Term
|
Definition
Condensation of the chromatin, one type of irreversable cell injury. |
|
|
Term
The 3 types of irreversable cell injury? |
|
Definition
Pyknosis
Karyorrhexis
Karyolysis |
|
|
Term
What does Karyorrhexis mean? |
|
Definition
Fragmentation of the nucleus into small particles. One of the 3 types of irreversable cell injury. |
|
|
Term
What does Karyolysis mean? |
|
Definition
Dissolution of the nucleus and lysis of chromatin by enzymes. One of the 3 types of irreversable cell injury. |
|
|
Term
What does Anthracosis mean? |
|
Definition
Accumulation of coal particles in the cell. |
|
|
Term
What is the accumulation of the blood derived brown pigment hemosiderin, an iron-storage protein normally found in the spleen called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
cancer. Undifferentiated and uncontrolled cell growth. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
pre-cancer. Dissordered growth of tissues resulting from chronic irritation of infection. Best example is the detection of cervical dysplasia based on PAP smears. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
An adaptive change of one cell type for another to suit the environment. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Increase in the size of cells. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Increase in the # of cells |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Decrease in size of a tissue of organ? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
population of cells arising from a single cell or endospore, or from a group of attached cells. They are all clones of one cell.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Contains only one species or strain |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a tissue culture? |
|
Definition
Must be grown on mammalian tissue. |
|
|
Term
What is an obligate aerobe? |
|
Definition
Only aerobic, oxygen required. Catalase and SOD allow it to neutralize toxic forms of oxygen. |
|
|
Term
What is a facultative anaerobe? |
|
Definition
Both aerobic and anaerobic growth, but greater growth with oxygen. Uses catalase and SOD. |
|
|
Term
What is an obligate anaerobe? |
|
Definition
only anaerobic. No catalase or SOD. Usually found in colon. |
|
|
Term
What is an aerotolerant anaerobe? |
|
Definition
Growth occurs evenly, oxygen has no effect. Contains SOD but not catalase. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Growth occurs only where a low concentration of oxygen has diffused into medium. Will grow in the middle of the medium in a test tube. Normally found in the stomach. |
|
|
Term
What reaction does superoxide dismutase (SOD) catalyze? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What reaction does catalase catalyze? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a complex growth media? |
|
Definition
Supports the growth of a wide variety of bacteria. e.g. nutrient agar. |
|
|
Term
What is an enriched growth media? |
|
Definition
has additions of sterols, blood, serum, or egg yolk.
E.g. Sheep blood agar. |
|
|
Term
What is a selective growth media? |
|
Definition
inhibits growth of some organisms but allows others to grow.
E.g. mannitol salt agar (MSA) inhibits most organisms other than staphylococci. |
|
|
Term
What is a differential growth media? |
|
Definition
ingredients that allow groups of microorganisms to be visually distinguised based on appearance of colony or surrounding media. |
|
|
Term
What is a mannitol salt agar used for? |
|
Definition
Mannitol and pH indicator, inhibits most pathogens except staphylococcus. |
|
|
Term
What is a MacConkey agar used for? |
|
Definition
Only lets gram (-) bacteria grow on it. Also differentiates based on the ability to ferment lactose. If they can ferment lactose it will be a pink color if not, it will stay yellow. |
|
|
Term
What is a fastidious bacteria? |
|
Definition
One that is fussy and requires many things to grow. |
|
|
Term
What is a intracellular bacteria? |
|
Definition
One that will not grow on a petrie dish. |
|
|
Term
What is a generation time for bacterial growth? |
|
Definition
How long it takes to double the population size. |
|
|
Term
What are the phases of bacterial growth? |
|
Definition
1. Lag
2. Log (exponential)
3. Stationary
4. Death |
|
|
Term
What is happening to the bacteria during the lag phase? |
|
Definition
Cells are synthesizing new macromolecules. |
|
|
Term
What is happening to the bacteria during the log phase? |
|
Definition
Cells are dividing and doubling at regular intervals. |
|
|
Term
What is happening to the bacteria during the stationary phase? |
|
Definition
Total # of cells constant.
