Term
Which of the following is a valid role for a Windows Server 2008 R2 computer?
A. Stand-alone server
B. Member server
C. Domain controller
D. All of the above |
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Definition
| D. Based on the business needs of an organization, a Windows 2008 R2 Server computer can be configured in any of the above roles. See Chapter 1 for more information. |
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Term
Which of the following is a benefit of using Active Directory? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Hierarchical object structure
B. Fault-tolerant architecture
C. Ability to configure centralized and distributed administration
D. Flexible replication |
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Definition
| A, B, C, D. All of the options listed are benefits of using Active Directory. See Chapter 1 for more information. |
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Term
Which of the following features of the Domain Name System (DNS) can be used to improve performance? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Caching-only servers
B. DNS forwarding
C. Secondary servers
D. Zone delegation |
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Definition
| A, B, C, D. One of the major design goals for DNS was support for scalability. All of the features listed can be used to increase the performance of DNS. See Chapter 2 for more information. |
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Term
Which of the following pieces of information should you have before you begin the Active Directory Installation Wizard? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Active Directory domain name
B. Administrator password for the local computer
C. NetBIOS name for the server
D. DNS configuration information |
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Definition
| A, B, C, D. Before beginning the installation of a domain controller, you should have all of the information listed. See Chapter 3 for more information. |
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Term
Which of the following single master operations apply to the entire forest? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Schema Master
B. Domain Naming Master
C. RID Master
D. Infrastructure Master |
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Definition
| A, B. There can be only one Domain Naming Master and one Schema Master per Active Directory forest. The purpose of the Domain Naming Master is to keep track of all the domains within an Active Directory forest. The Schema Master defines the Active Directory schema, which must be consistent across all domains in the forest. The remaining roles apply at the domain level. See Chapter 4 for more information. |
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Term
Trust relationships can be configured as which of the following? (Choose all that apply.)
A. One-way and transitive
B. Two-way and transitive
C. One-way and nontransitive
D. Two-way and nontransitive |
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Definition
| A, B, C, D. All of the trust configurations listed are possible. A one-way trust means that Domain A trusts Domain B but not the reverse. A two-way trust means that both Domain A and Domain B trust each other automatically. Transitive trusts are implied, meaning that if Domain A trusts Domain B, and Domain B trusts Domain C, then Domain A trusts Domain C. See Chapter 4 for more information. |
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Term
An Active Directory environment consists of three domains. What is the maximum number of sites that can be created for this environment?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Nine
D. Unlimited |
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Definition
| D. The number of sites in an Active Directory environment is independent of the domain organization. An environment that consists of three domains may have one or more sites, based on the physical network setup. See Chapter 5 for more information. |
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Term
What is the name of the list that shows removed certificates from a certificate server?
A. Certificate Removed List
B. Certificate Revocation List
C. Certificate Revoke List
D. Certificate Released List |
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Definition
| B. The Certificate Revocation List (CRL) shows all certificates that have been revoked. SeeChapter 6 for more information. |
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Term
Which of the following is not a valid Active Directory object?
A. User
B. Group
C. Organizational unit
D. Computer
E. None of the above |
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Definition
| E. All of the choices are valid types of Active Directory objects, and all can be created and managed using the Active Directory Users and Computers tool. See Chapter 7 for more information. |
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Term
Which of the following is not considered a security principal?
A. Users
B. Security groups
C. Distribution groups
D. Computers |
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Definition
| C. Permissions and security settings cannot be made on Distribution groups. Distribution groups are used only for sending email. See Chapter 7 for more information. |
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Term
Which of the following should play the least significant role in planning an OU structure?
A. Network infrastructure
B. Domain organization
C. Delegation of permissions
D. Group Policy settings |
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Definition
| A. In general, you can accommodate your network infrastructure through the use of Active Directory sites. All of the other options should play a significant role when you design your OU structure. Permissions and Group Policy can both be applied at the domain or OU level. SeeChapter 7 for more information. |
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Term
How can the Windows NT 4 file and printer resources be made available from within Active Directory?
