Term
Heterochromatin & euchromatin. Which one is condensed? |
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Definition
Heterochromatin is Highly condensed |
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Term
Name MOA for each: 1) Hydroxyuria 2) 6MP 3) 5FU 4) MTX 5) TMP 6) Pyrimethamine |
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Definition
1) Ribonucleotide reductase inhibitor (also ATP; mech of ADA def SCID) 2) Blocks de-novo purine biosynthesis 3) Blocks thymidylate synthase (TS) 4) Inhibits DHF reductase (can't make nucleic acids) 5) same as MTX in bacteria 6) same as MTX in protozoa |
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Term
3 things that can give you orotic aciduria (2 inherited) |
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Definition
1) Ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency (hyperammonia state with this one); X-linked 2) Orotic acid phosphoribosyltransferase deficiency (megaloblastic anemia w/out hypersegmentation); Autosomal recessive 3) Drugs: azathioprin (6MP), Reyes syndrome |
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Term
Main DNA polymerase?
Which one degrades RNA primers? |
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Definition
1) III 2) I
keep in mind this is for prokaryotes only |
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Term
Define & give example of each: 1) Nucleotide excision repair 2) Base excision repair 3) mismatch repair 4) Double-strand break repair |
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Definition
1) segment is excised; XP 2) Single base is glycosylated & removed. DNA cut by AP endonuclease. Gap is filled in 3) Complex formed on free ends & joined. Ataxia-Telangiectasia |
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Term
Amanitin (from Amanita Phalloides, death mushroom cap) MOA? |
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Definition
inhibits RNA-pol II & causes fulminant hepatitis |
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Term
what part of protein synthesis is blocked by: 1) chloramphenicol 2) Macrolides & clindamycin |
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Definition
1) Peptidyltransferase 2) translocation |
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Term
ER or golgi: 1) Adds N-linked oligosaccharides 2) Adds O-linked oligosaccharides 3) Modifies N-linked oligosaccharides 4) Adds Mannose-6-phosphate (I-cell disease) 5) Proteoglycan assembly 6) Sulfation |
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Definition
1) ER all the others are golgi |
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Term
Name function: 1) COP1 2) COP2 3) Clathrin 4) Mannose-6-phosphate addition to proteins in golgi |
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Definition
1) retrograde: Golgi -> ER 2) Anterograde: RER -> Golgi 3) Trans-Golgi budding & receptor-mediated endocytosis 4) Directs proteins to lysosomes
NOTE: I-cell disease = lysosomal enzymes secreted outside cell; course facies, clouded corneas, restricted joints, high serum lysosomal protein levels, often fatal in childhood |
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Term
GTP-bound microtubules are stable or unstable?
Name drug for each class that involves messing up microtubules: 1) Antihelminthic 2) Antifungal 3) Anticancer, prevents depolymerization 4) Anticancer, prevents polymerization 4) Anti-inflammatory |
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Definition
1) Mebendazole 2) Griseofulvin 3) Paclitaxel 4) Vincristine/Vinblastine 5) Colchicine (prevents polymerization) |
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Term
4 features of Kartagener's? |
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Definition
1) Situs inversus 2) Infertility (immotile sperm/defective fallopian tubes) 3) Recurrent sinusitis 4) Bronchiectasis |
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Term
structure of: 1) Cilia 2) Flagella 3) microvilli |
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Definition
1 & 2 are the same, they just beat differently 3) Made up of actin +/- myosin |
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Term
both Ouabain & Dig bind ___ at the ___ binding site |
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Definition
they bind the Na/K ATPase @ the K+ binding site |
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Term
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Definition
the matrix in which elastin is deposited.
Remember, elastin is connected by desmolysine bonds (4 lysines stuck together).