Endospore formation
secondary metabolite synthesis (toxins and antibiotics)
nutrient limitations. |
|
|
Term
What phase of the bacterial growth curve can you harvest useful products? |
|
Definition
stationary phase during secondary metabolism. |
|
|
Term
What phase of the bacterial growth curve is the bacteria least sensitive to antibiotics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What phase of the bacterial growth curve is sporulation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many ATP do bacteria get from cellular respiration? |
|
Definition
38. Compared to only 36 in humans. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
any metabolic process that releases energy from a sugar or other organic molecule, does not require O2 (but can occur in the presence O2) or an electron transport system, and uses an organic molecule as the final electron acceptor.
Often produces acid or gas.
|
|
|
Term
What is the planktonic phenotype in bacteria? |
|
Definition
free floating, may be mobile. |
|
|
Term
What is the biofilm phenotype in bacteria? |
|
Definition
mixed population of cells attached in a slime. Most cells are in stationary phase and there is lots of exchange of genetic information. |
|
|
Term
Define virulence and where are the virulence genes located? |
|
Definition
extent of pathogenicity. Located on chromosomes (pathogenicity islands), plasmids, and bacteriophages. |
|
|
Term
What is the entry virulence strategy? |
|
Definition
How to get around innate host defenses. |
|
|
Term
What is the adherence virulence strategy? |
|
Definition
Bacterial adhesin binding to the host receptor. |
|
|
Term
What is the injury virulence strategy? |
|
Definition
Bacteria uses hydrolytic enzymes, endotoxins, and exotoxins. |
|
|
Term
What does a type B exotoxin do? |
|
Definition
Binds to specific host receptors |
|
|
Term
What does a type A exotoxin do? |
|
Definition
Active, enters cell and enzymatically attacks host. |
|
|
Term
What do type III and IV exotoxin secretion systems do? |
|
Definition
Act as a syringe for injecting toxic molecules into host cells. |
|
|
Term
Are exotoxins gram +, -, or both? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Are endotoxins gram +, -, or both? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is Lipid A seen in gram +, -, or both? |
|
Definition
Only Gram (-), often released by dead or dying cells. |
|
|
Term
Does antitoxin neutralize endotoxin, exotoxin or both? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is more sensitive to heat? Endotoxin or exotoxin? |
|
Definition
Exotoxin is more sensitive to heat. |
|
|
Term
What do superantigens do? |
|
Definition
Bind MHC colecules on antigen presenting cells and stimulate cytokine production. This leads to massive activation of T cells, can lead to toxic shock. |
|
|
Term
When evading the host defense, what is phase variation? |
|
Definition
Turning things on and off. |
|
|
Term
When avoiding the host defense, what is antigenic variation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is another name for Coccidioidomycosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are some signs of possible Coccidioidomycosis infection?
|
|
Definition
Non-specicific inflammation
Arizona Resident
Reduced TNF-alpha
Persistant cought or athesma
Major fever and chills
Sick 6-7 days
Losing weight without trying
|
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for Valley fever? |
|
Definition
Treat the symptoms. Only use antifungals if it is a severe infection because antifungals have major side effects. Attempt to not harm patient more. |
|
|
Term
How are spinal nerves named? |
|
Definition
Spinal nerves are named after the vertebrae above them except in cervical spine. In the cervical spine, nerve C1 exits above the axis and there is a cervical nerve C8 that lies below the C7 vertebrae.
|
|
|
Term
(T/F) a peripheral nerve can have contributions from a number of different spinal nerves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What causes Ankle Foot Orthosis and how is it treated? |
|
Definition
Caused by problems with the fibular nerve that cause the toes to drag. Can be treated by wearing a speciat boot brace. |
|
|
Term
Where does the Pudenal nerve leave the spine? |
|
Definition
S2-4, it keeps your dick off the floor. |
|
|
Term
Where does the sciatic nerve leave the spine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a Burner injury (brachial plexopathy)? |
|
Definition
Traction or compression of C5 &/or C6 ventral rami. |
|
|
Term
How many regions are there in the lower limb? name them |
|
Definition
6.
