Term
What are the methods of prenatal cytogenetics diagnoses? Postnatal? |
|
Definition
Prenatal - CVS amniocentesis Postnatal - Peripheral blood (MOST COMMON) |
|
|
Term
At what point during the cell cycle can chromosomes be studied? What characteristic must the chromosomes have? Examples of tissues that can be studied? |
|
Definition
During mitosis; must be able to be stimulated to oundergo cell division in vitro; chorionic villi,amniotic fluid, peripheral blood (lymphocytes), skin (fibroblasts), bone marrow |
|
|
Term
What technique is used for c'some staining? Why? What is found in this area that is stained? |
|
Definition
G banding; each c'some has a unique G-banding pattern; hundreds of genes (thus abnormalities reveal syndromes with multiple anomalies) |
|
|
Term
Short and long arm nomenclature |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Can G-banding detect a single gene deletion? |
|
Definition
No, because there are hundreds of genes on one G band |
|
|
Term
What does ISCN 47, XY, +21 mean? |
|
Definition
International System for Cytogenetic Nomenclature; 47 c'somes, XY sex c'somes, extra c'some 21 |
|
|
Term
What is a common oral finding in Downs patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
WHow does trisomy usually arise? |
|
Definition
Nondisjunction in meiosis I, meiosis II, or mitosis |
|
|
Term
Only trisomy 13, 18, and 21 are viable |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the three conditions from which trisomy 21 can develop? |
|
Definition
meitoic nondisjunction 95%, Robertsonian translocation 4%, mosaicism 1% |
|
|
Term
What is a Robertsonian translocation? |
|
Definition
A third copy of a c'some is located in a different spot |
|
|
Term
What is the difference between a balanced and unbalanced translocation? |
|
Definition
Balanced has no loss of genetic material and unbalanced has a loss; balanced is usually phenotypically normal but at risk of babies with unbalanced translocations |
|
|
Term
What is the genotype of Kleinfelters? Which symptoms would you see at which ages? |
|
Definition
47, XXY 6 y.o. - behavioral issues and learning disabilities 15 y.o. - gynecomnastia 30 y.o. - male w/ hx. of infertility/azoospermia |
|
|
Term
What is the genotype of someone with Turner syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a microdeletion syndrome? |
|
Definition
Loss of a very small amount of material from a chromosome; a deletion from the same gene but depending on which parent it was inherited from will give a different phenotype |
|
|
Term
Contrast between Di George and velocardiofacial syndrome? |
|
Definition
Both deletions of the 22q11.2 Di George - 3rd and 5th pharyngeal pouch defects (thymic and parathyroid hypoplasia and cardiac defects) VCFS: cleft palate, cardiac anomalies, malar hypoplasia, prominent nose, retrognathia, ear anomalies, learning disabilities |
|
|
Term
What is most common anomaly in 22q deletion syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The majority of hematologic malignancies are associated with what? |
|
Definition
Acquired clonal chromosomal abnormalities |
|
|
Term
What translocation is always present in CML and what does it alter? |
|
Definition
chronic myelogenous leukemia: reciprocal tranlocation between 9 and 22 creating a novel BCR/ABL gene which alters tyrosine kinase activity |
|
|
Term
Describe Papillon LeFevre |
|
Definition
Autosomal recessive Cathopsin C mutation Hyperkeratosis, gingivitis, periodontitis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Autosomal dominant No gene known Bilateral (4 quadrant) multilocular expansions; radioluscent (less dense than normal bone) lesions; 1st seen from 2-5 years; tooth displacement and eruption failure |
|
|
Term
Describe cleinocranial dysplasia: |
|
Definition
Autosomal dominant Cbfa1/Runx2 Aplasia (or hypoplasia) of the clavicl; hundreds of unerupted teeth (clinical hypodontia) because of lack of secondary cementum; delayed suture closure (open fontanels); narrow, high arched palate, sometimes cleft; deciduous teeth have normal eruption but prolonged retention |
|
|
Term
Describe Crouzon syndrome: |
|
Definition
Autosomal dominant FGFR2 (fibroblast growth factor 2) gene Premature closure of sutures; mandibular prognathism and underdeveloped maxilla and midface; bulging eyes (ocular proptosis); normal intelligence |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Autosomal dominant FGFR2 (Fibroblast growth factor) Craniofacial synostosis; syndactly; midfacial hypoplasia; teeth crowding; palate appears cleft but its just overgrown gingiva; mental retardation |
|
|
Term
How are Crouzon's and Apert's similar and different? |
|
Definition
Appear very similar but Aperts has mental retardation and Crozon's does not |
|
|
Term
