Term
| 1(1). The basic FDP is______ hours providing no mission events, helicopter air refueling (HAR) below________ feet AGL, pilot proficiency training, or functional check flights (FCF) are accomplished after_______ hours and no Air Refueling or HAR at or above________ feet AGL after_____ hours. |
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Definition
| A. 12, 3000, 12, 3000, 12 |
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Term
| 2(2). With a main fuel tank indicator inoperative, plan to terminate the flight with a minimum of ___________ pounds calculated main tank fuel. |
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Definition
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Term
| 3(3). Assault landings are authorized with an inoperative antiskid. |
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Definition
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Term
| 4(4). For takeoffs during short field (max effort) operations, the minimum runway length is charted _______. |
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Definition
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Term
| 5(5). Minimum runway length for a max effort landing (non-NVG operations): |
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Definition
| A. Landing distance + RVR correction |
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Term
| 6(6). If conducting a max effort takeoff and obstacles are a factor, use _______ for takeoff speed, and climb out at ________. |
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Definition
| A. Max effort takeoff speed, Vmca + 10 KIAS |
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Term
| 7(7). For training, during short field operations, obstacle clearance speed will be computed maximum effort obstacle clearance speed or 10 knots above takeoff speed, whichever is greater. |
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Definition
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Term
| 8(8). During training, _______________ may authorize the use of actual maximum effort speeds (takeoff and obstacle clearance), on a case by case basis. |
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Definition
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Term
| 9(9). Minimum runway length for NVG max effort landings is ground roll + 1,000 feet regardless of touchdown zone length or AMP configuration. |
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Definition
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Term
| 10(10). Minimum thunderstorm and cumulonimbus cloud avoidance criteria when conducting low level operations is______. |
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Definition
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Term
| 11(11). For VMC SCAs, the MAP will be at ________ distance to go on the SCNS at MDA. |
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Definition
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Term
| 12(12). If approved, IMC SCA weather minimums will be no lower than ______feet and ______ SM. |
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Definition
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Term
| 13(13). Prior to the HAR rendezvous, if the receivers are not acquired by the ARIP the tanker aircraft will: |
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Definition
| A. Slow to 180 KIAS between the ARIP and ARCP |
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Term
| 14(14). [Hot Refueling] For training operations and exercises, stop fuel servicing when high winds or reduced visibility caused by blowing rain, snow, or sand exists or when an electrical storm is within a ____ mile radius of the hot refueling site. |
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Definition
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Term
| 15(15). Refuel operations at Air Force hot refueling sites will not be conducted within _____ feet of aircraft parking areas, _____ feet of taxing aircraft, and ______ feet of inhabited or uninhabited buildings. |
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Definition
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Term
| 16(16). [Hot Refueling] For exercises or contingencies where a crash fire vehicle cannot be provided, a minimum of one _____ -pound dry chemical extinguisher will be positioned at the receiver SPR and the refueling source. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 17(17). During Hot Refueling operations, do not operate the radar, radar altimeters, or transmit on HF during fuel transfer operations. |
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Definition
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Term
| 18(18). Rescue H/MC-130 aircraft performing static line personnel drops are required to compute and post a PJ Minimum Operating Speed (MOS). |
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Definition
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Term
| 19(19). Emergency Safe Altitude is computed by adding ______feet (2000 feet in mountainous terrain) to the highest elevation or obstacle within _____ NM of centerline or planned flight path, whichever is greater, and rounded up to the next ______ foot increment. |
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Definition
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Term
| 20(20). Calculate the MSA for en route low level, airdrop and SCAs by adding ______ feet above the highest terrain or obstacle within ____ NM of centerline or planned flight path, whichever is higher, and rounded up to the next _____-foot increment. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 21(21). Tactical operations conducted below __________ feet AGL are considered low level. |
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Definition
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Term
| 22(22). For NVG modified contour low-level operations, the pilot's radar altimeter, the APN 59/241 radar, and the I-INS solution must be operational. If the I-INS SCNS solution is inoperative, the I-DOP solution must be operational to continued NVG low-level operations. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 23(23). For low level operations, The radar altimeter will be set to no lower than _____ % of minimum enroute altitude. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 24(24). Pilots and navigators are NOT required to use the same radar altimeter setting for which of the following operations? |
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Definition
| A. Flying NVG modified contour low level |
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Term
| 25(25). The lowest altitude allowed for NVG modified contour low-level operations (except when using Threat Penetration Altitude), is _______ feet modified contour above the terrain by visual reference to both the terrain and the radar altimeter. |
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Definition
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Term
| 26(26). During threat penetration altitudes during training operations, if a turn requires more than ___ degrees angle of bank, the aircraft will terminate threat penetration operations and immediately climb to a normal modified contour profile, MSA, or ESA as required. |
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Definition
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Term
| 27(27). If a crew becomes lost or disoriented on a low-level mission, immediate steps must be taken to regain the planned flight path. Start a climb to _____ . Continue the climb until the _____ is reached or a positive fix obtained. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 28(28). If either pilot's NVGs become inoperative, start a climb to at least ______. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 29(29). Only the pilots or navigator may initiate an emergency climb by stating EMERGENCY CLIMB. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 30(30). Reference altitudes and start climb points are recommended for NVG low-level operations. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 31(31). For NVG airland operations (except blacked-out operations), which of the following are required equipment? |
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Definition
| A. The pilot's and Navigator's radar altimeter |
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Term
| 32(32). When constructing a self-contained approach, plan a minimum _____ straight-in approach unless prohibited by the order of battle. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 33(33). On a self-contained approach, in no case will a descent below 300 feet AGL be initiated prior to ____ NM to touchdown. This would cause the glideslope to be too shallow. |
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Definition
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Term
| 34(34). During a self-contained approach or NVG airland operations, do not descend below 300 feet AGL until the LZ environment is identified visually and confirmed by both pilots. |
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Definition
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Term
| 35(35). After executing a go-around using the Infil/Exfil checklist (if an immediate visual approach and landing are feasible), exercise caution and clear for obstacles. Maneuver the aircraft to be _____ feet AGL wings level and configured at approximately a ____ NM final. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 36(36). During NVG airland operations, if either pilot loses use of their NVGs inside ____ NM on final, a go-around will be executed. |
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Definition
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Term
| 37(37). The minimum runway length for NVG touch-and-go landings is ________ feet. |
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Definition
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Term
| 38(38). All aircraft will have an operable ______ for airdrop operations. This restriction does not prohibit using winds obtained visually or from an alternate method to assist in airdrop computations. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 39(39). [Airdrop operations] If an air deflector door cannot be opened, its respective paratroop door will not be used. |
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Definition
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Term
| 40(40). A maximum of ______ static lines may be retrieved manually per paratroop door, and a maximum of ____ static lines per cable may be retrieved with a static line retriever winch. |
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Definition
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Term
| 41(41). In planning for an airdrop, choose at least ______ (preferably ______) update points for the run-in to ensure proper DZ alignment. |
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Definition
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Term
| 42(42). As soon as the DZ is visible and identified by the pilot and navigator, they jointlyconfirm the release point location, lateral offset, and track required. The ______ then assume the responsibility for maintaining this offset distance and required track. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 43(43). During airdrop operations: A ""no drop"" condition exists if the aircraft location is not within precoordinated parameters by the navigator's ________ call. |
|
Definition
