1. Regrowth from underground vegetative parts generally is

• a. characteristic of biennials during their second year

• b. common in conifer trees

• c. not common among native broadleaved shrubs

2. Plants that germinate from seed in fall or early winter and flower and die by early summer most likely are winter

• a. perennials

• b. biennials

• c. annuals

3. Herbicides that are selective for grasses are most likely to control weeds with narrow leaves that

• a. are in groups of three growing from solid, jointed stems

• b. grow in opposite pairs from round, hollow stems

• c. alternate from one side to the other of hollow stems

4. Cultivating, or tilling, weeds

• a. makes it more difficult to plant desirable species afterward

• b. can spread underground parts of perennials

• c. cannot be used in combination with herbicides

5. To kill or suppress established perennials, the LEAST effective choice generally is

• a. a preemergence herbicide

• b. a translocated herbicide

• c. a contact herbicide

6. For winter annuals, the LEAST effective of these applications during February generally is

• a. a translocated herbicide

• b. a contact herbicide

• c. a preemergence herbicide

7. When spraying waxy or hairy leaves, methods LEAST likely to improve spray contact include

• a. use of nozzles with larger openings and higher application pressure

• b. reduced application pressure and use of nozzles with smaller openings

• c. a more dilute solution and increased per-acre spray volume

8. You are LEAST likely to improve how well pesticides dissolve and mix together if you

• a. add penetrants and stickers

• b. use nonalkaline (lower-pH) mix water

• c. change the order of addition to the tank

9. Which of the following is NOT a good reason to combine herbicides with other control methods?

• a. combining methods usually provides better control

• b. annual weeds are difficult to control with herbicides alone

• c. herbicides alone often leave behind too much debris when managing woody vegetation

10. Factors that most affect how quickly nozzles wear include

• a. nozzle style and type of material

• b. application pressure and target pest

• c. orifice size and soluble powder concentration

11.Working at your normal pace with a hand-pump sprayer, it takes you 1 minute to treat an area 10 feet by 34 feet. About how long must you spray to treat 1 acre (43,560 sq ft)?

• a. 4hours

• b. 1hour

• c. 2hours

12.Comparing types of nozzles, which of the following is true?

• a. an even flat-spray nozzle releases more output in the center of the spray pattern

• b. a regular flat-spray nozzle releases more output in the center of the spray pattern

• c. an off-center nozzle releases more output in the center of the spray pattern

13. Backflow prevention methods do NOT include

• a. using a double-check valve in the filler hose or pipe

• b. leaving a space between the top of the tank and the fill hose or pipe outlet

• c. using the same pump to fill the tank and spray pesticide

14.The application rate typically increases if you

• a. increase the sprayer pressure and decrease the pesticide concentration in the mix

• b. increase travel speed and decrease nozzle orifice size increase the sprayer pressure and decrease the swath width
• c. increase the sprayer pressure and decrease the swath width

15. Herbicides that can selectively control broadleaves include

• a. atrazine and glufosinate

• b. 2,4-D and triclopyr

• c. diquat and trifluralin

16. Herbicides for selectively controlling grasses include

• a. atrazine and clopyralid

• b. diquat and glufosinate

• c. clethodim and fluazifop

17.You decrease the likelihood of herbicide resistance if you rotate applications from

• a. clethodim to sethoxydim

• b. glyphosate to pelargonic acid

• c. chlorsulfuron to sulfosulfuron

• d. diquat to paraquat

• e. all except b

18.You are NOT switching between three different chemical groups when you rotate from

• a. aminopyralid to glyphosate to triclopyr

• b. dicamba to diquat to sulfosate • c. glufosinate to sulfosate to triclopyr

• d. bentazon to halosulfuron to 2,4-D

• e. all except a

19.Soil-applied herbicides for selectively controlling broadleaves include

• a. isoxaben and certain other benzamides

• b. 2,4-D and certain other synthetic auxins

• c. triclopyr and certain other pyridines

• d. both b and c

20.Most pesticide applications in rights-of-way are intended to manage

• a. insects and mites

• b. undesirable vegetation

• c. plant pathogens

• d. vertebrate pests

21. Because they easily pass through human skin, pesticides of this formulation type (abbreviated) pose the most serious eye hazard:

• a. SP

• b. WP

• c. EC

• d. F

22. Formulations that require agitation include those abbreviated as

• a. B, S, and SP

• b. DF, F, and WP

• c. GR, L, and P

23. A formulation that often leaves a visible residue after it dries is abbreviated as

• a. E

• b. EC

• c. WP

24.Nonselective herbicides are generally a good choice for broadcast spraying of

• a. riparian areas

• b. ornamental plantings

• c. a strip alongside pavement

25.Adjuvants include

• a. chemicals that improve pesticide handling and effectiveness

• b. carriers, such as mineral clay and water

• c. active ingredients and inert additives

26.Generally it is more difficult to control weeds

• a. when annuals are seedlings

• b. before perennials produce vegetative propagules

• c. after planting landscapes

27.Fresh mounds of moist soil continually appear, but you have not seen the cause of tunneling during visits throughout the day. Assuming you definitely confirm the cause, the most effective controls for the most likely vertebrate pest cause include

• a. fumigating and shooting

• b. baiting and trapping

• c. trapping and frightening

• d. both a and b

28.Fumigant rodenticides are most likely to be effective for controlling

• a. ground squirrels and pocket gophers

• b. rats and voles

• c. moles and rabbits

29.You would most likely suspect  

• a. pocket gophers if you saw one soil mound surrounded by several feet of chewed-away vegetation

• b. voles if you saw burrow openings 6 to 8 inches wide

• c. ground squirrels if you saw a line of soil mounds, some connected by raised ridges of soil

30.When managing ground squirrels, the efficacy of the various methods is most affected by

• a. the time of day

• b. the time of year

• c. the age of the squirrels

31. A selective herbicide is more likely to be a good choice

• a. for strip application alongside pavement

• b. where some vegetation is desired

• c. around fuel-handling and electrical facilities

32. Undesirable woody vegetation is more likely to be killed by

• a. plant growth regulators and sterilants

• b. foliar contact and preemergence herbicides

• c. basal-stem and cut-surface treatments

33. Before applying poison bait for vertebrate pest control, you should

• a. make sure the target is likely to feed on the bait

• b. learn of any special regulations

• c. take steps to keep nontarget vertebrates away from the bait

• d. all are correct

34.Good times to apply herbicide for annual weed control do NOT include

• a. when they are young and actively growing

• b. before sprouts emerge

• c. after flowers die back

• d. when they are seedlings

35.There is a greater risk of water contamination when applying preemergence herbicides to

• a. clay soils compared with sandy soils

• b. sandy soils compared with clay soils

• c. loam soils compared with gravelly soils

• d. silt soils compared with gravelly soils

36.Methods to reduce pesticide contamination of water include

• a. apply soil-residual herbicide in April instead of November

• b. apply leaching-prone herbicides only where soils are gravelly or sandy

• c. apply preemergence herbicides only when topsoil is very wet

• d. keep soil bare where it borders surface waters

37.When choosing herbicide to apply during warm weather, to reduce the risk of phytotoxicity due to movement off-site in air, choose

• a. triclopyr ester instead of an amine formulation

• b. triclopyr amine instead of an ester formulation

• c. a different active ingredient, because the formulation has little effect on movement off-site