Of all the diseases discussed by Raj which ones can be autosomal recessive? |
|
Definition
Papillon LeFevre, hypophosphatasia, amelogenesis imperfecta, dentinogenesis imperfecta
|
|
|
Term
Of all the diseases discussed by Raj which ones are X-linked? |
|
Definition
amelogenesis imperfecta, Vitamin D resistant rickets, |
|
|
Term
Describe Treacher Collins: |
|
Definition
Autosomal dominant TCOF1 Underdeveloped mandible, facial clefting, hypoplastic zygoma, depressed cheeks, downward palpebral slant; tooth crowding |
|
|
Term
Describe Gorlin syndrome: |
|
Definition
Gorlin (aka multiple nevoid basal cell carcinoma) AD - high penetrance Mutation in patched on chrmosome 9 Multiple basal cell carcinomas (even in unexposed skin) and multiple odontogenic keratocytes |
|
|
Term
Describe neurofibromatosis: |
|
Definition
Neurofibromatosis (aka von Recklinghausen disease of the skin): AD or spontaneous NF1 (neurofibromatosis) gene on c'some 17 Characterized by neurofibromas - benign tumor of nervous tissue |
|
|
Term
Describe Multiple Endocrine neoplasia, type IIB: |
|
Definition
AD Mutation of ret-proto-oncogene on c'some 10 Multiple mucosal neuromas, pheochromocytoma (secretion of catecholamines), medullary carcinoma of the thyroid |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
AD No known gene Pigmentations see on peri and intraoral skin; also form intestinal polyps of which 2-3% will become malignant |
|
|
Term
Describe amelogenesis imperfecta: |
|
Definition
AD, X-linked, AR Multiple presentations - hypoplastic, hypomaturation, hypocalcified |
|
|
Term
Describe dentinogenesis imperfecta: |
|
Definition
AD, AR, sporadic Type 1 collagen gene mutation No pulp chambers present or shell teeth with large pulp chambers |
|
|
Term
Describe hypophosphatasia: |
|
Definition
AR No gene Dec in alkaline phosphatase (necessary for tooth development); premature exfoliation because of no cementum |
|
|
Term
Describe Vitamin D resistant rickets: |
|
Definition
X linked dominant trait Exfoliated teeth becasue of inflammatory response and large pulp chambers and pinpoint pulp exposures resulting in nonvital teeth |
|
|
Term
Where are the high risk areas for oral cancer? |
|
Definition
Floor of the mouth, ventral tongue, soft palate, and lateral borders of the tongue |
|
|
Term
What are risk factors for oral cancer? |
|
Definition
Tobacco, alcohol, areca nut Radiation, HPV or EBV, iron and Vitamin A deficiency Oncogenes and tumor suppressors deficient; familial and genetic predisposition |
|
|
Term
What is the mechansim of carcinogens causing malignancies? |
|
Definition
- Carcinogen is metabolized and taken up by oral mucosa
- Metabolites are electrophilic and bind DNA to change genotype and cell features
- Cell proliferation
|
|
|
Term
What is the 5 year survival rate for oral cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the single most predictive factor of survival? |
|
Definition
Staging at diagnosis (T, N, M = tumor size, depth of involvement, etc) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Radiation at the site of tumor |
|
|
Term
What are 3 major problems in pahtogenesis of head/neck cancer? |
|
Definition
What are chances? - high risk, can't be more specific How can we predict? - 20% will progress How can we effectively monitor? - don't know |
|
|
Term
How many hits does a tumor suppressor and oncogene need? |
|
Definition
Tumor suppressor needs 2 hits and oncogene 1 |
|
|
Term
What are oncogenes and tumor suppressors? |
|
Definition
Normal oncogene is like the green light to keep cell cycle going; abnormal oncogene is a constant green light and cycle never stops Normal tumor suppressor is like a red light but abnormal will not stop a mutation when it should |
|
|
Term
What is significatn about proliferative verrucous leukoplakia |
|
Definition
- No predictive histo pattern
- No test to prove likely progression
- Must reevaluate frequently and remove if recurs
|
|
|
Term
What percent of all births in the US have birth defects? What percent of birth defects have craniofacial or oral manifestations? |
|
Definition
7%: ~75% have OMF component |
|
|
Term
What percentage of clefts are bilateral and unilateral? |
|
Definition
20% bilateral, 80% unilateral |
|
|
Term
What does multifactorial inheritance mean? |
|
Definition
When a phyenotype is determined by the interaction of a number of genes at different loci (each with small additive effect) and environmental factors |
|
|
Term
What are characteristics of multifactorial inheritance? |
|
Definition
- Don't demonstrate simple mendelian inheritance pattern
- Demonstrate familial aggregation (family hx)
- Gene and environmental interractions are significant
|
|
|
Term
What are the most common craniofacial disorders? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the occurrences of cleft lip and/or palate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the difference between a syndromic and nonsyndromic cleft? |