Tissues w/ elastin: lungs, large arteries, elastic ligaments, vocal cords, ligamenta flava |
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Term
Inheritance of hereditary spherocytosis |
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Definition
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Term
Inheritence of: 1) NF1, NF2, Tuberous sclerosis, VHL 2) Ataxia-telangiectasia, Friedrich's ataxia |
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Definition
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Term
microcephaly, MR, high-pitched crying, epicanthal folds, cardiac abnormalities
Where is the deletion? |
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Definition
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Term
What electrolyte is messed up in williams syndrome? |
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Definition
hypercalcemia b.c. of vitamin D hyper-responsiveness.
7q microdeletion causing elvin facies, cardiac problems, hypercalcemia, extreme friendliness, & mild MR |
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Term
what donates the methyl group in the NE -> epi conversion? |
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Definition
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Term
if an enzyme has "dehydrogenase" in the name, what do you probably get in the reaction? |
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Definition
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Term
4 things NADPH is used for |
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Definition
1) respiratory burst 2) Glutathione reductase 3) P-450 enzymes 4) anabolic processes (e.g. lipid & steroid synthesis) |
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Term
name steps in glycolysis where you use & get ATP |
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Definition
USE: Glucose -> G6P F6P -> F1,6BP
Get: 1,3 BPG -> 3PG PEP -> pyruvate
NOTE: you get an NADH from Glyceraldehyde 3 P -> 1,3BPG NOTE: shunting 1,3BPg ->2,3 BPG gives 0 net ATP |
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Term
rice water stools, garlic breath, vomiting |
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Definition
arsenic poisoning. Inhibits lipoic acid |
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Term
what do you treat pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency with? |
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Definition
ketogenic AA (lysine, leucine)
this deficiency causes backup of pyruvate & creates a lactic acidosis
Sx: lactic acidosis & neurologic disturbances (b.c. brain needs glucose) |
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Term
what is the amino acid form of: 1) Pyruvate 2) Oxaloacetate 3) Alphaketoglutarate |
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Definition
1) alanine 2) Aspartate 3) Glutamate
NOTE: carboxylate pyruvate to get oxaloacetate (good way to remember structures) |
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Term
what step in TCA give FADH2? GTP? |
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Definition
FADH2: Succinate -> fumarate
GTP: SuccinylCoA -> Succinate |
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Term
Name mechanism of each uncoupling agent: 1) Rotenone, CN-, AntimycinA, CO 2) Oligomycin 3) 2,4-dinitrophenol, aspirin, EtOH |
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Definition
1) inhibits proton translocation (inhibit cytochrome C) -> decrease H+ gradient
2) inhibits ATP synthesis -> decrease ATP gradient
3) increases cell permiability -> decreases H+ gradient & can cause hyperthermia |
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Term
Gluconeogenesis needs 4 ATP & 2 GTP. Name the steps taht need these |
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Definition
GTP: Oxaloacetate -> PEP
ATP: 1) pyruvate -> oxaloacetate (also needs biotin) 2) 3PG -> 1,3BPG |
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Term
why are odd-chain FA gluconeogenic? |
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Definition
produce propionylCoA -> methylmalonylCoA -> Succinyl CoA |
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Term
cofactor required for transketolase rxn? |
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Definition
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Term
what 2 B vitamins can INH cause a deficiency in? |
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Definition
B6 (direct conjugation & inhibition of pyroxal kinase)
B3: b.c. B6 def will inhibit B3 synthesis from tryptophan |
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Term
SPACE for catalase-pos bugs |
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Definition
Staph aureus Pseudomonas Aspergillus Candida Enterobacteraciae |
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Term
hypoglycemia, jaunice, cirrhosis, vomiting in young child just weaned off breast |