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Term
| 44(44). Depending on the tactical situation, it may be desirable to open the ramp and door prior to slowdown. The pilot may direct ramp and door opening anytime after the ___________ has been completed. |
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Definition
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Term
| 45(45). During personnel airdrops, the aircraft must be at or above drop altitude and stable not later than _____ minute(s) out ( ____ minute(s) out for JMD drops) to allow the jumpmaster access to the paratroop door. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 46(46). For personnel airdrops, the pilot must be aware of paratroopers standing in the back and avoid drastic pitch or bank changes after ____________________. |
|
Definition
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Term
| 47(47). After the ""1-minute"" call, any crewmember observing a condition that would jeopardize a safe drop will transmit ""no drop"" on interphone. The__________, ______ and _______ will immediately acknowledge the ""no drop"" call. |
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Definition
| A. non-flying pilot, navigator, engineer |
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Term
| 48(48). 48. Prior to the 1 minute call, any crewmember who determines a condition exists that could jeopardize a safe drop will transmit ""No Drop"" on interphone. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 49(49). [After an airdrop] To facilitate static line retrieval and preclude entanglement, do not exceed ______ KIAS until the static lines are retrieved. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 50(50). During airdrop operations, the navigator will call red light at the expiration of the green light time or upon hearing the loadmaster's call of ""load clear"", whichever occurs first. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 51(51). When executing multiple airdrop passes (racetrack), the ________ is never compressed and is always given on time. |
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Definition
| A. 30 seconds to slowdown |
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Term
| 52(52). During a jumpmaster-directed airdrop, the aircrew may turn on the green light once the drop zone has been positively identified, but no earlier than ______ prior to the navigator's release point for freefall operations, or ______ for static line operations. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 53(53). For jumpmaster directed pararescue airdrops conducted at or above _________ lbs, use ________ flaps. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 54(54). Pararescuemen will not be deployed from aircraft at gross weights greater than ________ lbs. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 55(55). Airdrops conducted at or above ________ feet AGL are considered high altitude drops. Exception: RAMZ airdrops at or below _______ are considered low altitude drops. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 56(56). For HALO airdrops, positive identification of the drop zone area must be confirmed electronically or visually prior to calling the release. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 57(57). Parachutists may operate without the supplemental oxygen during unpressurized flight up to _____ feet MSL provided the elapsed time above 10,000 feet MSL does not exceed _____ minutes per sortie. |
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Definition
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Term
| 58(58). When effective illumination is below ________ millilux [roughly equates to 10% lunar illumination on a clear night] crews will obtain squadron CC/DO approval prior to flight, add low illumination as a factor in their risk assessment, and mitigate the risk. This may require changing profile, airspeeds, or altitudes among many other options. |
|
Definition
| A. 20 Percent Lunar Illumination |
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Term
| 59(59). Under acceptable conditions, the minimum acceptable altitude above the terrain for parachutists to evacuate the airplane (static line) is ________ AGL. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 60(60). Under acceptable conditions, the minimum acceptable altitude above the terrain for parachutists to evacuate the airplane in an emergency (free fall) is __________ AGL. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 61(61). When a parachutist is observed to be fouled during a paratroop door exit, the first priority is to cut the parachutist free, regardless if the parachutist is conscious or unconscious. |
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Definition
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Term
| 62(62). If a parachutist becomes fouled during missions when the aircraft is operating with a high gross weight or is flying in a high density altitude environment, the pilot may elect to maintain flaps at 50 percent, landing gear up, and slow to Minimum Operating Speed (MOS) in lieu of the standard procedure. |
|
Definition
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Term
| 63(63). If possible, the DZ axis for a CRRC or RAMZ drop will be into the drop altitude wind (+ or - 30 degrees) when the wind is _______ or greater. The jumpmaster will be advised when this cannot be complied with. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 64(64). The minimum deployment altitude for training RAMZ/ATV airdrops will be ______ AWL/AGL when the PJs exit using non-static line deployed parachutes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 65(65). For operational RAMZ/ATV airdrops, minimum deployment altitude using non-static line deployed parachutes is _______ AGL/AWL. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 66(66). Maximum effort takeoffs at high gross weights and high density altitudes are critical maneuvers with small margins of error, requiring precise control of airplane pitch during initial climbout. Minor increases in pitch attitude may result in rapid airspeed loss with insufficient excess thrust available to recover. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 67(67). The BEFORE LOW LEVEL checklist will be accomplished prior to __________ operations. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 68(68). [INFILTRATION/EXFILTRATION] During training missions with no onboard user involved, the ____and ____ minute advisories may be deleted during multiple approaches. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 69(69). During Infil/Exfil operations, the __________will confirm all landing zone information entered into SCNS is correct. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 70(70). During an Infil/Exfil slowdown, it is critical that flaps are set to 100 percent prior to slowing to _______________. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 71(71). After take off from an Infil/Exfil, a bleed air check is required in accordance with Section VII if hostile action was suspected. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 72(72). The minimum recommended air refueling speed is ______KIAS. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 73(73). Max effort operations with airplane configuration (fuel, cargo, etc.) that necessitate 300 FPM rate-of-sink should be restricted to wartime operations only. To perform during peacetime will require approval of _____________. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 74(74). [Aircraft with refueling pods, foam in the fuel tank, and 450 PSI struts] To use the maximum landing rate-of-sink of 540 FPM, the total fuel in the main tanks must not exceed __________ pounds. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 75(75). [Aircraft with refueling pods, foam in the fuel tank, and 450 PSI struts] To use the maximum landing rate-of-sink of 540 FPM, aircraft gross weight will not exceed ________ pounds. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 76(76). The maximum recommended aircraft gross weight for operations on bomb damaged runways is ________ pounds. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| 77(77). Abrupt reduction of power while in the air refueling configuration at slow airspeeds may result in__________________________. |
|
Definition
| >>A. immediate stall with no stall warning |
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Term
| 78(78). Limit bank angle to _______ degrees in the air refueling configuration to prevent a stall. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 79(79). Any time the dump manifold is pressurized for any reason, fuel can transfer into any tank. This is possible due to leakage thru a check valve, a malfunctioning refuel shutoff valve, or loose connection on the fuel line in the tank. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 80(80). Due to airplane attitude during air refueling, fuel flow from the fuselage tanks may stop with approximately __________ pounds of fuel remaining in the tanks. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 81(81). If conducting a series of full anti-skid braked landings, the following operating restriction(s) will be observed: |
|
Definition
| A. Gross weight limited to 120,000 lbs or less |
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Term
| 82(82). [Desert procedures] When propeller reverse is used during landing, start moving the throttles from MAXIMUM REVERSE to GROUND IDLE at approximately ____ KIAS and have the throttle in GOUND IDLE by time _____ KIAS is reached. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 83(83). When the JETTISON switch is placed in the JETT position on the AN/ALE-47, all other commands are canceled and all remaining flares are dispensed at a rate of _____ per second. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| 84(84). The AN/ALE-47 countermeasures dispenser system requires a _____ second warm-up when started from the OFF position. During warm-up no dispensing is possible. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 85(85). Which of the following locations does NOT have a remote flare dispensing switch for the AN/ALE-47 CMDS? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 86(86). The AN/ALR-69 uses four DF antennas and one additional antenna array containing four DF antennas and one C band antenna for the _______________. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| 87(87). The ALR-69 ____________________ is a computer-controlled superheterodyne receiver used for and measuring specific parameters required for ambiguity analysis. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| 88(88). In NORMAL MODE, the audio signal presented by the CM-479 digital signal processor when valid launch conditions are detected is: |
|
Definition
| A. 7 beeps for 3.0 seconds |
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Term
| 89(89). New Guy audio from the ALR-69 consists of 3 beeps within 1.5 seconds and occurs when: |
|
Definition
| A. Valid missile launch conditions are detected |
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|
Term
| 90(90). Selecting OPEN mode on the ALR-69 Indicator Control Unit (ICU) will display up to ____ targets on the azimuth indicator, while selecting PRIORITY will display ____ targets. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 91(91). Threat movement towards the center of the lethal circle on the ALR-69 azimuth indicator is a function of: |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| 92(92). Missile guidance activity on the ALR-69 azimuth indicator is indicated by: |