Gluteal
Femoral
Knee
Leg
Talocrural
Foot |
|
|
Term
How many segments are there in the lower limb? name them |
|
Definition
3.
Proximal= femoral
Intermediate= knee
Distal=foot |
|
|
Term
What separates anterior and posterior mucles in the thigh? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What separates anterior and posterior mucles in the leg? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many segments are there in the upper extremity? name them |
|
Definition
Proximal= arm
Intermediate= forearm
Distal= hand |
|
|
Term
When does gastrulation occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When does body folding occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When do the limb buds appear? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When do the limbs rotate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When is the embryonic period? When is it most sensitive? |
|
Definition
Weeks 3-8, most sensitive at week 5. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
going from a 3 layered Frisbee look into a bent tube within a tube. Happens in week 4. Broken into lateral and craniocaudal folding
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Mesoderm splits. As lateral aspects of embryo fold ventrally, the space between the layers of mesoderm forms future body cavities.
|
|
|
Term
Describe craniocaudal folding |
|
Definition
Head and “tail” regions bend towards each other, and embryo becomes “C” shaped |
|
|
Term
Describe somite formation |
|
Definition
Happens in weeks 3-5
Paraxial mesoderm is organized into segments called somitomeres, these (starting at the head) are turned into somites. These somites differentiate into schlerotomes, dermatomes, or myotomes. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
derived from a somite, will be a future vertebral segment. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Dorsal portion of somite that forms dermis of the skin. Each segment is supplied by a spinal nerve. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Mesoderm from somite that will differentiate into myoblasts. |
|
|
Term
When a limb is developing what is the distal border where the limb is growing called? |
|
Definition
Apical ectodermal ridge (AER) |
|
|
Term
(T/F) limbs rotate in the same direction during week 7 of development? |
|
Definition
False. Upper limbs rotate latterally, and lower limbs rotate medially. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1.Mesenchyme condenses and cells become chondrocytes.
2.By week 6 you have hyaline cartilage models of future bones.
3. Primary endochondral ossification begins at the end of the embryonic period.
4. Diaphysis is completely ossified by birth
5. Secondary ossification of the epiphyses begins at birth
6. Epiphyseal plate remains for bone lengthening. |
|
|
Term
Describe muscle development |
|
Definition
1. paraxial mesoderm is turned into somites
2. Somites is turned into mesenchyme
3. Mesenchyme condenses near base of limb bud
4. Each myotome receives innervation from spinal nerves derived from the same segment as the muscle cells. |
|
|
Term
What cranial nerves form the radial nerve? What does it do? |
|
Definition
Dorsal segments of C5, C6, C7, C8, T1
supplies extensor muscles |
|
|
Term
What cranial nerves form the ulnar nerve? what does it do? |
|
Definition
Ventral segmental branches of C8, and T1.
Supplies flexor muscles |
|
|
Term
What nerves make up the median nerve, and what does it do? |
|
Definition
Ventral segmental brances of C6-T1
Supplies flexor muscles |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Dwarfism resulting from improper development of cartilage at the end of long bones. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
complete absence of one or more limbs. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
upper portion of limb is poorly developed |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
enlargment of one or more digits. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
fewer than normal digits. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
compression of the infant in uterus. |
|
|
Term
What is the only bacteria with sterols in the cell membrane? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the only bacteria without peptidoglycan in its cell wall? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are fungal spores for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are bacterial endospores for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the 3 types of fungal mycoses and describe them. |
|
Definition
superficial/cutaneous
hair, skin, nails
most common
subcutaneous
beneath the skin
rare, tropical (Mexico!)
systemic
deep w/in body
characteristic geographic regions (endemic mycoses)
E.g. Coccidioides immitis, southwestern U.S., Mexico, Central and South America
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
branching cylindrical tube found on molds.