38.The risk of water contamination from herbicide use is LEAST affected by the

• a. herbicide type

• b. soil type

• c. weed species

• d. application timing

39.When a problem occurs from pesticide use, the most common reason is

• a. failure to follow the label directions

• b. lack of experience in using that pesticide

• c. old or poorly maintained application equipment

40.Common ways pesticides move off-site do NOT include

• a. transportation

• b. drift

• c. leaching

• d. runoff

• e. volatilization

41. Herbicide movement off-site is most affected by

• a. application equipment and the pH of the spray mix

• b. soil type and what weeds grow there

• c. environmental conditions and type of pesticide

1. Major pests of Douglas-fir or true firs do NOT include

• a. tussock moths and western budworms

• b. bark beetles and dwarf mistletoes

• c. blister rust and pitch canker

• d. needle casts and heart rots

2. Common pests of oaks do NOT include

• a. caterpillars and leafrollers

• b. Armillaria root disease and Hypoxylon canker

• c. Phytophthora diseases and leafy mistletoe

• d. blister rust and pitch canker

3. Regrowth from underground vegetative parts generally is

• a. not common among native broadleaved shrubs

• b. common in conifer trees

• c. characteristic of biennials during their second year

4. Herbicides selective for grasses are most likely to control weeds with narrow leaves that

• a. grow in opposite pairs from round, hollow stems

• b. alternate from one side to the other of hollow stems

• c. are in groups of three from solid, jointed stems

5. Methods LEAST likely to prevent or reduce bark beetle damage in forests include

• a. preventing injuries to roots and trunks

• b. chipping or lopping and spreading slash

• c. decreasing stand density

• d. applying systemic insecticides

6. Pesticide use in forests generally CANNOT control or prevent damage from

• a. annual and perennial vegetation

• b. budworms and tussock moths

• c. blister rust and pitch canker

• d. Annosus or Heterobasidion root disease

7. Pheromone use is LEAST likely to help manage

a. bark beetles

b. adelgids

c. shoot and tip moths

d. tussock moths

8. In forests, pesticides are most commonly applied to manage

• a. undesirable vegetation

• b. insects and mites

• c. plant pathogens

• d. vertebrate pests

9. The most important hosts of Phytophthora ramorum, the cause of sudden oak death, do NOT include

• a. camellias and rhododendrons

• b. California bay laurel and tanoak

• c. California black and coast live oaks

• d. red alder and incense-cedar

10. Nonselective contact herbicide is generally a poor choice for

• a. broadcast spraying around desirable seedlings

• b. treating orchard and nursery borders

• c. application before planting trees

• d. spot-spraying near desirable trees

11.To kill or suppress established perennials, the LEAST effective choice generally is

• a. contact herbicides

• b. translocated herbicides

• c. preemergence herbicides

12.When spraying waxy or hairy leaves, methods LEAST likely to improve spray contact include

• a. using nozzles with larger openings and increasing application pressure

• b. reducing application pressure and using nozzles with smaller openings

• c. increasing the dilution and increasing spray volume per acre

13.You are LEAST likely to improve how well pesticides dissolve and mix together if you

• a. change the order of addition to the tank

• b. use nonalkaline (lower-pH) mix water

• c. add penetrants and stickers

14. Factors that most affect how quickly nozzles wear include

• a. orifice size and soluble powder concentration

• b. application pressure and target pest

• c. nozzle style and type of material

15.Comparing types of nozzles, which of the following is true?

• a. a regular flat-spray nozzle releases more output in the center of the spray pattern

• b. an even flat-spray nozzle releases more output in the center of the spray pattern

• c. an off-center nozzle releases more output in the center of the spray pattern

15.Comparing types of nozzles, which of the following is true?

• a. a regular flat-spray nozzle releases more output in the center of the spray pattern

• b. an even flat-spray nozzle releases more output in the center of the spray pattern

• c. an off-center nozzle releases more output in the center of the spray pattern

16.When applying residual preemergence herbicides to soil, effectiveness is most affected by

• a. soil microorganisms and sunlight

• b. air temperature and organic matter

• c. soil moisture and type

17. Backflow prevention methods do NOT include

• a. leaving a space between the top of the tank and the fill hose or pipe outlet

• b. using the same pump to fill the tank and spray pesticide

• c. using a double-check valve in the filler hose or pipe

18.The application rate typically increases if you

a. increase the sprayer pressure and decrease the swath width

b. increase travel speed and decrease nozzle orifice size

c. increase the sprayer pressure and decrease the pesticide concentration in the mix