|
Definition
| A. A hatched diamond enclosing the threat symbol |
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Term
| 93(93). When the ALR-69 identifies a radar signal but is unable to find a match in the selected _________, a band-coded U will be displayed assuming UNKNOWN mode has been selected. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 94(94). S symbols have a very high display priority on the ALR-69 azimuth indicator and will always be displayed in the PRIORITY mode. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| 95(95). The low ALTITUDE display priority [selected on the ALR-69 ICU] places a higher priority on _____ and _______. |
|
Definition
| A. AIs, low altitude SAMs |
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|
Term
| 96(96). The integrated SCNS navigation solution has ______ submodes of operation. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 97(97). The ________ navigation mode provides great circle steering from a frozen airplane present position to a selected destination. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 98(98). The SCNS flight plan may compose up to _____ waypoints. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 99(99). [SCNS] Current waypoint ETAs are updated once per ________. Future waypoint ETAs are updated ______________. |
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Definition
| A. Second, once every 2 minutes |
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Term
| 100(100). The SCNs flight plan may contain up to ____ DZ waypoints. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 101(101). For manual operation of the troop jump lights, the airdrop/troop jump cmptr-man select swith must be in the _________ position. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| 102(102). The SCNs flight plan may contain up to ____ LZ waypoints |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 103(103). 103. When configuring the SCNS for a self-contained approach, the navigator must enter zero for the glideslope angle in order to receive SCNS glideslope advisories past the missed approach point. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| 104(104). [Airdrop and Airborne Radar Approaches] SCNS sensitive steering equates to ________ per dot. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| 105(105). SCNS sensitive steering is engaged during an ARA when the track angle error is less than _____ degrees, cross-track error is less than _____ (1 dot), and the airplane has passed the turn point. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 106(106). The use of data computed with nose wheel steering requires ________________ approval. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| 107(107). A takeoff with power deteriorated to _____ percent may be authorized MAJCOM. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| 108(108). When computing an acceleration time check, ______ percent of a tailwind component will be used. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| 109(109). The maximum effort climb-out flight path is based on 4-engine, maximum power acceleration to lift-off at maximum effort takeoff speed, with gear retraction initiated _____ seconds after lift-off, while climbing at ______________ speed. |
|
Definition
| >>A. 3, maximum effort obstacle clearance |
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Term
| 110(110). The minimum flap retraction speed for a maximum effort takeoff is _______________. |
|
Definition
| A. obstacle clearance speed |
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|
Term
| 111(111). The maximum effort takeoff and obstacle clearance speeds are _____ and _____ times the power-on stall speeds, respectively. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 112(112). During a maximum effort take-off, if an engine failure occurs immediately after decision (refusal) speed, it is unlikely that a successful take-off can be made. Serious consideration should be given to executing a stop based on terrain, overrun, obstacles, etc. Because of the many variables, the decision to abort or attempt a take-off must remain with the pilot. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| 113(113). Do not attempt a three-engine lift-off at the computed maximum effort take-off speed. Increase airspeed as much as possible above maximum effort take-off speed, obtaining ____________, if possible, before a lift-off is attempted. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 114(114). [Search operations] For low altitude and gross weights above 110,000 pounds, a flap setting of ______ percent gives the best search performance. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 115(115). [HAR configuration] The 70 percent flap setting was selected to: |
|
Definition
| A. Permit optimum airplane stability |
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|
Term
| 116(116). The 70 percent flap minimum operational speed is defined as _________ knots above airframe buffet with power required for level flight. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| 117(117). The minimum recommend refueling airspeed for gross weights up to 145,000 pounds is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 118(118). The minimum recommend air refueling speed [HAR] is based on: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 119(119). The maximum effort threshold speed is defined as _____ times power-off stall speed. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 120(120). AFTTP 3-3 provides no authority or sanction to depart from established directives or regulatory procedures. Any discrepancies should be brought to the attention of the MAJCOM tactics directorate. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| 121(121). Flight planning emphasis should be placed on the environment at least ____ NM either side of the intended flight path, including terrain features, lines of communication, population centers and threat areas. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| 122(122). According to ATTP 3-3.33, Low-level flight should NOT be considered as the default method of employment. When radar threats are not a factor, flights at altitudes above 8,000 feet will provide some protection against visual and audible detection at night. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| 123(123). Time constraints may require concise and succinct coordination methods between crews and ground parties. Ground forces may use the _________ brief to provide an efficient update of information in a time-compressed environment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 124(124). Which of the following is an advantage of low-level flight: |
|
Definition
| A. Reduces exposure to air defense threats |
|
|
Term
| 125(125). Winds and Turbulence. Consider the effects of terrain-induced turbulence when flying low-level. Rapid downdrafts, particularly during ridge crossings, can exceed aircraft capability if not avoided. In general, avoiding the downwind side of ridges creates a safer and smoother profile. NOTE: When winds exceed ________knots across a ridgeline or a mountain top, potential for mountain wave turbulence exists. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| 126(126). In general, avoid crossing perpendicular to a high ridge or mountain range. The entry should be at an oblique angle along the face of the slope. A crossing angle between _____ and _____ degrees allows you to decrease your climb gradient and maintain a reasonable energy level throughout the crossing. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 127(127). The zoom begins with a rapid 2-G pull-up to a _____- to ____-degree pitch-up angle. Unload the aircraft (0 to 1G) and hold this pitch until the airspeed bleeds to ____ KIAS above the target exit speed. As this speed is approached, roll the aircraft to one side (30 to 45 degrees of bank) and apply rudder to lower the nose toward the horizon. Continue this sliceback until the pitch decreases to about 5 to 10 degrees, then roll out to a wings-level attitude. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 128(128). HAHO provides the ability to exit the aircraft up to ___ miles from an objective area at high altitude, activate a high-glide ratio parachute immediately, and glide to the intended landing point. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 129(129). Concerning airdrop operations, a pop-up is a maneuver used to keep the aircraft as low and fast as possible, followed by a rapid climb, trading airspeed for altitude, to stabilize at drop altitude prior to ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 130(130). [Downwind Recovery] Enter a downwind leg for the active runway, normally maintaining ______KIAS and _______feet above field elevation or traffic pattern altitude, whichever is higher. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 131(131). The _____________ approach is an alternate airfield approach used when small arms are the primary threat and perimeter security is limited (usually ___ to ___ NM radius), or when terrain does not permit a normal traffic pattern. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 132(132). [Random Steep Approach] Start the maneuver (configured with gear down and flaps ____ percent) at _____ KIAS or threshold speed, whichever is higher. Begin descent and retard throttles toward flight idle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 133(133). The ____________ approach is a low-altitude (1,000 feet AGLand below), high-speed, visual meteorological condition (VMC) maneuver. It is designed as an alternate method to approach an airfield when the primary threat is from radar-guided weapons (SAM and/or large caliber AAA). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 134(134). Aircraft Performance. During mission planning, aircrews must carefully examine aircraft performance data to include: planned gross weight, density altitude, three-engine climb performance, and engine-out minimum control airspeeds (Vmca). HAR performance data does not exist for gross weights above __________pounds. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 135(135). According to ATTP 3.3-33, if track length is not sufficient to accomplish HAR without track reversal due to terrain, threat, or mission parameters, careful attention must be given to _________ and _______________ for the turns. |
|
Definition
| A. Turn rate, power considerations |
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Term
| 136(136). Flight along the military crest of a ridgeline keeps your potential energy higher than a route along the valley floor. The ATTP 3-3.33 defines military crest as a position along a ridge or hill ___________ the distance from the base to the summit. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 137(137). At corner velocity, the aircraft attains its highest rate of turn and smallest turn radius while still being able to attain maximum G. Above this speed, turn rate decreases and turn radius increases. Below this speed, turn rate increases while turn radius decreases. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 138(138). The airframe becomes less tolerant of exceeding structural operating limitations depending on its: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 139(139). Wind hazards are a significant threat to low-level operations. Wind acceleration along terrain faces can lead to large up and downdrafts as the flow is concentrated. Downdrafts along mountain ridges can travel as far as ___ miles from the driving terrain. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 140(140). For HAR, the ___________ is the planned geographic point or coordinates over which the tanker arrives abeam the receiver and assumes formation lead. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 141(141). A receiver call to ""Toboggan"" is a request for the tanker to: |