|
Definition
Syndromic is one of the problems associated with a larger syndrome and nonsyndromic exists alone |
|
|
Term
What side do the majority of unilateral clefts occur on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What percentage of non-syndromic clefts are sporadic and familial? |
|
Definition
Sporadic (isolated) ~ 75% Familial ~ 25% |
|
|
Term
Which ethnicity is most at risk for CL(P)? |
|
Definition
Native Americans (3.6 of 1000 live births) > Japanese > Chinese > Caucasian |
|
|
Term
What are two problems in studying CL(P)? |
|
Definition
Penetrance and heterogeneity |
|
|
Term
What does penetrance mean? |
|
Definition
When a person with a given genotype fails to demonstrate that phenotype characteristic for the genotype the gene is said to show reduced penetrance |
|
|
Term
What is the significance of heterogeneity? |
|
Definition
When a specific genotype is associated with varying phenotypes in the affected members of a kindred |
|
|
Term
What is the critical time period for head and face development? |
|
Definition
Between the third and twelfth week of pregnancy |
|
|
Term
What is the etiology of cleft lip and what is the critical time period for its development? |
|
Definition
Failure of mesenchymal masses in the medial nasal and maxillary prominence to merge during 5-7 weeks of embryonic life |
|
|
Term
What is the etiology of cleft palate and what is the critical time period for its development? |
|
Definition
Failure of mesencymal masses of the palatine process to fuse during 7-12 weeks |
|
|
Term
What is the recurrence risk of CL (P)? |
|
Definition
4% if one child is affected 9% if two children are affected 17% if one child and parent are affected |
|
|
Term
What are possible gene/environment interactions? |
|
Definition
Alcohol Dilantin (seizure med) Retinoic acid (acne med) Smoking Agricultural chemicals |
|
|
Term
What is the genetic expression, penetrance, phenotype of Van Der Woude Syndrome? |
|
Definition
Penetrance = 100% Autosomal dominant IRF6 Lip pits, depressions (blind sinuses) that descend through orbicularis muscle to a dept of 1-3 cm and communicate with salivary ducts; hypodontia; variable clefting |
|
|
Term
What is the average lifetime medical cost for CL (P)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a codon? How many are there? What is the start codon? How many stop codons? What are the rest of the codons? |
|
Definition
A codon is made of 3 base pairs and there are 64 codons; start is AUG; there are 3 stop codons and 60 codons (besides AUG) encode 20 aa's |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a missense mutation? Nonsense mutation? Insertion? |
|
Definition
Nucleotide change leading to amino acid change Change leads to stop codon Addition that leads to a frameshift |
|
|
Term
Which are purines and pyrimidines? |
|
Definition
Purines A and G Pyrimidines C and T |
|
|
Term
What is a transition? A transversion? |
|
Definition
Transition = Pyr --> pur or Pur --> Pyr A --> G or C --> T Transversion = Pyr --> Pyr or Pur --> Pur G --> T or A --> C |
|
|
Term
What is the most likely mutation? |
|
Definition
C - G C is frequently methylated or spontaneous deamidation of C to T (transition) 8.5 times more likely to change than any other dinucleotide pair |
|
|
Term
What types of 1 bp substitutions can occur? |
|
Definition
Silent - "wobble" Nonsense - AA to stop Missense Conservative - changes aa to same or similar aa Non-conservative - changes aa by function or charge |
|
|
Term
Where would one find non-coding mutations that affect gene function? |
|
Definition
Promoter/enhancer element Splice sites and introns |
|
|
Term
Distinguish between a hypomorph and gain of function mutation? |
|
Definition
A mutation with decreased amoutn/activity of gene product and a mutation with increased amount/activity of gene product |
|
|
Term
Define effect of null allele, dominant negative, and neomorph. |
|
Definition
Null allele - no gene product Dominant negative - antagonizes normal product Neomorph - novel activity of product |
|
|
Term
Which mutations will cause disease? |
|
Definition
All but silent or conservative missense will significantly alter product function |
|
|
Term
What is a polymorphism? In what % of the population do these occur? |
|
Definition
A change in DNA sequence that is not disease causing; occurs in >1% of the population |
|
|
Term
What are the characteristics of autosomal dominant: male or females affected? Chances? Type of transmission? |
|
Definition
Males and females are equally affected; 1 in 2 chance of affected offspring from affected parent; male to male transmission; only need one copy of allele to have the phenotype |
|
|
Term