19.You decrease the likelihood of herbicide resistance if you rotate applications from

• a. glyphosate to pelargonic acid

• b. clethodim to sethoxydim

• c. chlorsulfuron to sulfosulfuron

• d. diquat to paraquat

• e. all except a

20.You are NOT switching between three different chemical groups when you rotate from

a.  bentazon to halosulfuron to 2,4-D

b.  dicamba to diquat to sulfosate

c.  glufosinate to sulfosate to triclopyr

d.  aminopyralid to glyphosate to triclopyr

e.  all except a

21.Soil-applied herbicides for selective control of broadleaves include

• a. triclopyr and certain other pyridines

• b. 2,4-D and certain other synthetic auxins

• c. isoxaben and certain other benzamides

• d. bothaandb

22.A common pest complex or damaging interaction is

• a. canker diseases and leafminers

• b. root diseases and wood borers

• c. Hypoxylon canker and oakworms

• d. Armillaria root disease and engraver beetles

23.Which statement is LEAST likely to be true

• a. a pine forest is selectively cut and the stumps are not treated, then remaining pines that are near stumps increasingly die in ever-widening circles

• b. after road building and selective logging during prolonged wet weather, root diseases dramatically increase • c. slash is piled and burned or chopped and scattered, and then ips engraver outbreaks increase

24.After severe fire or clear cutting removes the forest, without management the first common regrowth is likely to be

• a. hardwood and conifer trees

• b. broadleaved shrubs and trees

• c. herbaceous broadleaves and grasses

25.Which statement is LEAST likely to be true

• a. if fungicide is applied to freshly cut pine stumps, nearby trees are less likely to develop Heterobasidion root disease

• b. if conifer seeds and seedlings are abundant, vegetation management after logging has little effect on how quickly the conifer forest regrows

• c. if logging slash is burned, chopped, or otherwise processed, nearby trees are less likely to become attacked by bark beetles

• d. if topsoil is wet during logging road construction and use, nearby trees are more likely to develop root diseases

26. Burning is LEAST useful in forests to

a. improve stand resistance to certain pests

b. reduce the likelihood of uncontrolled wildfires

c. eliminate invasive plants around tree seedlings

d. prepare a site for planting

27.Good reasons for using herbicides in combination with other control methods do NOT include

• a. combining methods usually provides better control

• b. annual weeds are difficult to control with herbicides alone

• c. herbicides alone often leave too much woody debris

28.When choosing an herbicide to apply during warm weather, to reduce the risk of phytotoxicity due to movement off-site in air, choose

• a. triclopyr amine instead of an ester formulation

• b. triclopyr ester instead of an amine formulation

• c. a different active ingredient because the formulation has little effect on movement off-site

29.There is a greater risk of water contamination when applying preemergence herbicides to

• a. silt soils, compared with treating gravelly soils

• b. clay soils, compared with treating sandy soils

• c. loam soils, compared with treating gravelly soils

• d. sandy soils, compared with treating clay soils

30.The risk of water contamination from herbicide use is LEAST affected by the

• a. soil type

• b. weed species

• c. herbicide type

• d. application timing

31.When a problem occurs from pesticide use, the most common reason is

• a. old application equipment

• b. lack of experience in using that pesticide

• c. failure to follow the label directions

32.Common ways pesticides move off-site do NOT include

a. drift

b. transportation

c. leaching

d. runoff

e. volatilization

33. Herbicide movement off-site is most affected by

• a. application equipment and pH of the spray mix

• b. soil type and what weeds grow there

• c. environmental conditions and type of pesticide

34.Methods to reduce pesticide contamination of water include

• a. keeping soil bare where it borders surface waters

• b. applying leaching-prone herbicides to gravelly or sandy soils

• c. treating topsoil when it is very wet

• d. applying soil-residual herbicide in April instead of November

35.When harvesting timber, generally you should

• a. not apply any pesticide to freshly cut tree stumps

• b. burn, chip, or otherwise process or remove slash if abundant

• c. use heavy equipment only when topsoil is very wet

• d. avoid harvesting unhealthy or pest-damaged trees

36.The label alone is LEAST likely to provide all the information you need when deciding