|
Definition
| >>A. Start a slow descent maintaining air refueling airspeed (300 FPM rate of descent unless otherwise requested) |
|
|
Term
| 142(142). An operational ______________ is the minimum electronic equipment required to complete an electronic rendezvous. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 143(143). All other factors being compatible, normal HAR airspeed will be ____ to ____ KIAS. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 144(144). Receivers will use the brevity code word ""TEXACO"" to request an on-call HAR. Tanker aircrews, after examining the terrain on track will compute and relay ____________, __________ and ____________ to receivers. |
|
Definition
| >>A. refueling altitude, MSA, time status |
|
|
Term
| 145(145). Tankers and receivers will begin monitoring designated radio frequencies and will have electronic rendezvous equipment operating no less than _____ minutes prior to ARCT. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 146(146). EMCON 3 (comm out) HAR may NOT be conducted for tactical training. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 147(147). While performing simultaneous air refueling, receivers will FLASH formation/position lights _______ seconds prior to movement for disconnect to preclude simultaneous disconnects and midair collisions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 148(148). After join-up, the ________ will carry the strobe for the formation. |
|
Definition
| >>A. trailing receiver or spare tanker (if available) |
|
|
Term
| 149(149). During HAR, the tanker flashes the receiver one amber light. This is a signal for the receiver to: |
|
Definition
| A. Go to observation position |
|
|
Term
| 150(150). While conducting HAR, the receiver flashes the tanker multiple white signals. This is a signal for the tanker to: |
|
Definition
| >>A. Pass the receiver additional fuel |
|
|
Term
| 151(151). During HAR, the light signal for ""BREAKAWAY"" is: |
|
Definition
| >>A. Tanker or receiver flashes multiple red lights |
|
|
Term
| 152(152). Once a receiver has crossed over, an additional green flash is required before contact on the new side. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 153(153). 153. Minimum visibility for a visual rendezvous is ___ NM. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 154(154). Minimum visibility for an electronic rendezvous is ___ NM. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 155(155). During a random rendezvous, the tanker will be established at refueling altitude at least ____ NM from the receivers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 156(156). For a head-on offset rendezvous, trail distance may be as little as ______ NM. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 157(157). If visual contact is not established by ____ NM, but electronic contact is maintained, the tanker will immediately turn ____ degrees right of track heading , lower the flaps to 70% , slow to air refueling speed and Call “NO VISUAL CONTACTâ€. After ___ seconds turn left and resume track heading. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 158(158). If during HAR the receiver calls ""LOST VISUAL CONTACT"", the tanker will respond with ""Execute"" followed by ___________ and ___________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 159(159). During LOST VISUAL CONTACT maneuvers, in mountainous terrain, the tanker aircraft will respond with ""EXECUTE, BASE HEADING XXX, MSA XXXX' "". The tanker will __________________ |
|
Definition
| A. turn right 45 degrees for 30 seconds, lower the flaps to 70%, slow to air refueling airspeed then left and resume track heading. |
|
|
Term
| 160(160). If visual and electronic contact is lost within ______ NM of the receiver during rendezvous, the tanker will turn right 45 degrees and call ""CONTACT LOST"", after ________ seconds, accomplish the Post Air Refueling checklist and maneuver for another rendezvous or proceed as briefed. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 161(161). Before initiating a turn at night during HAR, the tanker pilot must confirm the receiver is established in _____________________. |
|
Definition
| A. in precontact position |
|
|
Term
| 162(162). Fuel will continue to flow as long as the receiver maintains the hose extension between ______ and _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 163(163). The response reset switch must never be actuated with the receiver engaged, as this should cause loss of all response capability. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 164(164). To reduce turbulence when the right refueling position is used, the tanker may use asymmetric power by setting the number ___ engine torque at approximately ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 165(165). Tankers should limit bank angle to 30 degrees in the air refueling configuration to prevent tanker stall. However, if terrain or weather is not a factor, bank angle should be limited to ____ degrees. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 166(166). The drogue may become slightly less stable at refueling speeds below _____ knots; however, satisfactory refueling operations can be conducted between MOS and 130 knots. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 167(167). Under normal circumstances two receivers will not disconnect simultaneously or fly in the precontact position at the same time. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 168(168). Extend or retract hoses ONLY with the wings level to prevent hanging hoses on the pods. Under normal operations 120 KIAS will not be exceeded when operating the hoses or when the hoses are extended. Never exceed 130 KIAS with the hose(s) extended. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 169(169). The Contact Checklist is initiated upon call for Flaps to 70% flaps. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 170(170). The reel response check will be accomplished one full cycle whenever the hoses are extended for refueling operations EXCEPT: |
|
Definition
| A. Subsequent hose extensions during the same training mission |
|
|
Term
| 171(171). When calling a breakaway over the radio [interphone or refueling frequency], the proper terminology is: |
|
Definition
| >>A. ""Tanker Call sign, Breakaway, Breakaway, Breakaway"" |
|
|
Term
| 172(172). During a ""Breakaway"" call during HAR, the tanker pilot will |
|
Definition
| A. Accelerate and climb to MSA |
|
|
Term
| 173(173). A small amount of fuel spray from the nozzle and receptacle during fuel transfer requires immediate termination of air refueling operations due to the possibility of fire. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 174(174). During single engine HAR, approximately 2 NM in trail the tanker will slow to below ____ KIAS and begin the contact checklist. The tanker will establish single engine airspeed and reset the refueling hose response prior to reaching the receiver's ______ o'clock position. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 175(175). If the receiver airspeed is _____ KIAS or higher, the tanker will accomplish a standard join up vice using helicopter single engine air refueling procedures. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 176(176). When operating at or near MOS, any bank angle could result in a stall without warning. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 177(177). For H/MC-130E/P or N aircraft, the solenoid actuated hydraulic shutoff valves for the left and right air refueling systems are located: |
|
Definition
| A. forward of the left wheel well area |
|
|
Term
| 178(178). For HAR operations: Do not attempt to hold the override button in on the hydraulic shut-off valve during fuel transfer operation or anytime the receiver is near the drogue. The receiver pilot need not be advised of dead hose operation prior to contact. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 179(179). When executing the Emergency Hose Extension and Refueling procedures, slow to the slowest practical airspeed, not less than ______ [for HC/MC-130 aircraft]. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 180(180). Hose jettisoning is not mandatory and will be at the discretion of the pilot if less than ____ feet of hose and drogue remain extended and operation below ______ KIAS does not impair mission operations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 181(181). Pilots will declare an emergency when landing with a hose extended more than ____ feet. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 182(182). The minimum DZ when dropping a single static line parachutist at 1,000 AGL and below is _____ yards wide by ______ yards long. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 183(183). When computing the minimum DZ size for personnel airdrops at 1,000 feet AGL and below, add ______ yards to the _________ for each additional parachutist when airdropping ST/Pararescue personnel. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 184(184). The minimum DZ size (length, width) when airdropping Military Free Fall (MFF) parachutists is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 185(185). For water DZs, water depth must be a minimum of _____ feet and the area must be free of underwater obstructions to that depth. There should be no protruding boulders, stumps, pilings, or other hazards within _______ meters of the center of the DZ. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 186(186). During USAF MFF operations, aircrews should ensure the Jumpmaster/Team leader is aware when aerial power lines are within ________ meters of the intended PI. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 187(187). The surface wind at the DZ is normally measured using an anemometer or other calibrated wind-measuring device. Wind direction is reported in magnetic degrees and wind speed in knots. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 188(188). The surface wind limit for AF training bundles (SATB) airdrops is ______ knots. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 189(189). During personnel drops, the surface wind limit for AF MFF and static line personnel water airdrops is ______ knots. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 190(190). During personnel drops the surface wind limit for AF static line airdrops (land) is _______ kts. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 191(191). Drop clearance to a marked DZ is normally inherent with mission clearance and is confirmed by the aircrew observing the pre-briefed visual DZ markings. Unless radio communications are specifically required, any coordinated markings, other than red smoke, red flares, or red lights indicate a clearance to drop. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 192(192). When an off DZ airdrop has been confirmed or suspected, the aircrew involved will not attempt another drop for the remainder of the mission. In the case of an off DZ drop involving injury or death to personnel, the mission will be terminated and the aircraft will land as soon as possible. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 193(193). USAF aircrews require a DZ survey for training airdrop missions involving ______ personnel and/or equipment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 194(194). DZ/LZ surveys become obsolete ____ years after the final review date and must be resurveyed prior to use. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 195(195). During peacetime operations, the minimum LZ length required for maximum effort takeoff and landing operation is _________ feet. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 196(197). A ______ foot underrun and overrun are required for all LZ operations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 197(199). An overrun is normally not considered part of the usable runway when establishing airfield markings. Do not include overrun distances to calculate the available LZ length required for operations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 198(202). The box length when using The Box and One configuration for an AMP-3 LZ is _____ feet. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 1(1). An operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed is a _______________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 2(2). Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed, is a ____________________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3(3). Operating procedures, technique, etc., which are considered essential to emphasize, is a ________________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 4(4). The safety coupling system is provided to decouple the power section from the reduction gear if negative torque applied to the reduction gear exceeds approximately __________ inch-pounds. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 5(5). The results of moving the condition lever to FEATHER |