Can be septate or coenocytic. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
define vegitative mycelium |
|
Definition
part of mycelium involved in gaining nutrients. |
|
|
Term
define aerial or reproductive mycelium |
|
Definition
part of mycelium involved in growth and reproduction. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
asexual spores not in a sac, in a chain
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
asexual spores on mold, in a sac
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
sac that sporangiospores are in |
|
|
Term
what are spores on hyphae called? |
|
Definition
conidiophore or sporangiophore |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
blastoconidia (yeast buds) that are in a short chain because they failed to detach. |
|
|
Term
Catheter infections are what kind of infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What media is used to grow clinically important fungi? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
define death denying culture |
|
Definition
inability to discuss death and dying openly. |
|
|
Term
Define death defying culture |
|
Definition
Inability to accept death as an option. Extends life no matter the suffering. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Whatever the patient wants at the end of their life. No one size fits all. |
|
|
Term
Is a Naked virus or an Enveloped virus more environmentally stable to temp, acids, detergents, and drying? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How are naked viruses released from cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How are enveloped viruses spread? |
|
Definition
Budding or cell lysis, but does not have to kill the cell to spread. |
|
|
Term
(T/F) All helical viruses are enveloped and contain RNA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the events of the Viral replication cycle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the virion eclipse phase? |
|
Definition
Virion has entered call and virus gains control of host machinery. No complete infectious virus are present during this phase. |
|
|
Term
What are inclusion bodies? What are their clinical signifigance? |
|
Definition
stainable structures resulting from virus induced changes in the host cell.
Diagnostic tool, look at the nature and location for characteristics of particular viral infections. |
|
|
Term
What is the primary cause of mutations in viruses? |
|
Definition
Error prone viral polymerases |
|
|
Term
Define viral recombination |
|
Definition
Intramolecular or intermolecular genetic exchange between related viruses or the virus and the host.
Two genes are SO similar they can recombine by taking parts of one strain |
|
|
Term
Define viral reassortment |
|
Definition
coinfection with viruses of segmented genomes from different species and (e.g., influenza viruses and reoviruses) → Epidemic significances? RISE OF COMPLETLEY NEW STRAIN, TISSUE TROPISM CHANGES, HOST HAS NO ABILITY TO DEAL WITH BRAND NEW STRAIN OF VIRUS
|
|
|
Term
define horizontal transmission and entry |
|
Definition
Spread between members of a population |
|
|
Term
define vertical transmission and entry |
|
Definition
Mother infects fetus in utero |
|
|
Term
Defind endogenous entry and transmission |
|
Definition
Latent virus becomes reactivated |
|
|
Term
Define chronic viral infection |
|
Definition
never been completely cleared from the host; always kept at a certain level in host |
|
|
Term
Define latent viral infection |
|
Definition
ability of viruses to integrate genome into host cell without killing it, can exist together, no viral replication (may have DNA synthesis and protein synthesis, but not actively replicating)
Different than chronic, do NOT display symptoms but when host immunity is compromised, infection can be reactivated
|
|
|
Term
What type of viral infection can become reactivated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What must RNA viruses (+ or – sense) be equipped with in order to generate new viral protein and/or genome?
|
|
Definition
– sense must come in with own viral RNA polymerase
+ sense can simply ENCODE for the viral RNA polymerase, doesn’t have to have it initially |
|
|
Term
Which type of virus, once uncoated, will immediately be ready for viral protein synthesis?