What is haploinsufficiency? |
|
Definition
One copy isn't enough for function |
|
|
Term
What are the mechanisms yielding dominant alleles? |
|
Definition
Haploinsufficiency Dominant negative Gain of function |
|
|
Term
What are variations on the autosomal dominant rules? |
|
Definition
- Co-dominant expression
- New mutations
- Homozygous for an AD trait - may be more sever phenotype
- Variable expression
- Penetrance
- Sex limited
- Variation in age of onset
|
|
|
Term
What is co-dominant expression? What is an example? |
|
Definition
Alleles that are both expressed when they occur in the heterozygous state ABO blood group antigens |
|
|
Term
What is an example of a disease that is characterized by being caused by mostly new mutations? |
|
Definition
Achondroplasia 80% new mutations of FGFR (fibroblast growth factor receptors) G --> A |
|
|
Term
What is variable expression? |
|
Definition
Within same family with same mutation see different phenotypes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
An "all or nothing" phenomenon in expression of a trait in a population (phenotype not genotype) |
|
|
Term
Cancers due to mutations are early/late onset and often unilateral/bilateral? |
|
Definition
Early onset and often bilateral |
|
|
Term
What must happen for a mutated tumor suppressor gene to be phenotypically manifested? |
|
Definition
Need two hits, one germline and one environmental damage, Knudsen two hit hypothesis, even if the phenotype is inherited as dominant |
|
|
Term
What happens to penetrance if there is no 2nd hit? |
|
Definition
It is reduced and no malignancy occurs |
|
|
Term
What is an example of a disease that exhibits reduced penetrance? |
|
Definition
Retinoblastoma; often happens that grandmother will have it, her offspring are fine, but grandson get it; a signal that it is inherited and not environmental mutation is the bilateral nature and early onset if in a child |
|
|
Term
What explains the early onset of Huntingtons? |
|
Definition
The greater the triplet repeat expansion the earlier the onset |
|
|
Term
What are the characteristics of autosomal recessive: male or females affected? Inheritance patterns between siblings? |
|
Definition
Males and females equally as likely to inherit; Seen in sibs but not other relatives Risk of recurrence in sibs is 25% 2/3 of unaffected sibs will be carriers Consanguinity increases risk |
|
|
Term
The risk of what increases with consanguinity? |
|
Definition
The risk of sharing acommon ancestral mutation |
|
|
Term
Homozygosity can be confused as: |
|
Definition
compound heterozygosity at a mollecular level |
|
|
Term
What is the most common condition found at birth? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Mutations in what gene are a common cause of hearing loss? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
See Hardy Weinberg in Single Gene Mutations and Inheritance II packet |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When will a single allele change give disease? |
|
Definition
Genes on X (X-linked) Genes on autosome (autosomal dominant |
|
|
Term
When will a mutation in both alleles be required for disease? |
|
Definition
Autosomal recessive Female homozygote for XL??? |
|
|
Term
Who does X-linked recessive diseases affect? X-linked dominant? |
|
Definition
Recessive affects primarily males; dominant can have a variant where males survive then both sexes are affected, females more severly or where males die and only females are seen with the disease |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Only one X is active in each cell. All others inactivated. X inactivation is random, fixed, and occurs early in development |
|
|
Term
What are the consequences of Lyonization???? |
|
Definition
- Females are mosaic (the presence of two populations of cells with different genotypes in one individual) for their X-linked gene manifestations - should be roughly equal
- All are functionally hemizygous - dosage compensation - so female doesn't have twice as many genes as males
- Inactive X may be evident in cells - Barr body
- Shifting from random distribution may reslt in manifestation of disease in females - skewed Lyonization
|
|
|
Term
What are the X-linked recessive rules? |
|
Definition
- Affects mainly males
- Affected males are usually born to unaffected parents
- Females can be affected if born to an affected father and carrier mother
- Females can be affected if they have very skewed lyonization
- No male to male transmission
- Males born to carrier mother have 50% risk of inheriting altered gene
|
|
|
Term
What is an example of an X-linked recessive disease? In what gene does it cause mutations? |
|
Definition
Duchenne/Becker Muscular Dystrophy; mutations in the dystrophin gene |
|
|
Term