|
Definition
feathers mech and hyd
fuel mech and hyd
start aux fx motor |
|
|
Term
| 6(6). The synchrophaser electronic unit provides circuits for the following governing functions: |
|
Definition
A. speed stabilization
Synchrophasing
speed stabalization |
|
|
Term
| 7(7). Which of the following is true concerning circuit breakers? |
|
Definition
A. Never use circuit breakers as switches
check poped cb unless 781
|
|
|
Term
| 8(8). All trim tab actuators are driven by ______ volt, single phase _____ motors, except during emergency operation when the elevator trim tab actuator is driven by a _______ volt DC motor. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 9(9). If the auxiliary hydraulic pump is turned OFF, wait at least _____ to allow the accumulator to discharge, before turning the pump switch back on. Failure to do this will overload the motor and open the pump circuit breakers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 10(10). The main landing gear is normally held in the UP position by_________. In the event of loss of hydraulic pressure the gear is held up by _________. |
|
Definition
| utlitly hyd px/ spring applied brakes |
|
|
Term
| 11(11). The leading anti-icing system may be used for no more than _____ when the airplane is on the ground. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 12(12). The ability to breathe through the oxygen regulator with the Supply Lever in the OFF position may indicate: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 13(13). Do not operate the landing lights for prolonged periods while the airplane is on the ground since no cooling facility exists for either landing light. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 14(14). The fire extinguisher system is powered by the __________ bus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 15(15). When an engine FIRE HANDLE is pulled out, it closes a DC circuit to operate valves which isolate the engine as follows |
|
Definition
A. The shutoff valves on the firewall and the engine fuel control are closed
oil
hyd
bleed air
root/shoot
starter deenergized |
|
|
Term
| 16(16). The visual indication for a turbine overheat is: |
|
Definition
| >>A. two top lamps in an engine fire handle flash |
|
|
Term
| 17(17). The fire detection system receives power from the __________ bus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 18(18). It is not recommended that an engine be started with the Temp Datum Control Valve in the ________ position, since over-temperature protection is not provided. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 19(19). Starting an engine with an inoperative suction boost pump may result in _______________. |
|
Definition
| A. damage to the fire wall shutoff valve. |
|
|
Term
| 20(20). If the Ground Start Switch is prematurely released during engine start, _____________________. |
|
Definition
| A. immediately reengage the starter |
|
|
Term
| 21(21). If there is no positive indication of oil pressure on the engine and reduction gear by ________ percent RPM, immediately discontinue the start. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 22(22). If an engine doesn't light off before ____ percent RPM, discontinue the start. If fuel flow/enrichment was observed, before attempting another start on that engine, motor the engine to approximately ____ percent RPM with condition lever in GROUND STOP to remove fuel from the turbine area. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 23(23). During engine start, you must have a positive indication of hydraulic pressure by _______________________. |
|
Definition
| >>A. the time the engine is on speed |
|
|
Term
| 24(24). The throttles must not be moved out of the ___________ detent during engine starting on the ground. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 25(25). If the engine does not accelerate smoothly to ground idle RPM after light off and/or a rapid increase in TIT is indicated (a stalled start), ______________________________. |
|
Definition
| A. monitor the peak TIT and record in the 781 |
|
|
Term
| 26(26). The engine should accelerate to either normal or low speed ground idle within__________. Exception: During low air density conditions (high temperature above approximately 28 degrees C/high altitude), if the engine accelerates smoothly with no indication of stall and TIT limits are not exceeded, time to stabilize on speed is _____ seconds. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 27(27). If a propeller low oil light illuminates during engine start or taxi, ____________________. |
|
Definition
| A. check RPM for operation within limits, if out of limits perform a pitch lock check. |
|
|
Term
| 28(28). A positive hydraulic pressure indication should be noted by the time the engine is on speed. Normal operating pressure should be indicated within _____ after on speed. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 29(29). When downshifting from normal to low-speed ground idle; the flight engineer will monitor the engine instruments and be prepared to shut down the engine by placing the condition lever to __________ if the temperature exceeds _________ degrees C or a stall occurs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 30(30). Prior to takeoff, if the engine instruments are not similar in fuel flow, TIT, or torque with throttles aligned (above crossover), a propulsion system malfunction may exist. If an engine displays significantly _______ TIT and _________ fuel flow in comparison to other engines, the TIT indication system may be displaying faulty TIT cockpit indications and a temperature controlling check should be performed. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 31(31). Operation over raised barrier cables with disc type support at speeds in excess of taxi speeds may result in damage to the airplane. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 32(32). Never place the throttles in the TAKEOFF position without monitoring the torque meters, since it is possible to exceed the maximum allowable torque. In addition increasing ram effect during takeoff will increase torque for any fixed turbine inlet temperature. If indicated torque exceeds _____________, an entry in the Form 781 is required, noting highest torque value observed and describing the runway and/or flight conditions. The _________ will monitor the engine instruments and adjust the throttles to prevent takeoff power from being exceeded during takeoff. |
|
Definition
| A. 18,000 inch-pounds; engineer |
|
|
Term
| 33(33). The minimum flap retraction speed for a normal takeoff is __________________. |
|
Definition
| >>A. obstacle clearance speed |
|
|
Term
| 34(34). When practical, it is recommended that the leading edge anti-icing check not be performed until the airplane has climbed above _________ or the IOAT has dropped below _________. |
|
Definition
| A. 5,000 MSL/20 degrees C |
|
|
Term
| 35(35). New TOLD will be required any time gross weight changes _________ or more, outside temperature changes _________ or more, or pressure altitude changes ___________ or more. |
|
Definition
| A. 5,000 pounds/5 degrees C/5,000 feet |
|
|
Term
| 36(36). A landing is normally made with the TD Control Valve switches in the AUTO position. When the LOCKED position is used for landing, it is recommended they be placed to LOCKED when within _______ feet of field elevation prior to landing. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 37(37). Higher than normal emergency brake pressure in flight is an abnormal condition and could cause damage to the brake system if not corrected immediately. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 38(38). Retarding the throttles below FLIGHT IDLE at airspeeds above approximately _________ could result in power-loss/bog-down. Power-loss/bog-downs are generally the result of rapid throttle movements (flight idle to maximum reverse in less than __________), or worn, dirty compressors. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 39(39). During landing, at the first indication of directional control difficulties during reversing, immediately __________________________. |
|
Definition
| A. shut down effected engine |
|
|
Term
| 40(40). [Max effort landing] The touchdown areas should normally be selected from ____ to _____ feet down from the approach end of the runway markers; however, touchdown within ____ feet is essential. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 41(41). Prior to shifting from normal to low speed ground idle, ensure that forward velocity including wind is less than ____ knots. Down shifting under these conditions may damage the _______________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 42(42). Engine shutdown should not be accomplished when taxi speed, wind velocity, or a combination of wind velocity and taxi speed is greater than _______knots. Engine shutdown under these conditions may damage the ______________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 43(43). If the NTS light does not illuminate when shutting down the engines from low speed ground idle, ________. |
|
Definition
| A. maintenance action is required |
|
|
Term
| 44(44). The flight engineer should monitor engine instruments during shutdown for ____________. |
|
Definition
| A. TIT and RPM decrease and NTS light |
|
|
Term
| 45(45). 45. The engine driven hydraulic pump switches __________ after engine shutdown. |
|
Definition
| A. will be placed to the OFF position |
|
|
Term
| 46(46). Regardless of specific emergency encountered ______________________________. |
|
Definition
| >>A. maintain airplane control |
|
|
Term
| 47(47). The emergency signal for prepare to bailout is ____________ rings on the alarm bell. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 48(48). Four hand-held fire extinguishers are located [where]: |
|
Definition
| A. Pilots side, copilots side, forward or aft of FS 245, aft of right wheel-well |