|
|
Definition
Single stranded positive RNA viruses |
|
|
Term
A newly-identified virus has a small, non-enveloped virion particle and carries out the replication cycle exclusively in the cytoplasm of infected cells. When purified genomic nucleic acids of this virion are added to mammalian host cells, it results in the production of viral protein. This novel virus most likely has a ________ genome.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(T/F) most mRNA undergo processing in bacteria |
|
Definition
False, Bacteria dont have introns so they do not undergo mRNA processing. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
group of one or more structurally or functionally related genes under the control of one promoter
Can provide the advantage of a coordinate expression all the grouped genes (ex: pathogenicity island)
|
|
|
Term
What must the conditions be for the Lac operon to be on? |
|
Definition
Lactose must bind to the LAc repressor, and glucose must be low to activate the CAP-cAMP complex |
|
|
Term
Define transcription attenuation |
|
Definition
premature transcription termination resulted from change in the rate or efficiency of protein synthesis/ribosome movement on a nascent mRNA; unique in prokaryotes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
he lytic cycle results in the destruction of the infected cell and its membrane. A key difference between the lytic and lysogenic phage cycles is that in the lytic phage, the viral DNA exists as a separate molecule within the bacterial cell, and replicates separately from the host bacterial DNA. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
phage DNA integrates into bacterial DNA. Integrated DNA is called a prophage and can remain in the integrated state for long periods of time |
|
|
Term
What is bacterial transduction? |
|
Definition
Genetic transfet of information between bacteria by a bacteriophage. |
|
|
Term
What is bacterial conjugation? |
|
Definition
Exchange of genetic information by "mating" |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
sum of all means used to prevent a healcare associated infection (HAI) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Preventing contact between microorganisms and susceptible sites. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Destruction of removal of all microbial life. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Destruction of most microbial life. Does not destroy endospores.
Inanimate objects |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
disinfection of living surfaces. |
|
|
Term
Rank the following in terms of resistance to sterilization/disinfection/antisepsis from most to least:
Naked virus, fungi, protozoan trophozoites, most bacterial vegetative cells, prion, mycobacteria, endospore, protozoan cysts, enveloped viruses, |
|
Definition
(MOST resistant)prion>endospore>mycobacteria, naked viruses, protozoan cysts, fungi>most bacterial vegetative cells, enveloped viruses, protozoan trophozoites (Least resistant)
|
|
|
Term
Activity of which envelope constituent survives autoclaving? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What drugs do to the body |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What the body does to drugs |
|
|
Term
How long before a NDA is approved by the FDA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe phase I clinical testing |
|
Definition
20-80 healthy volunteers
establishes safety |
|
|
Term
Describe phase II testing |
|
Definition
100-300 patients
establish efficacy and dose |
|
|
Term
Describe phase III testing |
|
Definition
1000-5000 patients
verify efficacy and detect adverse affects |
|
|
Term
What factors does a doctor need to consider when evaluating new drug producs? |
|
Definition
Efficacy, safety, and cost |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The death of cells or groups of cells (tissues) within a living organism.
|
|
|
Term
Is necrosis or autolysis seen after death? |
|
Definition
Autolysis is seen in tissues after death. |
|
|
Term
Explain coagulative necrosis, and where is it seen? |
|
Definition
(Heart, kidney, liver, spleen) The most common form of necrosis. Occurs when cell proteins are altered or denatured, similar to the coagulation that occurs when cooking eggs. Histologically, the cell outlines are preserved and the cytoplasm appears finely granular.
|
|
|
Term
Explain liquefactive necrosis, and where does it occur? |
|
Definition
(brain) Refers to a process by which dead cells liquify under the influence of certain cell enzymes. The tissue becomes soft and gel-like.
|
|
|
Term
Describe caseous necrosis and where is it commonly seen? |
|
Definition
(TB) A form of coagulative necrosis in which a thick, yellowish, cheesy substance forms.
|
|
|
Term
What is fat necrosis and where is it seen? |
|
Definition
(pancreas or breast) A specialized form of liquefaction necrosis caused by the action of lipolytic enzymes. |
|
|
Term
What is dystrophic calcification? |
|
Definition
Necrotic tissue attracts calcium salts and frequently undergoes calcification.
|
|
|
Term
Explain metastatic calcification |
|
Definition
Usually associated with increased serum calcium levels, leading to deposition of calcium in other locations. You see formations of calcium carbonate stones is sites like the gallbladder, kidneys, and bladder.
|
|
|
Term
How are apoptotic cells identified in tissue sections?
|
|
Definition
Apoptotic cells are recognized by nuclear fragmentation and pyknosis of individual cells or small groups of cells, in a background of viable cells. Inflammation and necrosis is generally not present.