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Definition
hereditary fructose intolerance (no aldolase B)
Note the jaunice & cirrhosis (prol b.c. the fructose osmotically kills the hepatocytes)
Very similar Sx can present w/ classic galactosemia. differentiate by when the kid gets sick (w/ breast feeding vs fructose intake) |
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Term
4 cells that get damaged by sorbitol? |
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Definition
Schwann cells Pericytes of retina Lens Kidney |
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Term
mnemonic for essential AA? |
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Definition
PVT TIM HALL
phe, val, trp, thr, ile, met, his, arg, leu, lys |
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Term
what AA transports ammonium & substrates for gluconeogenesis to the liver? |
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Definition
alanine (after aminotransferase it makes pyruvate) |
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Term
used to treat hyperammonemic states? |
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Definition
Phenylbutyrate & Benzoate: they complex w/ glutamine & are rapidly lost in urine
NOTE: Sx of ammonia intox = flapping tremor, slurring of speech, somnolence, vomiting, cerebral edema, blurring of vision |
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Term
How does a hyperammonemic state inhibit the TCA cycle? |
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Definition
it depletes alpha-keto-glutarate by converting it:
AKG -> Glutamate
NOTE: Sx of ammonia intox = flapping tremor, slurring of speech, somnolence, vomiting, cerebral edema, blurring of vision |
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Term
inheritance of: 1) ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency? 2) orotic acid PRT |
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Definition
1) X-linked recessive (tx w/ phenylbutyrate or benzoate & Arg sup) 2) AR |
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Term
Name AA (+/- immediate precursor) each thing comes from: 1) Thyroxine 2) Melanin 3) NE & Epi 4) Niacin 5) Melatonin 6) 5HT 7) Histamine 8) ALA 9) Creatine 10) GABA 11) Urea 12) Glutathione 13) NO |
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Definition
1) Phe (Tyrosine is precursor) 2) Phe (DOPA is precursor; "tyrosinase") 3) Phe 4) Trp 5) Trp (serotonin) 6) Trp 7) His 8) Gly (& succinylCoA) 9) Arg 10) Glu (needs B6) 11) Arg 12) Glu (+Cys & Gly) 13) Arg |
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Term
4 things you need BH4 for? |
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Definition
1) Phe -> Tyr (form of PKU) 2) Tyr -> DOPA 3) Serotonin synthesis 4) NO synthesis |
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Term
ocular albinism inheritance? regular albinism inheritence? |
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Definition
OA = X-linked
all other forms are variable. Tyrosinase def is AR |
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Term
How can exercising muscle increase glycogen breakdown w/out any increase in PKA signaling? |
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Definition
Ca++ acts as a positive modulator of Glycogen phosphorylase kinase (GPK; which is phosphorylated & activated by PKA)
GPK phosphorylates glycogen phosphorylase, which breaks down glycogen. |
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Term
For glycogen breakdown: 1) phosphorylation of alpha(1,4) bonds gives what? 2) (1,6)? 3) which one are branching bonds? |
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Definition
1) Glucose-1-phosphate 2) Glucose 3) the (1,6) linkages are branch points (Cori disease) |
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Term
what donates the methyl group in the NE -> epi conversion? |
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Definition
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Term
orange tonsils, hazy corneal opacity |
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Definition
Tangier's disease
Absence of ABCA1 (cholesterol efflux regulator protein, CERP). This protein makes nascent HDL into mature HDL. AR
Neuropathies are most obvious Sx |
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Term
Name basic function of each gene in embryology: 1) Sonic Hedgehog 2) Wnt-7 3) FGF 4) HOX (homeobox genes) |
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Definition
1) Polarity 2) Limb/limb bud development 3) Signal for lengthening limbs 4) Segmental organization
NOTE: 2&3 produced @ "apical ectodermal ridge" |
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Term
Name major events for each date of development: 1) Day6 2) week2 3) week3 4) week4 5) week8 6) week10 7) when is the embryo most susceptible to teratogens? |
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Definition