|
|
Term
| 49(49). If time and circumstances do not permit issuance of verbal emergency instructions, the emergency alarm bell will be used as follows for a ditching/crash landing: |
|
Definition
| A. ditching or crash landing imminent - five short rings, brace for impact - one long sustained ring |
|
|
Term
| 50(50). In the event of throttle control cable failure, engine shutdown will be accomplished by ________________________________________. |
|
Definition
| A. placing the condition lever to FEATHER for the affected engine |
|
|
Term
| 51(51). Which of the following is NOT an engine shutdown condition? |
|
Definition
| A. Unusual roughness or vibration |
|
|
Term
| 52(52). If an engine has been shutdown for a fire or nacelle overheat, after one agent bottle has been discharged and the indication continues, ____________________________. |
|
Definition
| A. discharge the remaining agent bottle. |
|
|
Term
| 53(53). [GTC Emergency Shutdown for fire] If the condition persist after the first fire agent bottle has been discharged, a break in the bleed air manifold mat exist, isolate by ___________________________________. |
|
Definition
| A. closing both wing isolation valves |
|
|
Term
| 54(54). Do not hold the agent discharged switch in No. 1 or No. 2 position longer than __________. To do so may cause the FIRE EXT circuit breaker to open. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 55(55). If directional control problems are encountered on the ground below refusal speed, a takeoff may be attempted. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 56(56). If a tailpipe fire persists in-flight after following the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE, ______________________________. |
|
Definition
| A. slow the airplane to minimum safe airspeed |
|
|
Term
| 57(57). If a tailpipe fire occurs during engine shutdown: |
|
Definition
| A. pull the fire emergency control handle |
|
|
Term
| 58(58). If a main wheel well fire exists, all personnel other than those in the fire department should evacuate the immediate area. The area on both sides of the wheel will be cleared of personnel and equipment for at least ________ feet, (or IAW AF directives if ammunition is on board). Chock the nose wheels ONLY. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 59(59). If aborting for a propeller malfunction or any other malfunction which could result in asymmetric power causing directional control problems when the throttles are placed in the ground range, shut down the affected engine while the throttle is in ____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 60(60). During takeoff or in flight, if an outboard engine fails near minimum control speed, it is imperative to establish a ______________________________. |
|
Definition
| A. 5 degree bank angle into the failed engine |
|
|
Term
| 61(61). If a takeoff is continued after engine failure, positioning the flap lever to less than 15 percent or operating the gear or flaps will ________________________ due to reduction in available hydraulic pressure. |
|
Definition
| A. decrease the minimum control speed |
|
|
Term
| 62(62). When takeoff is continued after an engine failure, it is important to obtain _______________________ as soon as possible after takeoff and prior to positioning the flap lever to less than 15 percent |
|
Definition
| >>A. two-engine minimum control speed |
|
|
Term
| 63(63). Two-engine operation above __________ pounds gross weight or at high density altitude is marginal. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 64(64). If takeoff is continued after engine failure and obstacle clearance is a consideration, pilots should be aware that obstacle clearance performance data is based on the assumption that gear retraction is initiated _____ seconds after takeoff and propeller feathering initiated _____ seconds after takeoff. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 65(65). When obstacle clearance is a consideration, flap retraction for a takeoff continued after engine failure should be accomplished in _____ percent increments with airspeed increasing approximately _____ knots between retraction increments. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 66(66). During simulated engine-out approaches, negative thrust from propeller(s) retarded to FLIGHT IDLE position will produce more drag than a feathered or windmilling propeller and increase air minimum control speeds for the condition (1 or 2 engines simulated out) as much as _________ above charted air minimum control speeds. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 67(67). At or near VMCA, sudden application of power with one or two engines inoperative or simulated inoperative (flight idle torque) may produce a rapid roll due to lift imbalance between the wings. This characteristic is more pronounced at ______ gross weights with flaps _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 68(68). If a propeller malfunction occurs after refusal speed and there is no indication of fire, it is recommended that the engine be allowed to run until at least ____________ is reached, otherwise it may be necessary to reduce power on the symmetrically opposite engine to maintain directional control. |
|
Definition
| A. one-engine inoperative air minimum control speed |
|
|
Term
| 69(69). If an uncontrolled overspeed (above ____ percent RPM) occurs, reduce airspeed to the speed at which safe control of the airplane can be maintained but not less than ________________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 70(70). For a propeller malfunction during flight the first step of the corrective actions is to ______________________. |
|
Definition
| A. perform the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE |
|
|
Term
| 71(71). If RPM increases or decreases with a corresponding change in throttle setting/TAS, it is reasonable to assume that the propeller is pitchlocked. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 72(72). Drag produced by a windmilling propeller coupled to the power section is approximately _____ times higher than decoupled drag; thus, in case of a failure to feather it is desirable to cause the propeller to decouple. _________ is considered high enough to cause decoupling but not high enough to produce excessive drag or overspeed after decoupling occurs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 73(73). If flight is continued with a pitchlocked propeller, establish and maintain _________ to _________ RPM with throttle and/or airspeed adjustment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 74(74). If propeller fails to feather, it is CRITICAL to restore ______ to the ____________ of the windmilling propeller as soon a possible. |
|
Definition
| A. hydraulic fluid; blades |
|
|
Term
| 75(75). When landing with a propeller that fails to feather, a go-around should not be attempted if airspeed is below __________. A go-around with a windmilling propeller may be marginal. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 76(76). When a [engine] decoupling is observed: |
|
Definition
| >>A. follow the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE |
|
|
Term
| 77(77). If the fire handle has been pulled for a throttle control cable malfunction, ensure the _________ has been pulled to prevent inadvertent ignition of an engine if the Fire Handle must be reset for a prop which has failed to feather. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 78(78). Throttle control failure may be indicated by the following conditions except: |
|
Definition
| A. throttle moves independently of pilot inputs |
|
|
Term
| 79(79). 79. If you suspect a throttle control cable failure, do not move the throttle prior to engine shutdown. To do so could cause the propeller to go ________or to ___________. |
|
Definition
| >>A. into reverse/full power |
|
|
Term
| 80(80). What is the first step when dealing with a propeller brake failure [a counter-rotating prop after it has been fully feathered]? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 81(81). The prop brake is designed to hold at speeds up to ________ KIAS. If this airspeed is exceeded the feathered propeller may begin to rotate counterclockwise. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 82(82). Which system that could be responsible for the loss of engine power is NOT addressed in the Multiple Engine Power Loss/Rpm Rollback procedures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 83(83). A malfunction of the TD control valve system of an engine may cause a sudden increase or decrease in TIT with an accompanying change in torque and fuel flow indication. If this condition occurs during stabilized operations, ________________________________________________. If TIT stabilizes and returns to near normal, place the switch in the LOCKED position, and continue operation. If malfunction persists, shut down the engine in accordance with the ___________________________________. |
|
Definition
| A. pull the ignition control circuit breaker; engine shutdown procedure |
|
|
Term
| 84(84). Following a negative G condition, closely monitor gearbox and engine oil pressure for _____ minute(s). If loss of oil pressure occurs and does not return to normal within _____ seconds, shutdown the engine. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 85(85). Do not use reverse thrust when landing with a known or suspected fuel leak. If reverse thrust is used a fire may develop. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 86(86). Generator failure or generator system malfunction will be indicated by: |
|
Definition
| A. Illumination of a Generator Out Light |
|
|
Term
| 87(87). Because of the important part electrical controls play in the operation of this airplane, electrical power should not be shut off until the pilot is reasonably certain that it is, or will be a contributing factor to smoke or fire, and that loss of electrical systems will not be a greater hazard than the smoke or fire. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 88(88). Placing the copilot's inverter switch in the DC BUS position with the VERT REF switches in the INS position will cause the ADIs to become unstable and tumble. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 89(89). If an engine bleed air valve cannot be closed (valve closure is determined by observing torque increase on the affected engine) and the bleed air system is leaking, it may be necessary to reduce power on the affected engine and close the wing isolation valve. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 90(90). If bleed air valves have been closed for an overheat condition, they may be reopened if necessary for anti-icing only to sustain flight. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 91(91). The first step for a wing fire is to ________________________________before sideslipping the airplane to keep the fire away from the fuselage. |
|
Definition
| A. close all engine bleed air valves |
|
|
Term