A. A systems administrator can right-click the resource and select Publish.
B. A systems administrator can create Printer and Shared Folder objects that point to these resources.
C. The Active Directory Domains and Trusts tool can be used to make resources available.
D. Only resources on a Windows 2000 or above server can be accessed from within Active Directory. |
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Definition
| B. Printer and Shared Folder objects within Active Directory can point to Windows NT 4 file and printer resources, as well as Windows 2000, 2003, 2008, and Server 2008 R2 resources. SeeChapter 7 for more information. |
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Term
The process by which a higher-level security authority assigns permissions to other administrators is known as which of the following?
A. Inheritance
B. Delegation
C. Assignment
D. Trust |
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Definition
| B. Delegation is the process by which administrators can assign permissions on the objects within an OU. This is useful when administrators want to give other users more control over administrative functions in Active Directory. See Chapter 7 for more information. |
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Term
What is the minimum amount of information you need to create a Shared Folder Active Directory object?
A. The name of the share
B. The name of the server
C. The name of the server and the name of the share
D. The name of the server, the server's IP address, and the name of the share |
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Definition
| C. The name of the server and the name of the share make up the UNC (Universal Naming Convention) information required to create a Shared Folder object. See Chapter 7 for more information. |
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Term
Which of the following operations is not supported by Active Directory?
A. Assigning applications to users
B. Assigning applications to computers
C. Publishing applications to users
D. Publishing applications to computers |
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Definition
| D. Applications cannot be published to computers, but they can be published to users and assigned to computers. See Chapter 8 for more information. |
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Term
Which of the following file extensions is used primarily for Windows Installer setup programs?
A. .msi
B. .mst
C. .zap
D. .aas |
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Definition
| A. .msi files are native Windows Installer files used with Windows Installer setup programs. The other file types do not apply to this situation. See Chapter 8 for more information. |
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Term
A systems administrator wants to allow a group of users to add computer accounts to a specific organizational unit (OU). What is the easiest way to grant only the required permissions?
A. Delegate control of a user account.
B. Delegate control at the domain level.
C. Delegate control of an OU.
D. Delegate control of a computer account.
E. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) at the OU level. |
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Definition
| E. In order to allow this permission at the OU level, the systems administrator must create a GPO with the appropriate settings and link it to the OU. See Chapter 8 for more information. |
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Term
A Group Policy object (GPO) at the domain level sets a certain option to Disabled, while a GPO at the OU level sets the same option to Enabled. All other settings are left at their default. Which setting will be effective for objects within the OU?
A. Enabled
B. Disabled
C. No effect
D. None of the above |
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Definition
| A. Assuming that the default settings are left in place, the Group Policy setting at the OU level will take effect. See Chapter 8 for more information. |
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Term
Which of the following tools can be used to create Group Policy object (GPO) links to Active Directory?
A. Active Directory Users and Computers
B. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
C. Active Directory Sites and Services
D. Group Policy Management Console |
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Definition
| D. In Windows Server 2008 R2 you can create GPOs only by using the Group Policy Management Console. See Chapter 8 for more information. |
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Term
Which of the following statements regarding auditing and Active Directory is false?
A. Auditing prevents users from attempting to guess passwords.
B. Systems administrators should regularly review audit logs for suspicious activity.
C. Auditing information can be generated when users view specific information within Active Directory.
D. Auditing information can be generated when users modify specific information within Active Directory. |
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Definition
| A. The purpose of auditing is to monitor and record actions taken by users. Auditing will not prevent users from attempting to guess passwords (although it might discourage them from trying, if they are aware it is enabled). See Chapter 9 for more information. |
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Term
You do not know the Directory Services Recovery Mode (DSRM) password. How do you reset the DSRM password?
A. ADSI Edit
B. ntdsutil
C. Active Directory Users and Computers
D. Active Directory Sites and Services |
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Definition
| B. One of the tasks that you can perform in the ntdsutil command is the ability to reset the Directory Services Recovery Mode password. See Chapter 10 for more information. |
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Term
The seven layers of the OSI model do which of the following?
A. Map exactly to Windows 2000 networking services and components
B. Provide a useful conceptual framework for grouping services
C. A and B
D. None of the above |
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Definition
| B. The OSI model is a stylized network model that can be used to compare and contrast implementations from different vendors. See Chapter 11 for more information on the OSI model. |
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Term
Which of the following is not an OSI layer?