1) Implantation (hCG detectible soon after (~day8) 2) bilaminar disk 3) trilaminar disk 4) limb buds, heart begins to beat, NT closes 5) fetal movement 6) M/F differentiation; Gut returns to abdominal cavity w/ a 270 rotation (herniates @ week 6) 7) before 3rd week = global; 3-8 week = organ specific (most susceptible here) |
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Term
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Definition
- All peripheral nerve things: (PNS, Schwann cells, Ganglia, Adrenal medulla) - Endocrine: C-cells - Aorticopulmonary septum - Odontoblasts - Bones of face - Pia & Arachnoid (dura is mesoderm) |
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Term
Define & give an ex of each cause of congenital anomaly: 1) malformation 2) deformation 3) disruption 4) sequence 5) agenesis 6) Aplasia |
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Definition
1) Intrinsic disruption in formation during embryogenesis (e.g. holoprosencephaly, syndactyly, polydactyly) 2) extrinsic disruption (e.g. clubbed feet, potters face) 3) Amnionic bands amputate 4) One problem causes many (e.g. potters) 5) Failure to develop any tissue (e.g. renal agenesis) 6) Primordial tissue exists, but doesn't develop (e.g. radial aplasia in VACTERL) |
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Term
name what each of these things become: 1) Urachus 2) Vitelline duct 3) Allantois |
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Definition
1) Thing connect to bladder. Normally is obliterated. Same thing as allantois. Can become a bladder diverticulum or vesico-umbilical fistula if not obliterated. The mesodermal covering of 1&3 becomes the umbillical arteries
2) normally obliterated. Can become meckel's diverticulum or an omphalomesenteric duct |
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Term
2 things elevated in NTDs? |
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Definition
AFP & acetylcholineesterase (in amniotic fluid) |
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Term
1) Things associated w/ Chiari2? 2) What is missing in Dandy Walker malformation? |
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Definition
1) always accompanied by meningomyelocele; Chiari 1&2 assoicated w/ hydrocephalus & syringomyelia 2) Cerebellar vermis; associated w/ NTDs & hydrocephalus |
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Term
1) D glutamate capsule 2) Polyribose-ribitol phosphate capsule 3) Antigenically poor sialic acid polymer that mimics brain tissue |
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Definition
1) Anthrax 2) H.flu serotype B (this is the one w/ the conjugate vaccine,and causes all the bad stuff, i.e. meningitis/epiglotitis) 3) N.meningitis groupB (same as Ki ecoli, the on that causes meningitis) |
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Term
Name the toxins that are transported by a phage |
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Definition
remember: ABCDE - shigA-like toxin - Botulinum toxin - Cholera toxin - Diphtheria toxin - Erythrogenic toxin (strep pyo) |
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Term
what is the most common dermatophyte? |
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Definition
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Term
live attenuated vaccines? |
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Definition
smallpox, yellow fever, VZV, Sabin polio, MMR |
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Term
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Definition
Nagging Pests Must Breath:
Nocardia Pseudomonas Mycobacterium Baccilus |
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Term
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Definition
PHUK
Proteus H.pylori Urease Klebsiella |
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Term
cysticercosis pathogen & treatment |
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Definition
Taenia solium (cestode): praziquantel |
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Term
1) spaghetti & meatballs prep? 2) Cigar-shaped yeast forms (unequal budding)? |
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Definition
1) malasezia furfur 2) Sporothrix |
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Term
Rasberries are associated w/ what pathogen that can cause chronic diarrhea in AIDS pts |
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Definition
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Term
1) No duffy antigen protects against this species? 2) All other RBC things (e.g. sickle, thalassemia, G6PD) protect against this spp |
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Definition
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Term
Proteins on the capsid of HIV? The envelope? |
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Definition
Capsid = gag = p24
Envelope = env = gp120, gp41 |