| 92(92). In the event a fire is near an oxygen component or there is a possibility that the oxygen could increase the fire, consideration should be given to closing the oxygen manual shutoff valve. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 93(93). If flammable fumes are present, electrical equipment not required to complete the FUSELAGE FIRE/SMOKE AND FUME ELIMINATION PROCEDURE should not be turned on or off until the fumes are eliminated. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 94(94). In the event the ATM generator is powering the essential AC Bus, shutting off all the engine bleed air will eliminate the air source for the ATM. The resulting underspeed condition and generator disconnect may cause essential ac bus power loss. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 95(95). If smoke develops in the cargo compartment, it will move forward into the flight deck. The forward escape hatch must be opened to effectively eliminate smoke and fumes during all elimination emergencies. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 96(96). Upon notification of a MASTER DOOR warning or an individual door warning, _______________________. |
|
Definition
| A. the engineer will immediately check for lights and the security of each door |
|
|
Term
| 97(97). The first step for loss of hydraulic system pressure is: |
|
Definition
| A. Suction Boost Pump Switch - OFF (affected system only) (CP) |
|
|
Term
| 98(98). If an engine-driven hydraulic pump failure is indicated, the first step is: |
|
Definition
| A. suction boost pump - OFF (affected system only) (CP) |
|
|
Term
| 99(99). If a malfunction is encountered in lowering the landing gear, once the landing gear is down and locked, it will not be moved from this position. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 100(100). In the event utility or boost hydraulic pressure in excess of ____ psi is indicated (failed hydraulic pump compensator) do not shut off the individual hydraulic pump switches. To do so, the pressure line between the hydraulic and shutoff valve is isolated from its means of pressure control causing a buildup in pressure until the hydraulic pump or lines rupture. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 101(101). For an electric suction boost pump failure, if system static pressure is less than _____ psi or fluid level is decreasing, after the suction boost pump has been turned off, follow LOSS OF SYSTEM PRESSURE procedure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 102(102). If hydraulic pressure is lost, after repositioning the landing gear lever, immediately place/check the landing gear lever in the __________ position and pull the landing gear control circuit breaker. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 103(103). If the Landing Gear Selector Valve DOWN button requires holding to lower the gear, hydraulic pressure will not be available for ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 104(104). During the bailout procedure, lowering the ramp above ____ knots may cause severe buffeting. If airspeed cannot be reduced to _____ knots, open only the aft cargo door. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 105(105). If the airplane is under control and time permits, the order of preference of bailout exits is ____________. |
|
Definition
| >>A. The cargo door and ramp, paratroop doors and crew entrance door |
|
|
Term
| 106(106). Bailout from the crew entrance door is not recommended at airspeeds above _____ knots, with the landing gear extended, or without a helmet. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 107(107). [Landing with one engine inoperative]. Below ______ knots during flareout, the combined flight idle thrust on the side with the two operating engines will tend to turn the airplane into the side with only one operating engine. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 108(108). When landing with two engines inoperative: |
|
Definition
| A. a go-around is not recommended after flaps have been lowered |
|
|
Term
| 109(109). If a two-engine, no-flap approach is to be flown, high rudder boost can be obtained by pulling the ______ circuit breaker and positioning the flap lever to more than ______ percent. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 110(110). The use of 5 degrees of bank ________ the inoperative engine is necessary to maintain directional control when power is applied during a go-around with one or two engines inoperative. Attempting to fly wings level increases minimum control speed as much as ______ knots. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 111(111). With complete utility system hydraulic failure, do not use nose wheel steering on landing roll. Inadvertent use of the nose wheel steering may allow hydraulic fluid to be bled from the shimmy damper allowing the wheel to shimmy or turn from center. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 112(112). The emergency brake system will supply one brake application with a minimum of __________ PSI available. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 113(113). Hydraulic pressure as low as __________ PSI may be experienced in low speed ground idle and is acceptable as long as the normal limits are attained at 100% RPM, all flight controls in neutral, suction boost pumps on and no system actuation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 114(114). The normal hydraulic pressure range is based on: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 115(115). The turn limit on the nose wheel steering is ______ degrees when gross weight exceeds 155,000 lbs or taxi speed is 20 knots or higher regardless of runway terrain conditions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 116(116). Normal engine oil temperature limits are ____________ degrees C. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 117(117). Low speed ground idle RPM limits are __________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 118(118). Maximum continuous TIT is ____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 119(119). _________ PSI is the normal reduction gearbox oil system pressure. ____________ PSI is permissible during flight only as necessary to complete mission commitments. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 120(120). The maximum torque allowable with oil temperature between 0 and +40 degrees C is ____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 121(121). A TIT of 1067 to 1083 degrees C is acceptable during takeoff for a maximum of ____________ and a TIT of 1049 degrees C can be maintained for _________________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 122(122). [Ground Operation] Flight idle RPM limits are __________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 123(123). Normal in-flight RPM limits are ___________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 124(124). Allowable propeller fluctuations are: |
|
Definition
| A. Plus/minus 1.0% either side of a stable RPM for a total of 2% |
|
|
Term
| 125(125). The engine starter duty cycle is __________________________. |
|
Definition
| >>A. 1 min on, 1 min off; 1 min on, 5 min off; 1 min on, 30 min off |
|
|
Term
| 126(126). If TIT exceeds _______ (excluding momentary peak at 94 percent RPM) during an engine start, discontinue the start and record maximum TIT in Form 781. One restart is permitted after cooling to below 200 degrees TIT. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 127(127). Do not exceed _______ KIAS with the cargo ramp and door open. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 128(128). Maximum airspeed for paratroop doors open and locked is____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 129(129). With any flap extension, the maximum maneuver load factor is ____ G in symmetrical maneuvers and ____ G in unsymmetrical maneuvers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 130(130). The airplane can be landed at a rate of 540 FPM with all fuel tanks full. However, it is recommended that landings be made with little, if any, usable fuel in the external tanks. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 131(131). The normal rudder boost hydraulic pressures with the flap lever set between 0% and 15% are _____________ psi. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 132(132). When conducting a propulsion check, a low pitch stop malfunction may be indicated if torque values in FLIGHT IDLE are not at least ______ inch-pounds higher on each engine after retarding the throttles from 8000 in-lbs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 133(133). When fuel quantity of any main tank is less than ________ pounds, the engine being fed by that tank will be placed on crossfeed. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 134(134). When operating in flight with less than 6,000 pounds of total fuel in the main fuel tanks, _____________________________. |
|
Definition
| A. place the crossfeed valve switch to OPEN for all tanks containing fuel |
|
|
Term
| 135(135). A partial braked landing is defined as a smooth, _____ second brake application with steadily increasing break pedal application initiated at ______ KIAS. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 136(136). When ice forms on the airplane and the automatic ice detection system fails, place the prop and engine anti-icing master switch to the _______ position. A delay could result in ice collecting in the inlet scoop and partial or complete loss of engine power. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 137(137). The recommended airspeed for penetration into thunderstorms is ________________________. |
|
Definition
| A. 65 knots above power-off stall speed not to exceed 165 KIAS |
|
|
Term
| 138(138). Cold weather procedures are generally considered to be applicable when the temperature is ______________ and below. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 139(139). Under low ambient temperature conditions, never place the throttles in _________ position without monitoring the torquemeters. At these temperatures, it is possible to exceed maximum allowable torque without exceeding the maximum allowable turbine inlet temperature. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 140(140). Prop and engine anti-icing and deicing should be on during takeoff and climb if temperature is _______ or lower and any visible moisture is present. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 141(141). Hot weather operation means operation in temperatures above _________ with or without high humidity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 142(142). Enhanced interrupted alignment is allowed only once during each INU power on cycle, and must be selected within _______ minutes of transitioning to NAV mode. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 143(143). For the most accurate results, turn to a heading of _______ degrees from initial alignment heading during the enhanced interrupted alignment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 144(144). After a full medium accuracy alignment of _______ minutes, the SCNS integrated navigation solution is approximately _______ nm/hr circular error probability. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 145(145). After an enhanced interrupted alignment, the SCNS integrated navigation solution accuracy is approximately .25 nm/hr circular error probability. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 146(146). If critical field length is longer than the runway available, for normal operation, then takeoff gross weight should be reduced until critical field length is equal to or less than runway available. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 147(147). Apply the full gust increment, not to exceed 10 knots, to the following speeds: |
|
Definition
| >>A. Rotation, Takeoff, Approach, Threshold, and Touchdown |
|
|
Term