A. Session
B. Application
C. Presentation
D. Service |
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Definition
| D. The Session, Application, and Presentation layers are all part of the OSI model, but the Service layer isn't. See Chapter 11 for more information on the OSI layers. |
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Term
You want to set up VPN access for 30 users, and the connections must be encrypted. There is a central Windows Server 2008 R2 domain for your users. Which of the following is the most appropriate VPN solution in this case?
A. L2TP 1 IPsec
B. PPTP
C. Either A or B
D. None of the above |
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Definition
| C. L2TP 1 IPsec and PPTP can both be encrypted, and with the guidelines set forth in the question, either one would do the job. See Chapter 12 for more information. |
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Term
What is the IPsec Policy Agent?
A. It is an optional component that's required when using IPsec with Active Directory.
B. It is an optional component that's required when using IPsec without Active Directory.
C. It is an optional component that's required when using IPsec with L2TP.
D. It is a mandatory component that's required to use IPsec. |
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Definition
| D. The IPsec Policy Agent is the component that downloads IPsec policy settings from the local computer or Active Directory. Accordingly, its presence is required for IPsec to function. SeeChapter 12 for more information. |
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Term
To test whether a DNS server is answering queries properly, you can use which of the following tools?
A. The ping tool
B. The nslookup tool
C. The tracert tool
D. The ipconfig tool |
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Definition
| B. The nslookup tool allows you to look up name and address information. See Chapter 12 for more information. |
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Term
Which of the following is true about IPsec?
A. Can be used by itself
B. Can be used only with L2TP
C. Cannot be used with L2TP
D. Requires third-party software for Windows 2000 and newer |
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Definition
| A. IPsec is a stand-alone protocol included in Windows Server 2008 R2 that can be used by itself or in conjunction with the Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP). See Chapter 12 for more information. |
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Term
Which of the following protocols or services is not required for an Active Directory installation?
A. TCP/IP
B. DNS
C. LDAP
D. NetBEUI |
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Definition
| D. NetBEUI is deprecated, but the other three protocols are required for Active Directory. SeeChapter 12 for more information. |
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Term
The time to live (TTL) attached to a DNS record __________.
A. Cannot be used by a resolver; it can be used only by servers making recursive queries
B. Is used only by resolvers
C. Is used to determine how long to cache retrieved results
D. Is refreshed each time the record is modified |
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Definition
| C. The TTL indicates how long the record may be safely cached; it may or may not be modified when the record is created. See Chapter 13 for more information on TTL. |
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Term
To enable DHCP-DNS integration, you must do which of the following?
A. Configure the scope to allow it to use Dynamic DNS only.
B. Configure the server to allow it to use Dynamic DNS only.
C. Configure the scope and the server.
D. Configure the scope or the server. |
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Definition
| D. You can enable integration either on one scope only or on all scopes on a server. SeeChapter 13 for more information. |
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Term
You have installed the DHCP Server service on a member server in your domain and have configured a scope, but clients cannot lease an address. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The scope is not activated.
B. There are too many DHCP servers.
C. The DHCP server is not authorized.
D. The DHCP server is in another subnet. |
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Definition
| C. If the DHCP server isn't authorized, it will not answer lease requests; therefore, the client will end up with no address. See Chapter 13 for more information. |
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Term
Which of the following statements about Windows Server 2008 Dynamic DNS is true?
A. DDNS requires a Microsoft DHCP server to work.
B. The Windows Server 2008 DDNS server can interoperate with recent versions of BIND.
C. DDNS clients may not register their own addresses.
D. DDNS works only with Microsoft clients and servers. |
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Definition
| B. DDNS works with BIND 8.2 and later. See Chapter 13 for more information on DDNS. |
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Term
DHCP address range exclusions are assigned at which level?
A. Server level
B. Scope level
C. Superscope level
D. Multicast scope level |
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Definition
| B. Scopes or ranges of addresses can be assigned only at the scope level. The scope range includes the exclusion range. See Chapter 13 for more information. |
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Term
The DHCP relay agent serves which function on the network?