Apoptotic cells appear shrunken with round or oval masses of bright pink or orange in the cytoplasm (apoptotic bodies), cytoplasmic blebs, and dense nuclear fragments
|
|
|
Term
What are the components of a complete metabolic pannel? |
|
Definition
Glucose, sodium, potassium, calcium, chloride, CO2, cratinine, BUN, albumin, total protein, total bilirubin, ALP, AST, ALT |
|
|
Term
Glucose
What is the normal fasting glucose levels?
What is too much/ too little called?
what disease is associated with too much? |
|
Definition
70-99
Hyperglycemic, hypoglycemic
Fasting hyperglycemia is associated with DM |
|
|
Term
What is the normal levels of Na?
what is too much/ too little called? |
|
Definition
136-146
Hypernatremia, hyponatremia |
|
|
Term
What is the normal concentration of potassium?
What is too much/little called?
|
|
Definition
3.5-5.1
Hyperkalemia, hypokalemia |
|
|
Term
What is the normal range for calcium?
What is too much/little called? |
|
Definition
8.6-10.2
hypercalcemia, hypocalcemia |
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of looking at chloride? |
|
Definition
Acid base balance, also used for certain neurotransmitters |
|
|
Term
If you suspect kidney dysfunction what readings would be high? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the importance of looking at albumin/ total protein? |
|
Definition
Looks at the patient's nutrition. |
|
|
Term
What does high bilirubin suggest? |
|
Definition
Liver problems, pt may have jaundice. |
|
|
Term
What would high AST, ALT, and ALP suggest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is "good" cholesterol? HDL or LDL? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is considered a negative risk factor for coronary heart disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the major risk factos of coronary heart disease? |
|
Definition
High LDL
Cigarette smoking
BP > 140/90
Men> 45; women > 55
HDL< 40
Male first degree relative under 55, female first degree relative under 65 |
|
|
Term
What would high specific gravity in a UA suggest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What would positive WBC (leukocyte esterace) in a UA suggest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What would a UA positive for nitrate mean? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What would a UA positive for protein mean? |
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Definition
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Term
What would a UA positive for glucose mean? |
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Definition
hyperglycemia or diabetes |
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Term
What would a UA positive for ketones mean? |
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Definition
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Term
What would a UA positive for bilirubin mean? |
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Definition
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Term
What would a UA positive for blood mean? |
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Definition
many things, could be kidney or bladder damage. |
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Term
What would a UA positive for casts mean? |
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Definition
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Term
what is a chiral molecule? |
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Definition
one that is not superimposable on its mirror image. |
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Term
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Definition
repeated administration of the same dose of a drug results in a reduced effect over time. |
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Term
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Definition
decreased ability of a receptor to respond to stimulation by a drug. |
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Term
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Definition
After a receptor is stimulated, a period of time is required before the next drug receptor interaction can produce an effect. |
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Term
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Definition
repeated drug interaction results in removal of the drug receptor from sites where the interactions could take place. |
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Term
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Definition
Effective concentration causing drug effect in 50% of recipients |
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Term
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Definition
effective dose causing drug effect in 50% of recipients |
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Term
How is efficacy determined? |
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Definition
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Term
How is potency determined? |
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Definition
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Term
Which of these has the most potency?
[image] |
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Definition
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Term
Which of these has the highest effectiveness?
