are not orally absorbed |
|
|
Term
_____________ interfere with RNA polymerase, leading to decreased mRNA and protein synthesis, severely affecting cells with high metabolic rates.
a. Cytotoxins
b. Amatoxins
c. Phallotoxins
d. Sphingomyelinases
e. Hyaluronidases |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following would be least affected by amatoxin?
a. Hepatocytes
b. Proximal convoluted tubules of the kidney
c. Intestinal crypt cells
d. Neurons |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The following four phases describe toxicity with what agent?
1. Initial latent period
2. Gastroenteric phase
4. Second latent period of apparent recovery
4. Organ failure phase |
|
Definition
| Amanita Mushroom toxicity |
|
|
Term
| T/F: blue-green algae is a true algae |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_________________ are cyclic polypeptides that act on intermediate filaments and alter the cytoskeleton of hepatocytes, inducing cell membrane blebs, cell shrinkage, organelle redistribution, and DNA ladder formation.
a. Microcystins
b. Anatoxin-a
c. Anatoxin-a(s)
d. Amatoxin
e. Phallotoxin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
______________ is a depolarizing bicyclic amine that works at neuronal nicotinic membranes and neuromuscular junctions; it is also known as "fast death factor."
a. Microcystins
b. Anatoxin-a
c. Anatoxin-a(s)
d. Amatoxin
e. Phallotoxin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___________________ is an acetylcholinesterase that has increased activity followed by a neuromuscular block; it works ONLY on the periphery.
a. Microcystins
b. Anatoxin-a
c. Anatoxin-a(s)
d. Amatoxin
e. Phallotoxin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Microcystis/Anabaena causes severe liver damage with photosensitization and massive hepatic necrosis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Anatoxin-a/Anatoxin-a(s) produces salivation and lacrimation, while Anatoxin-a/Anatoxin-a(s) produces muscle tremors, rigidity, and paralysis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most common type of Clostridium botulinum is type ___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a route of exposure to botulism?
a. Ingestion of preformed toxin
b. Ingestion of spores
c. Self-infection from GI bacteria
d. Contamination of wounds with spores |
|
Definition
| c. Self-infection from GI bacteria |
|
|
Term
| T/F: botulism toxin works by inhibiting the docking, fusion, and release of acetylcholine from postsynaptic vesicles. |
|
Definition
| False: blocks presynaptic vesicles |
|
|
Term
| T/F: antitoxin for both botulism and tetanus is only effective against unbound toxin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The toxin responsible for blocking the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters (glycine and GABA) that normally dampen the actions of excitatory impulses, and which causes the clinical signs seen in tetanus is __________________. The toxin responsible for spore formation is ___________________. |
|
Definition
Tetanospasmin--does the heavy lifting
Tetanolysin--spore formation |
|
|
Term
| T/F: mortality from tetanus approaches 80% once clinical disease is apparent. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The scientific name for blister beetles is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia occur with cantharidin toxicity. |
|
Definition
|
|