A. It listens for DHCP messages on a network and forwards them to a DHCP server on another network.
B. It accepts DHCP messages from multiple networks and consolidates them for a single DHCP server.
C. It allows DHCP clients to use WINS services.
D. It relays DHCP requests to a Dynamic DNS server. |
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Definition
| A. The DHCP relay agent allows you to use a DHCP server that resides on one network to communicate with clients that live on a separate network. See Chapter 13 for more information. |
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Term
Which of the following settings cannot be adjusted when using RIP?
A. The RIP version that can be used for incoming and outgoing traffic on each interface
B. The set of peer routers from which routes will be accepted
C. The default announcement interval
D. The location where received RIP routes are stored |
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Definition
| D. The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) implementation in Windows Server 2008 R2 allows you to mix RIP versions, control which peer routers can send you updates, and control how often your router will broadcast updates to others. However, it does not allow you to change where the routing table data is stored. See Chapter 14 for more information. |
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Term
RRAS allows you to create which types of routing-related filters?
A. Route filters only
B. Peer filters only
C. Route and peer filters
D. Packet filters only |
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Definition
| C. Route filters let you accept or ignore individual routes; peer filters give you control over from which other routers your router accepts routing information. See Chapter 15 for more information. |
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Term
In which two modes do RIP routers send updates?
A. Link-state database mode
B. Autostatic update mode
C. Periodic update mode
D. Border mode |
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Definition
| B, C. In periodic update mode, a RIP router sends its list of known routes at periodic intervals (which you define). In autostatic update mode, the RRAS router broadcasts the contents of its routing table only when a remote router asks for it. See Chapter 15 for more information. |
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Term
VPN connections require which of the following? (Choose two.)
A. The Windows Server 2008 VPN add-on
B. The name or IP address of the VPN server
C. The phone number of the VPN server
D. An existing TCP/IP connection |
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Definition
| B, D. VPN connections piggyback on top of regular dial-up or dedicated TCP/IP connections, and you must specify the name or address of the server you're calling. See Chapter 15 for more information. |
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Term
Which of the following are true of dynamically maintained routing tables? (Choose all that apply.)
A. They are automatically maintained by the routing protocols.
B. They are normally not maintained across reboots.
C. They may be manually edited from the command line.
D. They consist of multiple entries, each containing a network ID, a forwarding address, and a metric. |
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Definition
| A, C, D. The routing engines maintain the contents of the routing table, although you can add or remove entries manually. Persistent routes, which are the default, are automatically maintained until you delete them manually. See Chapter 15 for more information. |
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Term
You can control VPN access through which of the following mechanisms? (Choose two.)
A. Individual user account properties
B. Remote access policies
C. Remote access profiles
D. Group Policy objects |
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Definition
| A, B. You can allow users to make VPN connections by modifying individual account properties; if you're using a Native mode Windows Server 2008 R2 domain, you can also use remote access policies. See Chapter 16 for more information. |
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Term
To reject any incoming call from a client that can't use a specified level of encryption, you would do which of the following?
A. Turn off the No Encryption check box on the Encryption tab of the remote access policy's profile.
B. Turn off the No Encryption check box on the Security tab of the server's Properties dialog box.
C. Create a new remote access profile named Require Encryption.
D. Check the Require Encryption check box in each user's profile. |
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Definition
| A. The profile associated with each remote access policy controls whether that policy will require, allow, or disallow encryption. To force encryption, create a policy that disallows using no encryption. See Chapter 17 for more information. |
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Term
You must restore the server's configuration to before the last set of configuration changes you made. Which command should you run?
A. AppCmdrestore backup "Last Backup"
B. AppCmdrestore backup "CFGHISTORY_0000000001"
C. AppCmdrestore backup "CFGHISTORY_0000000100"
D. AppCmd add backup "CFGHISTORY_0000000100" |
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Definition
| C. The highest configuration number is the latest backup, so that would be correct backup to restore. The backup set named "Last Backup" would not be correct because it would have been manually run instead of done when a configuration change was made. When AppCmd add backup is run, it creates a new backup, not a restore, so it would also be an incorrect choice. See Chapter 18 for more information. |
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Term
You have been given a server with three hard disks, all with the same capacity. The first drive contains the operating system files. You must provide data redundancy while providing the highest amount of capacity. To accomplish this, which of the following would you do?