[image] |
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Definition
A & B have the same effectiveness |
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Term
If 2 drugs have the same CD50 they are called? |
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Definition
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Term
Define competitive antagonism |
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Definition
antagonist binds to the active site. Can be overcame by increasing dose of agonist. Efficacy is unchanged but the potency of the agonist is reduced since it takes more. |
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Term
Define non-competitive antagonism |
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Definition
Cannot be overcome by increasing the dose of the agonist, they have different binding sites. Efficacy is deacreased and by definition the potency stays the same. It is irreversable. |
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Term
What is an indirect drug mechanism? |
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Definition
Drug is altering levels of naturally occuring neurotransmitter. |
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Term
What are the 2 main drug targets in the parasympathetic nervous system? |
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Definition
AChE inhibitors
Muscarinic ACh receptor |
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Term
Modern physiological theory hypothesizes that ______ dysfunction is the basis of pathophysiological states
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Definition
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Term
A ______ is an ensemble of similar cells from the same origin that together carry out a specific function
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Definition
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Term
_______ are formed by the functional grouping together of multiple tissues.
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Definition
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Term
_______ is the functional part of an organ
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Definition
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Term
____ is the structural part of an organ
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Definition
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Term
What are the 4 major types of tissue? |
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Definition
connective, nervous, epithelial, and muscular tissue
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Term
What tissues does mesoderm develop into? |
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Definition
Develops into epithelial tissue, connective tissue, and muscle tissue |
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Term
What tissues does ectoderm develop into? |
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Definition
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Term
What tissues does endoderm develop into? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
a type of pre-connective tissue that comes mostly from the mesoderm |
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Term
How would you identify skeletal muscle? |
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Definition
Striations and multi-nuclei |
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Term
How do you identify cardiac muscle? |
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Definition
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Term
How do you identify smooth muscle? |
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Definition
· smallest muscle cells, pink haze with dots under a microscope.
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Term
______ makes things bigger but not clearer
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Definition
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Term
_______ makes things bigger and more clear.
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Definition
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Term
Describe fixation in microscopy |
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Definition
Cells are living material, and undergo biochemical change that must be stopped. Kills the cell, stops autolysis and biochemical activity. Usually uses aldehydes or freezing.
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Term
What is Loose areolar connective tissue composed of?
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Definition
Ground substance, fibers, cells |
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Term
What is Reticular tissue made out of?
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Definition
Collagen fibers and leukocytes |
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Term
Plasma concentration= Dose / Volume |
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Definition
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Term
After ___ half lives you can assume that a process is nearly complete |
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Definition
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Term
Zero Order: drug levels decrease a set ____ per UNIT of TIME
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Definition
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Term
First Order: drug levels decrease a constant _________ per UNIT of TIME (linear)
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
maximum amount of drug that can be eliminated per unit of time
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Term
______ is the fraction of drug reaching systemic circulation. This is the area under the curve on the serum concentration time curves. |
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Definition
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Term
To be _____ serum concentration time curves from the two products must be superimposable. They have the same peak level, time to peak, and area under the curve. |
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Definition
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Term
Describe the first pass effect |
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Definition
Drugs are metabolized by liver before reaching systemic circulation. |
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Term
_________ is a common drug transporter in the GI treact, it can send absorbed drugs back into the intestinal lumen, decreasing their absorption and bioavailability. |
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Definition
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Term
________ can decrease the time needed to achieve steady state. |
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Definition
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Term
With a set dosing regimen, plan on steady state serum levels ebing reached after __ elimination half lives. |
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Definition
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Term
Phase __ drug liver metabolism involves cytochrome p 450 liver enzyme system. |
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Definition
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Term
Phase __ drug liver metabolism involves a conjugation step with gluronic acid or sulfate. Ususally involves the UGTs enzymes. Makes drugs soluble so they can be pissed out. |
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Definition
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Term
The most common drug metabolizing cytochrome P |
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Definition
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Term
Describe what is meant by “prodrug” |
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Definition
Prodrug- is an inactive parent drug which requires bio-activation for toxification (toxic metabolite formed from parent drug). Inactive precursor that gets modified to become active.
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Term
List the 4 possible outcomes of liver drug metabolism |
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Definition
Termination of drug action
Active metabolites can be formed (both parent and metabolites are active)
Make active metabolites from a prodrug. (bioactivation)
Toxification (toxic metabolite formed from parent drug)
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Term
______ speeds up the metabolism of other drugs.
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Definition
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Term
What is the most important step in enterohepatic drug recycling |
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Definition
Bacteria hydrolyzing bonds in circulation |
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Term
Define the term “selective toxicity” |
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Definition
Selective toxicity- refers to the ability of these drugs to kill or inhibit the growth of microbes, leaving the human host unharmed.