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Term
Bacterial or viral conjunctivitis: 1) <3 y.o.? 2) >3 y.o.? |
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Definition
1) bacterial 2) Viral (e.g. adenovirus) |
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Term
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Definition
S.pneumo N.meningitidis K.pneumonia H.flu Pseudomonas Salmonella Cryptococcus
"Some Nasty Killers Have Pretty Shiny Capsules" |
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Term
Name function & the bacteria who has each virulence factor: 1) Protein A 2) M protein |
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Definition
1) S.aureus: binds Fc & prevents phagocytosis 2) GAS: Binds factor H -> degrade C3 -> prevent opsonization |
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Term
Name 4 important G(+) beta-hemolytic strep |
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Definition
GAS GBS S.aureus L.monocytogenese
NOTE: CAMP test = GBS produces CAMP factor, which increases hemolysis of S.aureus |
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Term
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Definition
inhibit DHF reductase (same as TMP)
Pyrimethamine-sulfadiazine is DOC for Toxo |
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Term
where do you detect the antigen for legionella? |
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Definition
in the urine
NOTE: there is no person-to-person transmission |
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Term
Sx of congenital syphilis? |
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Definition
Hutchinson teeth, saber shins, saddle nose, CN VIII deafness, mulberry molars |
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Term
someone has a headache, fever & rash. What bacteria do you think of? |
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Definition
rickettsial spp
Tick = R.rickettsiae, Ehrlichiosis Louse = R.prowazekii Flea = R.typhi Chiggers = R.tsutsugamushi (scrub typhus) Inhaled spores (tick feces, catal placenta) = Coxiella burnetii
RMSF rash starts on wrists & goes in; Typhus rash starts on trunk and goes out |
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Term
What antigens are used by weil Felix? |
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Definition
proteus (used to test for rickettsial infection, negative in Coxiella infection) |
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Term
What extra-intestinal manifestation can happen w/ E.histolytica? |
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Definition
Liver abscess: protozoa invade intestinal mucosa ("flask shaped ulcer") -> get into portal circulation -> encyst in liver
These can perforate & invade through diaphragm -> pulmonary abscess
REMEMBER: you treat all the protozoa w/ metronidazole (giardia, E.histolytica, trichomanas vaginalis) |
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Term
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Definition
Suramin if not in CNS (inhibits enzymes in metabolism)
Melarsoprol if in CNS (arsenical; binds sulfhydryl groups)
(remember Testes fly, painful bite) |
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Term
If you got bit by an Ixodes tick & got the 4 things associated w/ it. What would you have to get treated with? |
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Definition
Doxycycline (B.burgdorferi, Ehrlichia, Anaplasmosis)
Quinine or Clindamycin (Babesia) |
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Term
Smelly vaginal discharge: 1) Thin Gray 2) Thin Greenish |
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Definition
1) Gardenella 2) Trichomonas
Treat both with metronidazole |
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Term
How do you treat: 1) Nematode in the gut? 2) D.medinesis 3) O.volvulus 4) LoaLoa 5) W.bancrofti 6) Toxocara canis (i.e. visceral larval migrans) 7) Tapeworms? 8) Dog Tapeworm? 9) Trematodes? |
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Definition
1) -Bendazoles (e.g. E.vermicularis, A.lumbricoides, S.stercoralis, A.duodenale, N.americanus) 2) Niridazole (ASIDE: nifurtimox used for chagas) 3) Ivermectin 4,5,6) Diethycarbamazine 7) Praziquantel (e.g. Taenia solium, D.latum) 8) -bendazole 9) Praziquantel (e.g. Schistosomiasis, P.westermani, C.sinensis) |
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Term
Give answer concerning viruses: 1) Which DNA viruses are SS? 2) DNA viruses circular? 3) Which RNA viruses aren't infectious when injecting the genomic material? 4) Same as 3, but for DNA viurses? 5) Segmented genomes? |
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Definition
1) Parvovirus 2) Papova & HepB 3) Reo, Retro, and all the SS(-) 4) Pox, HepB 5) Reo, Orthomyxo, Arena, Bunya |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
What does paramyxoviruses have that allows them to form multinucleated giant cells?