A. Select the first drive, right-click, and select New RAID 5 Volume.
B. Select the first drive, right-click, and select New Mirrored Volume.
C. Select the first drive, right-click, and select New Striped Volume.
D. Select the first drive, right-click, and select New Simple Volume. |
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Definition
| B. Using software RAID-1 is the only correct option because OS files and boot files cannot reside on software RAID-5 disks. Striped and simple volumes are not redundant. See Chapter 19 for more information. |
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Term
A server named RDSrv1 running Windows Server 2008 R2 has the Remote Desktop Services role installed, and you have deployed a remote application from this server. You have already contacted the vendor to verify that the application is supported in a Remote Desktop environment, but the installation package does not use an MSI installer package. After you have deployed the remote application, users report remote application time-outs and various disconnected sessions. How can you ensure that the application has been installed to support multiple sessions?
A. Run the change user /disable command on RDSrv1, install the application, and run the change user /enable command on RDSrv1.
B. Run mstsc /v:RDSrv1 /admin from you client computer to log on to RDSrv1 and install the application.
C. Run the change user /execute command on RDSrv1, install the application, and run the change user /install command on RDSrv1.
D. Run the change user /install command on RDSrv1, install the application, and run the change user /execute command on RDSrv1. |
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Definition
| D. To install an application that does not use an MSI package, you must change the server mode to install mode. After the installation is complete, the server must be placed back in execute mode. See Chapter 20 for more information. |
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Term
You are a server administrator with two servers running Windows 2008 R2 with the Remote Desktop Services role installed, RDSrv1 and RDSrv2. RDSrv1 is currently publishing remote applications and distributing them as RDP files through a web virtual directory. You want the program lists and deployment settings to be the same on both servers, so you import the RemoteApp programs settings from RDSrv1. Users complain that they cannot access the remote applications on RDSrv2 but can on RDSrv1. Which of the following procedures would you do to ensure that users can access the applications on RDSrv2?
A. Copy the RDP files from RDSrv1 to a new web virtual directory for RDSrv2.
B. Configure RDSrv1 and RDSrv2 to participate in RD Session Broker Load Balancing.
C. Re-create the RDP files on RDSrv2 and distribute them to the users.
D. Re-create the RDP files on RDSrv1 and distribute them to the users. |
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Definition
| C. Because the original RDP files were created on RDSrv1, they will connect only to RDSrv1; thus new RDP files will have to be created and distributed from RDSrv2. See Chapter 20 for more information. |
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Term
You have an Active Directory domain, and the RD Licensing Service role is installed on a server named RDSrv1 that is in a workgroup. You cannot enable RD Per User CALs on this license server. What do you need to do to enable RD Per User CALs?
A. Get license keys from the Microsoft Clearinghouse and enter the keys into the license server.
B. Join RDSrv1 to the domain.
C. Install the Remote Desktop Services Role on RDSrv1.
D. Install the RD Gateway role on RDSrv1. |
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Definition
| B. Per User CALs are available if only the RD license server is a member of a domain. SeeChapter 20 for more information. |
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Term
You are running the Remote Desktop Services role on a server and are publishing RemoteApps and using GPOs to set the policies on the server. You check Remote Desktop Services Manager and notice that there are disconnected sessions that are several days old. How in the future can you ensure that disconnected sessions do not exist?
A. Log into Remote Desktop Services Manager and reset each disconnected session.
B. In the Group Policy Management Console, enable the policy Restrict Remote Desktop Users To A Remote Session.
C. In the Group Policy Management Console, enable the policy Set Time Limit For Disconnected Sessions.
D. Set the Remote Desktop Services to drain mode. |
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Definition
| C. If you enable and configure Set Time Limit For Disconnected Sessions, a time limit for a disconnected session will be set, and when the time limit is reached, the session will be deleted from the server. The policy is useful to ensure that resources are released on the server. SeeChapter 20 for more information. |
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Term
You have installed an RD license server and you wish to activate it. You choose the automatic connection to activate the server with Microsoft, but it fails. You suspect that your firewall is configured incorrectly, and you want the activation process to happen automatically. How can you ensure this?