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Term
What is (MIC) minimal inhibitory concentration
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Definition
amount of drug needed to inhibit growth in test tube.
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Term
Explain “de-escalation” of antimicrobial therapy |
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Definition
Going from multiple drugs broad then focus down to one specific treatment.
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Term
_______ is a medical term referring to the initiation of treatment prior to determination of a firm diagnosis. It may be thought of as taking the initiative against an anticipated and likely cause of infectious disease. It is most often used when antibiotics are given to a person before the specific bacterium causing an infection is known.
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Definition
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Term
An ________ is a local summary of selected antibiotic activity versus common bacterial isolates; it is used for drug formulary decisions and to guide empiric treatment
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Definition
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Term
What is the most important histamine receptor for allergies? |
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Definition
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Term
State the initial drug of choice for emergency treatment of severe allergic reactions |
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Definition
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Term
Explain two clinical advantages that loratadine and fexofenadine have over diphenhydramine |
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Definition
Loratadine and Fexofenadine are 2nd generation non drowsy drugs. They cannot cross into CNS. |
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Term
In the pre-antibiotic era, some physicians had attempted to cure syphilis by raising the patients’ body temperature with injections of malaria agents. The practice was based on the knowledge that the causative agent of syphilis is known to demonstrate a limited growth at elevated body temperature. This approach can be best viewed as aiming to alter the pathogenesis by |
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Definition
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Term
How does the immune system respond to stress? |
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Definition
Immune activity is reduced by cortisol |
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Term
A characteristic shared by exotoxins and endotoxins is their |
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Definition
involvement in cellular injury. |
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Term
Meralgia paresthetica results from entrapment of? |
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Definition
Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
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Term
Which feature best characterizes a malignant tumor? |
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Definition
Hyperchromastism of the nuclei |
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Term
The best approach to motivate a patient to make behavioral changes designed to improve their over-all health is to
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Definition
engage the patient in a conversation about what they want and need to be successful.
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Term
A newly-identified virus has a small, non-enveloped virion particle and carries out the replication cycle exclusively in the cytoplasm of infected cells. When purified genomic nucleic acids of this virion are added to mammalian host cells, it results in the production of viral protein. This novel virus most likely has a ________ genome |
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Definition
single-stranded, positive-sense RNA |
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Term
Smooth strains (S) of Streptococcus pneumoniae are encapsulated and pathogenic. Rough strains (R) are not encapsulated and are generally not pathogenic. In an experiment, mice were injected with a mixture of dead S strains and live R strains, the mice die and colonies of both S and R strains were isolated from the blood culture of the dead mice. The most likely explanation for these results is the genetic process called |
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Definition
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Term
The most appropriate method to sterilize a heat-sensitive drug that would maintain the drug’s function is |
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Definition
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Term
The most common cause of malignant involvement of the lymphatic system is |
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Definition
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Term
Acute inflammation is characterized by an influx of _____ while chronic inflammation is characterized by an influx of ______ . |
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Definition
neutrophils ; mononuclear cells |
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Term
A patient lacking class II HLA molecule expression would most likely be susceptible to |
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Definition
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Term
A patient presents with recurrent viral infections. The clinical assay result that would most likely be decreased in this patient would be a measure of ______ cells. |
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Definition
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Term
A patient with Bruton X-linked agammaglobulinemia would have a decreased number of ___ cells in his peripheral blood. |
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Definition
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Term
While rotating on a forensic pathology elective, you notice post-mortem or autolytic changes that occur to the body after death. The pathologist says that these changes can also be seen under the microscope similar to changes seen in tissue necrosis. He asks which is a major determinant that tissue necrosis has, but autolysis does not, histologically? |
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Definition
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Term
Aldehyde fixatives normally only chemically modify which major class(es) of biomolecules? |
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Definition
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