What drug blocks this? |
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Definition
F protein ("fusion")
Palivisumab (used in RSV infections) |
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Term
coinfection or superinfection is worse w/ HDV? |
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Definition
Superinfection (i.e. infect someone already infected w/ HBV) |
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Term
What HIV antibody crosses the placenta? |
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Definition
anti-gp120 (gives false positive for the first few months after birth) |
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Term
PrPc or PrPsc is beta-pleated sheet? |
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Definition
PrPsc
PrPsc converts PrPc to PrPsc |
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Term
what stage of syphilis do you get condyloma lata? |
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Definition
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Term
Name MOA for each: 1) Enfuvirtide 2) Efavirenz 3) Maraviroc 4) Raltegravir |
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Definition
1) gp41 inhibitor 2) NNRTI 3) CCR4 binder 4) Integrase inhibitor (pol gene) |
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Term
what Ig is deficient in: 1) Ataxia-Telangiectasia? 2) Wiskott-Aldrich? |
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Definition
1) IgA 2) IgE & IgA are up; IgM is down |
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Term
which MHC is most important in matching for a transplant? |
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Definition
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Term
Acute & chronic Sx of Iron poisoning? |
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Definition
Acute: GI bleeding
Chronic: Metabolic acidosis (a lactic acidosis from mitochondrial damage); GI obstruction (from scarring from ROS damage) |
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Term
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Definition
Cardiac Rhabdomyomas Astrocytomas Kidney angiomyolipomas Facial angiofibromas Seizures & MR |
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Term
1) ras function 2) BRCA1 or 2 that is just for breast? |
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Definition
1) GTPase (oncogene) 2) BRCA2 (1 is for breast & ovarian) |
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Term
Bombesin is a marker for what tumors? |
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Definition
Neuroblastoma, Lung and gastric cancer
Bombesin is a peptide that stimulates gastrin secretion & has some effect in the CNS |
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Term
why is hyponatremia inotropic? |
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Definition
works similar to DIG: decreased Na gradient keeps more Ca in the cell (inhibition of Na/Ca antiporter) |
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Term
1) Is acidosis inotropic? 2) How do NDHP Ca-channel blockers decrease contractility? |
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Definition
1) No, it decreases contractility 2) Decreases Ca-induced Ca release in myocytes (remember, it's also chronotropic. These have essentially the same effect as beta-blockers) |
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Term
ejection fraction equation |
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Definition
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Term
3 states w/ increased viscosity |
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Definition
PCV walstrom's/multiple myeloma hereditary spherocytosis |
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Term
What can cause paradoxical splitting? |
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Definition
things that delay LV emptying (e.g. aortic stenosis, LBBB) |
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Term
Define: 1) First degree heart block 2) Wenckebach 3) Mobitz 2 4) 3rd degree heart block |
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Definition
1) PR interval is >1 large box (>200ms) 2) i.e. mobitz 1; Progressively longer PR until beat is dropped. Benign 3) Dropped beats, often in 2:1 ratio. May proceed to 3rd degree 4) No P-R coupling (remember lyme & congenital lupus) |
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Term
Aortic arch baroreceptors respond only to increase or decrease BP? |
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Definition
increase BP (act to decrease CO; just remember, it goes up & back down the vagus) |
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Term
@ what PO2 do the carotid chemoreceptors detect low O2? |
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Definition
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Term
what do you need to keep baby alive w/ tricuspid atresia? |
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Definition
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Term
differential cyanosis w/ what? |
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Definition
PDA (when pulm vasculature becomes more resistant -> reverses shunt)
NOTE: Postductal |
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Term
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Definition
>140/90 (stage 1) >160/100
(<139/90 is prehypertension)
120/80 is normal; >200/120 is malignant |
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Term
ekg with prinzmetal's angina? |
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Definition
ST-elevation (not depression). This is b.c. the vasospasm causes a total occlusion -> transmural ischemia (vs atherosclerosis) |
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Term
larger form of osteoid osteoma that doesn't get better w/ ASA? |
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Definition
Osteoblastoma
Osteoid osteoma (<2cm) is usally in kids & in cortex of long bones
Osteoblastoma (>2cm) is usually in vertebra |
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