A. Open port 443 on your firewall.
B. Open port 80 on your firewall.
C. Open port 3389 on your firewall.
D. Open port 1494 on your firewall. |
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Definition
| A. The automatic connection requires an SSL connection (TCP port 443) to activate the license server with Microsoft over the Internet. See Chapter 20 for more information. |
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Term
You have been given a server that contains three HBAs. Each card can access the storage over a separate path. The application that runs on the server can exceed the usage of a single path. Which of the following MPIO options should be selected to provide the needed bandwidth as well as minimal redundancy?
A. Failover
B. Dynamic Least Queue Depth
C. Weighted Path
D. Round Robin |
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Definition
| D. A round robin configuration uses all available active paths and will distribute I/O in a balanced round robin fashion. Failover only uses a primary path and standby paths, allowing for link failure. Weighted Path assigns requests to the path with the least weight value. Dynamic Least Queue Depth routes requests to the path with the lowest number of outstanding requests. See Chapter 21 for more information. |
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Term
You have just deployed a new .NET web application and need to provide it with the least amount of privileges. The application needs to be able to access the Registry. Which of the following .NET trust levels will provide the least amount of privileges required?
A. Full
B. High
C. Medium
D. Low
E. Minimal |
|
Definition
| B. Medium and lower trust levels do not allow access to the Registry, so they would not be suitable levels for this application. High is the first level that allows the required access. Full allows too much access, so it is also not a valid answer. See Chapter 21 for more information. |
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Term
You have configured an SMTP server to be the smart host for a number of servers so that the server can send all outbound email out to the Internet. None of the messages that have been sent have been received by the recipient. What must be done to allow email to be delivered?
A. Enable TLS encryption.
B. Add the sending servers to the exceptions list on the connection control.
C. Add the sending servers to the allow list in the relay restrictions.
D. Enable LDAP Routing. |
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Definition
| C. The messages are not being delivered because the default setting is to not allow relaying. The sending servers must be added to be allowed to relay. Enabling TLS encryption may secure the SMTP transmission, but it will not affect message delivery. Adding the servers to the exceptions will not allow the servers to communicate to the SMTP server at all. Enabling LDAP routing will allow email address lookups but will not affect delivery of email to the Internet. See Chapter 22for more information. |
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Term
You must configure a website to allow Windows user credentials based on filesystem permissions to provide access to a single virtual directory. Which authentication modules must you disable on the virtual directory if the IUSR_ServerName account has permissions on the site content?
A. Basic Authentication
B. Anonymous Authentication
C. Digest Authentication
D. Integrated Windows Authentication |
|
Definition
| B. Since the IUSR_ServerName account has permission, Anonymous Authentication will keep the server from prompting for credentials. See Chapter 22 for more information. |
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Term
You are the administrator for an engineering firm. The chief information officer (CIO) informs you that the president of the company wants to make a live broadcast to all employees. The CIO informs you that he does not want the employees to be able to record the broadcast or pause it. In addition, he wants you to reduce the impact that the broadcast will have on the server. What two options should you choose to meet the CIO's requirements?
A. Deliver the content with a unicast stream.
B. Use on-demand publishing points.
C. Deliver the content with a multicast stream.
D. Use a broadcast publishing point. |
|
Definition
| C, D. Options C and D are correct because multicast streams reduce the impact on the server by producing a single stream that multiple users can connect to, and broadcast publishing only allows the user to play the content. Options A and B are incorrect because unicast streams would not decrease the load on the server and on-demand publishing is for delivering content that the users can control. See Chapter 23 for more information. |
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Term
You deploy a new SharePoint Foundation 2010 site in your company intranet. The Sales department asks you to create a new web application for this new site. After you create the new web application, users in the Sales department report that they cannot access it. What step do you need to perform so that the application is available to your users in the Sales department?