What protein is elevated in Duchenne MD and what does it signal? |
|
Definition
creatine kinase signalling that muscle damage has occurred |
|
|
Term
What sort of offspring will X-link dominant males have? |
|
Definition
Only affected daughters and unaffected sons; ie no male to male transmission |
|
|
Term
What is an example of a male lethal X-linked dominant condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are symptoms of incontinentia pigmenti? |
|
Definition
- Linear blisters in newborn girls
- Crops followed by scarring
- Small teeth
- Eye abnormalities
- Patchy hair loss
- Only girls affected (most boys die inutero)
|
|
|
Term
Which diseases are now classified as agressive periodontitis? |
|
Definition
Pre-pubertal, juvenile, early onset, and rapidly progressive periodontitis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Leukeocyte adhesion deficiency - phagocytes (especially neutrophils) can't adhere to the endothelium |
|
|
Term
What are 2 inherited diseases that are consistently associate w/ perio disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are some characteristics of agressive periodontitis? |
|
Definition
- Familial
- Mulitfactorial - significant env. effect
- Segregation analysis suggests AD transmission although it is likely a complex inheritance pattern
- Heterogeneous
|
|
|
Term
From twins studies, what % of population variance accounts for the attachment loss and pocket depth is attributed to genetic variance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Do genetic factors have a significant role in presence of specific bacteria in subgingial plaque? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Do genetic factors significantly influence levels of plaque or calculus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does the family environment signfiicantly influence measures of disease in adults? |
|
Definition
No; any influence that the early family environment may have played on composition of subgingival plaque is not apparent in adulthood |
|
|
Term
What does the hardy-weinberg equilibrium explain? |
|
Definition
Why dominant traits do not eventually preplace detrimental recessive traits and genotype frequencies from teh relative frequencies of alleles |
|
|
Term
What is assumed in the hardyWeinberg Law? |
|
Definition
- Random mating
- No inbreeding
- No migration
- No mutation
- Large population
- No selection
|
|
|
Term
What is AFP used for in screening? |
|
Definition
Spina bifida and Down Syndrome; shifted to the right of unaffected for spina bifida and shifted to the left for Down Syndrome |
|
|
Term
What needs to be detected during prenatal screening? |
|
Definition
- Chromosomal abnormalities
- Rearrangements
- Deletions/duplications
- Mutations at level of the gene
- Mutations at the nucleotide level
- Missense
- Nonsense
- Frameshift
- Microdeletions
|
|
|
Term
What is pre-implementation genetic diagnosis (PGD)? |
|
Definition
Testing of a fertilized egg for genetic disorders after in vitro fertiliztion before placing the embryo in the uterus for development. Analyze chromosomal composition of 1 of 8 cells from embryo |
|
|
Term
Why do newborn screenings? |
|
Definition
- Disease is deleterious
- Disease is treatable
- Has a reliable test
- Early treatment makes a difference
- Cost effective
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Block in the pathway that breaks down phenylalanine causing it to accumulate |
|
|
Term
How was mass newborn screening done before and now? |
|
Definition
before: guthrie test with blood samples on a bacteria lawn now: Mass spec |
|
|
Term
Mutations in what increase the risk of breas and ovarian cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The beliefs about genetic variation have evolved from what to what? |
|
Definition
Old belief in Classic Medical genetics causing a medical disease through a single gene or c'some; usually early onset (pediatric); believed that these types make up 20% of diseases Currently: 80% of genetic variation is in the form of genetic susceptibility and delayed onset adult disorders = common gene variations gene + environment |
|
|
Term
What type of medicine are we moving towards? |
|
Definition
personalized medicine where the dose of medication is based on an individuals ability to metabolize it |
|
|
Term
What is an example of a drug with a mechanism that may require personal modifications? |
|
Definition
Codeine to morpine (the active metabolite) by CYP2D6; 7-10% of caucasians have a genetic variant that produces limited CYP2D6 activity and slow metabolism of CYP2D6 substrates and 7% are ultrametabolizers |
|
|
Term
What is the concern with warfarin patients and genetic variations in enzyme activity? |
|
Definition
It is easy to overmedicate them if they have an overactive or underactve enzyme activity |
|
|