• a. what personal protective equipment to use

• b. whether that pesticide can be applied with the type of equipment you have

• c. what is the correct application rate

37.Certification in the Forest Pest Control category qualifies you to treat

• a. forest conifers by aerial application if you are licensed to fly aircraft

• b. pest species not on the label if the pesticide is labeled for that forest site

• c. water weeds in a forest stream if the herbicide is labeled for that use

1. Certification in the Right-of-Way Pest Control category qualifies you to treat

• a. rural utility lines by aerial application if you are licensed to fly aircraft

• b. jogging and walking paths if no pedestrians are present

• c. a canal with water weeds if the herbicide is labeled for that use 

2. California requirements not on the label are most likely to apply when

• a. treating rights-of-way in public parks and school grounds

• b. deciding how much pesticide and water to add to the spray tank

• c. deciding whether it is legal to mix that pesticide with another pesticide

3. The label alone is LEAST likely to provide all the information you need when deciding

• a. whether that pesticide can be applied at that site

• b. what personal protective equipment to use

• c. what the correct application rate is 

4. Some low-growing vegetation is most commonly maintained or desired

• a. on railway ballasts and berms

•b. immediately adjacent to road pavement

• c. on slopes above pathways and roads

1. In comparison with overhead sprinklers, drip irrigation in nurseries

a. increases armyworm and cutworm damage

b. increases Botrytis and other foliar blight diseases

c. causes more weeds to sprout

d. allows pesticide application in irrigation water 

2. Common pests of acorns or cones do NOT include

a. carpenterworms and sawflies

b. beetles and moth larvae

c. filbertworms and seed bugs

d. weevils and beetle larvae 

3. Pesticides generally are not effective for controlling these seedling or seed orchard pests:

a. mice, rabbits, and voles

b. needle blights and casts

c. mycorrhizae and white pine blister rust

d. root-feeding aphids and beetles

4. Border vegetation and nearby noncrop plants are LEAST likely to contribute to seedling damage from

a. blister rust and gall rusts

b. damping-off and heart rots

c. armyworms and grasshoppers

d. pocket gophers and voles 

5. Good times to apply herbicide for annual weed control do NOT include

a. when the weeds are seedlings

b. before weed sprouts emerge

c. after weed flowers die back

d. when weeds are young and actively growing

1. Commercial timber harvested in California is LEAST likely to be

• a. sugar pine and white fir

• b. coastal redwood and lodgepole pine

• c. Douglas-fir and ponderosa pine

• d. Monterey pine and red cedar

2. Commercial timber forests are LEAST common in the

• a. Sierra Nevada

• b. North Coast

• c. Central Coast

• d. southern Cascades

3. Oaks are

• a. common in rangelands and watersheds

• b. rare in forests where conifers are abundant

• c. burned to heat homes because of their soft wood

• d. important mainly for their harvested wood

1. When applying nonselective herbicide near desired trees, the LEAST preferred methods include

• a. basal-stem spraying and frill girdle

• b. hatchet injection and tubular injection

• c. rotary granule application and soil drench 

2. Your equipment needs more frequent calibration if you

• a. use aluminum, brass, or entirely plastic nozzles instead of ceramic, stainless steel, or tungsten carbide nozzles

• b. increase application pressures

• c. switch to nozzles with smaller orifice sizes

• d. all of the above 

3. To calibrate a high-volume liquid sprayer, what you must accurately measure includes the

• a. tank capacity, sprayer output (flow rate), and sprayer pressure

• b. swath width, travel speed, and sprayer output (flow rate)