A. Manually reset IIS on all servers within your SharePoint farm.
B. Ask users in the Sales department to log off and then log on to their workstations.
C. Change permissions on the Sales user group to administrator level.
D. Give Sales users site owner permissions to the web application. |
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Definition
| A. Option A is correct because any new applications require an IIS reset before they will be available to the end user. Option B is wrong because it is related to the Active Directory account and not the web application. See Chapter 24 for more information. |
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Term
After deploying your SharePoint Foundation 2010 site, you get a request from management to create a document library for the Human Resources department. Management has also requested that the Human Resources department should only be able to view and add content to the site. What level of security permissions should you provide to the Human Resources group?
A. Owner
B. Visitor
C. Member
D. Administrator |
|
Definition
| C. Options A and D would give the group more than the requested permissions. Option B would not allow the group to add content. Option C would allow them to contribute content. See Chapter 24 for more information. |
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Term
When is an operating system Hyper-V hypervisor aware?
A. Automatically, if you install a Microsoft operating system
B. When you install the VM components
C. After you install the Integration Components
D. When you turn on hypervisor awareness in Hyper-V |
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Definition
| C. An operating system running in a virtual machine becomes hypervisor aware once the Hyper-V Integration Components or Services are installed because it will support using the VMBus. See Chapter 25 for more information. |
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Term
What types of virtual hard disks can you configure in Hyper-V Manager? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Dynamically expanding
B. Fixed size
C. Differencing
D. Pass-through |
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Definition
| A, B, C, D. All options are correct. See Chapter 25 for more information. |
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Term
What statement is correct when you create an internal-only virtual network for your virtual machines on a Hyper-V server?
A. The virtual machines can communicate with each other and with the host machine.
B. The virtual machines can communicate with each other only.
C. The virtual machines can communicate with each other, with the host machine, and with the network.
D. The virtual machines cannot communicate with each other. |
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Definition
| A. The virtual machines can communicate with each other and with the host machine. That's the definition for an internal-only network. If they communicate only with each other, that's called a private virtual network. If the virtual machines also can communicate with the external network, that's called external. See Chapter 25 for more information. |
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Term
Your company has a shared directory that contains files created with Word, Excel, PowerPoint, and Publisher. The senior network administrator wants you to use the newly installed Windows 2008 R2 Server to provide better control over who has access to those files and to limit the amount of time the files can be used. In addition, he wants you to reduce the amount of administration effort that is currently being spent to change rights on user files. What options should you choose to install and configure? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows SharePoint Services
B. Active Directory Rights Management Service (AD RMS) role
C. Configure Rights Policy Templates
D. Configure Active Directory Security Groups |
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Definition
| B, C. B and C are correct because AD RMS is the role that allows for better control of files, and configuring rights policy templates would reduce the amount of administration needed because it allows the user to apply a preconfigured rights template. See Chapter 26 for more information. |
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Term
You are an IT administrator for a medium-size company. This company has 250 Windows 7 computers and 15 Windows 2008 R2 Server machines. One of your users puts in a service request stating that he is no longer able to open certain programs or access some functions. When the user logs into another machine, he is able to access the programs and features. He also states that he has been getting a Windows Activation popup from time to time. What would you do to resolve this issue?
A. Check the user's permissions in Active Directory and assign admin rights to his machine.
B. Scan for viruses.
C. Activate his copy of Windows 7.
D. Restore the machine from a backup. |
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Definition
| C. Option C is the correct answer because when a Windows 7 product is not activated, it will reduce the functionality of the machine until it is activated. See Chapter 26 for more information. |
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Term
A failover cluster contains two nodes, and a business requires the cluster's application to remain active and not have a single point of failure. Which of the following quorum models would work in a two-node failover cluster? (Choose all that apply.)
A. No Majority: Disk Only
B. Node Majority
C. Node and Disk Majority
D. Node and File Share Majority |
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Definition
| C, D. Node and Disk Majority and Node and File Share Majority both allow for one of the nodes to be offline and still have quorum. Although No Majority: Disk Only allows for a node to be offline, the quorum shared disk is a single point of failure. Since there are only two nodes, both nodes have to be up if only Node Majority is chosen. See Chapter 27 for more information. |
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