| 148(148). When the crosswind component and normal take-off and touchdown speed fall within the caution area, the take-off or touchdown speed should be increased until the recommended area is reached, or the airspeed has been increased by _____ knots. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 149(149). For crosswind components in excess of _____ knots, a high degree of pilot skill is necessary for crosswind correction. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 150(150). ___________ is the greater of the total runway distances required to accelerate on all engines, experience an engine failure, and then continue the takeoff or stop. |
|
Definition
| >>A. Critical field length |
|
|
Term
| 151(151). Balanced critical field length results when the distance required to stop after losing an engine at critical engine failure speed is greater than the distance required to continue the takeoff. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 152(152). ____________ is based on runway available, and is defined as the maximum speed to which the airplane can accelerate with engines at take-off power, and then stop within the remainder of the runway available. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 153(153). Stopping distances with respect to refusal speed are based on which of the following condition(s)? |
|
Definition
| >>A. Two engines (symmetrical) in reverse |
|
|
Term
| 154(154). An inoperative anti-skid has no effect on stopping distance when calculating refusal speed. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 155(155). When unbalanced critical field length is established by VMCG, the critical engine failure speed will be the lower of the rotation speed or _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 156(156). For normal operations, planning a take-off and climb-out over an obstacle should be done on the basis of ____ engine performance. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 157(157). Which of the following is true regarding aircraft configuration for one engine inoperative air minimum control speeds: |
|
Definition
| A. Maximum power on all operating engines |
|
|
Term
| 158(158). Which of the following is NOT true regarding aircraft configuration for one engine inoperative air minimum control speed: |
|
Definition
| >>A. No. 1 engine inoperative with propeller feathered |
|
|
Term
| 159(159). The two-engine air minimum control speed charts are based on all bleed _____. Operation with normal bleed will result in a reduction in Vmca of ____ KIAS below charted values. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 160(160). Climb gradient charts may be used for obstacle clearance determinations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 161(161). The speed and altitude which results in the minimum fuel flow for the given configuration, atmospheric conditions, and gross weight is known as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 162(162). ____________ is the operation at the speed which results in the minimum fuel flow for the given configuration, altitude, temperature, and gross weight. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 163(163). With an inoperative main tank fuel indicator, plan to terminate the flight with a minimum if ______ pounds of calculated fuel remaining. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 164(164). If the ATM system is inoperative, flight in ____________ is permissible provided no other electrical malfunction exists. |
|
Definition
| >>A. day visual meteorological conditions (VMC) |
|
|
Term
| 165(165). Engine out training using the engine corresponding to the inoperative indicator or its symmetrically opposite will not be conducted during tank to engine operation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 166(166). Any crewmember seeing a _____-foot or greater deviation in planned altitude, deviations in heading or airspeed, or potential terrain or obstruction clearance problems will notify the pilot immediately. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 167(167). Without wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ______ feet, with wing walkers by at least ______ feet. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 168(168). During training for short field operations, do not use a runway less than ________ feet. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 169(169). [During training] For short field operations, _________________ may authorize the use of actual max effort speeds (takeoff and obstacle clearance) on a case-by-case basis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 170(170). For short field operations, minimum runway length for landing is ______________ . |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 171(171). During low-level operations, avoid thunderstorms and cumulonimbus clouds (CBs) by _______ NM. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 172(172). While overwater, LPUs will be sized and readily available at the crewmember's station, and worn whenever below _______ feet overwater (except for takeoff and landing). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 173(173). Assault landings are authorized with an inoperative antiskid. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 174(174). Minimum runway length for ground idle touch-and-go landings and NVG touch-and-go landings is ________ feet. Minimum runway length for flight idle touch-and-go landings is ________ feet. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 175(175). New TOLD card data is required for pressure altitude changes of _______ feet, gross weight changes of ________ pounds, or temperature changes of ________ degrees C. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 176(176). Touch and Go landings are only authorized when the crosswind component corrected for RCR is within the recommended zone for the landing crosswind chart. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 177(177). The basic FDP is _____ hours providing no mission events, helicopter air refueling (HAR)below 3,000 feet AGL, pilot proficiency training, or functional check flights (FCF) are accomplished after _____ hours and no Air Refueling or HAR at or above 3,000 feet AGL after _____ hours. If the autopilot is not operational or its use is denied for more than 4 hours, the FDP will be 12 hours (the use of altitude hold does not constitute use of an autopilot). If the autopilot fails after departure, continue to the next scheduled stop and then comply with the basic FDP limitations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 178(178). Aircraft commanders may extend the crew's FDP and/or CDP by up to 4 hours on a mission in progress. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 179(179). Weather mode radar must be operative for flights into areas of known or forecast thunderstorms. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 180(180). During takeoff roll, any crewmember noting a safety of flight malfunction before hearing the word _____ will state _____ and give a brief description of the malfunction. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 181(181). Regardless of whether a flight plan is prepared by the aircrew or is furnished by another agency, the _____ and ______ will verify routes and flight altitudes to ensure proper terrain clearance. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 182(182). You are flying an airways mission at FL 230 and see thunderstorms on your radar. You need to avoid these thunderstorms by _____ NM. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 183(183). Limit the number of persons on the flight deck to the minimum commensurate with mission requirements. At no time will this exceed ____ (____ for C-130E). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 184(184). The C-130 is a category ""C"" aircraft. For approach speeds exceed ____ knots, instrument approach minima for category ""D"" will be used. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 185(185). If full flight instrumentation is not operational, base DH on a minimum HAT of _____ feet and RVR ______, or visibility three-fourths mile if RVR is not available. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 186(186). Once established in a VFR traffic pattern, the radar altimeter may be _____________. |
|
Definition
| A. set to no less than 300 feet |
|
|
Term
| 187(187). An ATC clearance is authority to deviate from AFI 11-202 Vol 3, as supplemented. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 188(188). Do not exceed _____ KIAS at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 NMs of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area unless authorized/required by ATC. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 189(189). Do not exceed 250 KIAS below 10,000 ft MSL within US airspace unless ________. |
|
Definition
| A. within restricted areas, when the aircraft T.O. requires or recommends a higher speed in order to maintain safe maneuverability. |
|
|
Term
| 190(190). Normally, pilots will not turn after a takeoff, touch and go, or low approach until at least _____ ft. above the departure end of the runway (DER) elevation, at a safe airspeed, and past the end of the runway (if visible). This restriction does not apply when executing a closed pattern |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 191(191). Pilots must not operate aircraft over congested areas (cities, towns, settlements) or groups of people if the altitude does not ensure at least _______ feet above the highest obstacle within a ________ ft radius of the aircraft. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 192(192). Except for takeoff or landing, do not operate aircraft over non-congested areas at an altitude of less than ____ ft above the surface, except over open water, in special use airspace, or sparsely populated areas. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 193(193). Mission permitting, fly over national parks or monuments no less than _______. (Assuming no special use airspace, LATN or MTR) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 194(194). To have oxygen readily available means: Crewmembers wear helmets with an oxygen mask attached to one side, or have available an approved quick-donning/sweep-on mask properly adjusted and positioned. Regulators shall be set to 100 percent and ON. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 195(195). What are the VFR cloud clearance and visibility minimums for Class G airspace below 10,000 feet MSL. |
|
Definition
| A. 1SM; 500 ft below, 1,000 ft above, 2,500 ft horizontal from clouds |
|
|
Term
| 196(196). If the pilot has begun the enroute descent or published approach and subsequently determines the weather is below minimums, the pilot must not deviate from the last ATC clearance until obtaining a new or amended clearance. The pilot may elect to continue the approach as published to the missed approach point and land, if the aircraft is in a position to make a safe landing and the runway environment is in sight. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 197(197). Aircrew members will not fly within _____ hours of consuming alcohol or while impaired by its after effects. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 198(198). Each crewmember shall use supplemental oxygen anytime the cabin altitude exceeds10,000 ft. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 199(199). Oxygen must be provided for occupants when a flight exceeds ____ hours duration between 10,000 and 13,000 ft MSL. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 200(200). For any scheduled mission where cockpit pressure will exceed 18,000 feet MSL, all aircrew members/occupants will prebreathe 100% oxygen for at least _______ minutes prior to the cabin altitude exceeding 10,000 feet MSL. |
|
Definition
|
|