• c. sprayer output (flow rate), tank capacity, and size of area to be treated

4. According to the label in Figure 4-2, if you apply 200 gallons of spray mix to 1 acre of nongrazable land, the maximum rate of Reckon you can apply per acre is

• a. 3 to 4 quarts

• b. 6 to 8 quarts

• c. 12 to 16 quarts

5. If you plan to mix Reckon (Figure 4-2) with a surfactant and another herbicide, you should add Reckon to the spray tank

• a. after the surfactant and other herbicide

• b. after the surfactant but before the other herbicide

• c. first, before adding the others

1. When you choose between otherwise similar pesticides, generally the most hazardous choice for handlers is the pesticide labeled

• a. CAUTION

• b. WARNING

• c. DANGER 

2. To reduce the risk that nontarget vertebrates will be poisoned

• a. use exclusion and habitat modification

• b. obey endangered species protection guidelines

• c. use multiple-dose anticoagulants instead of single-dose baits

• d. all of the above 

3. When handling pesticides, you generally must use protective eyewear

• a. unless you wear prescription eyeglasses

• b. even if the label does not tell you to

• c. except when handling dry formulations

4. To reduce pesticide drift

• a. increase the application pressure and boom height

• b. use oil-based formulations, such as an ester instead of an amine

• c. increase spray droplet and nozzle opening sizes 

5. Methods LEAST likely to reduce spray drift include

• a. using lower application pressures and nozzles with larger openings

• b. adding drift control adjuvants and using more nozzles • c. reducing travel speed and using fewer nozzles 

6. You increase the risk of pesticide contamination of groundwater or surface water when you

• a. place the fill hose outlet inside the spray tank

• b. use a double-check valve in the filler hose or pipe

• c. use an external sight gauge when filling the tank

1. To handle the pesticide in Figure 4-2, what you must wear usually includes

a. chemical-resistant gloves and protective eyewear

b. shoes and socks

c. long-sleeved shirt and long pants

d. b and c only

e. a, b, and c 

2. When you are deciding what PPE to wear, the required information sources include

a.  the pesticide label and safety data sheet (SDS, or MSDS)

b. the pesticide label and DPR regulations

c. the pesticide label, safety data sheet (SDS, or MSDS), and DPR regulations 

3. The pesticide’s name and signal word and the name, address, and telephone number of the person responsible for it must be on

a. warning signs posted at pesticide mixing and loading sites

b. anything holding pesticide except the original labeled packaging

c. entrances to pesticide storage sites

d. all of the above

4. When you choose between otherwise similar pesticides, generally the least hazardous choice for handlers is the pesticide labeled

• a. CAUTION

• b. DANGER

• c. WARNING

5. Serious accidental pesticide injuries most often occur when handlers

• a. mix and load pesticide

• b. apply pesticides under the wrong weather conditions

• c. use high-volume spray equipment 

6. Heat-related illness is most likely to occur when you

• a. work outdoors during cloudy, windy weather

• b. drive an ATV or tractor sprayer

• c. work on foot or do manual labor

1. To selectively manage vegetation with nonselective herbicides

• a. apply preemergence herbicide before seedlings have five leaves

• b. time applications for when undesirable vegetation is dormant

• c. use frill girdle and trunk injection 

2. Contact herbicides are

• a. useful for controlling seedlings and annuals

• b. more likely to injure nearby plants than translocated herbicides

• c. generally the best choice for killing perennials 

3. Translocated or systemic herbicides generally are

• a. more effective when weeds are dormant

• b. more effective when weeds are actively growing

• c. not a good choice to control perennials

1. Knowing what pest life stages are present helps you to determine

• a. whether that species is a pest

• b. which controls are effective

• c. whether a pesticide can legally be applied to the site

2. Abiotic disorders

• a. are not important to recognize when deciding whether to apply pesticides

• b. do not affect what organisms become pest problems

• c. rarely can be prevented or managed because you can’t control the weather

• d. are not controlled by pesticides

• e. all of the above