A. Place the A/R power switch to OFF

B. Perform a brute force disconnect

C. Select the alternate hydraulic system

D. No answer is correct

2. The primary A/R frequency will be monitored no less than _____ minutes prior to the ARCT.

A. 15

B. 45

C. 30

D. 10

3. The tactical plot function allows the CSO to display:

A. Type, Altitude, Range and RADAR type for 15 threats

B. Location, Range, and Labels for 5 threats

C. Altitude, Range and RADAR type for 10 threats

D. Location, Range, and Labels for 10 threats

4. To configure UHF #1 for transmitting and receiving A/R primary, with guard turned off:

A. Set the mode to MN, and select OFF for GUARD

B. Set the mode to BTH, and select OFF for GUARD

C. Set the mode to BTH, and select ON for GUARD

D. Set the mode to MN, and select ON for GUARD

5. There is a limit of ____ waypoint spaces allotted for the flight plan and the alternate flight plan including the primary and alternate destinations.

A. 40

B. 60

C. 200

D. 100

6. The HC-130J has _____ liferafts installed in the _____.

A. 2 - 46 man / left wing liferaft compartments

B. 2 - 10 man / inboard liferaft compartments

C. 3 - 46 man / top center wing trailing edge area (comp No. 4 is normally empty)

D. 2 - 20 man / 4 wing liferaft compartments

On the Defensive System Control Panel, the Handoff button allows for selecting one of three audio states:

A. On, LATCHED MODE, FLOAT MODE

B. On, LATCHED MODE, SEARCH MODE

C. OFF, LATCHED MODE, SEARCH MODE

D. OFF, LATCHED MODE, FLOAT MODE

Which CMDS Mode on the defensive systems control panel will dispense flares automatically when sensed by the missile warning system, but will not dispense chaff automatically even if commanded by the RWR?

A. MAN

B. STBY

C. AUTO

D. SEMI

If the CMDS programmer becomes inoperative during flight, the mode switch must be placed in _____ for jettison to be initiated.

A. STBY

B. BYP

C. MAN

D. OPERATE

The CMDS jettison function is still available when the MASTER switch is in the STBY position.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

The Skin Paint mode detects and displays airborne targets up to a range of ___ nm.

A. 20

B. 40

C. 25

D. 15

The boundary limits of TCAS detection are ___nm off nose, ___nm off sides and ___nm on tail.

A. 40, 15, 6

B. 60, 40, 15

C. 40, 15, 12

D. 15, 6, 2

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 18B-24

Windshear hazard is processed and displayed for up to ______ of range coverage.

A. 20 NM

B. 10 NM

C. 3 NM

D. 5 NM

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 18B-31

Weather (WX) Mode of the LPCR: Excessive precipitation (>50 mm/hr) is depicted as _______ on the LPCR display when WX mode is selected.

A. magenta

B. red

C. black

D. blue

Doppler beam sharpening functions only on expanded and offset maps when the map falls within the operational limits of the mode. The basic limitations are that the map mode must be greater than _______ from the velocity vector and that the range to the far edge of the map must be less than ____________ from the airplane.

A. 30 degrees; approximately 40 NM

B. 20 degrees; approximately 30 NM

C. 10 degrees; approximately 40 NM

D. 40 degrees; approximately 30 NM

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 18B-30

16. The vertical maneuvering resolution advisories issued by TCAS can only be determined and generated against intruder airplanes that report ________ data in their transponder replies to TCAS interrogations. For non-altitude reporting (NAR) airplanes, TCAS generates __________ only.

A. airspeed; resolution advisories

B. altitude; traffic advisories

C. mode S; resolution advisories

D. mode S; altitude data

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 18B-23

17. If more than one ACAWS message occurs simultaneously, the message associated with each is displayed when the alert occurs. Aural alerts associated with ACAWS messages are _________________.

A. sounded simultaneously, quite a nice harmony

B. are deleted from the computer's memory

C. queued and presented in order of priority

D. always available if the pilot selects the ACAWS Overflow page

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 18-6

18. On the HC-130J aircraft there are _____ portable oxygen bottles located _____.

A. 4 / within the flight station, right side of the forward bulkhead in the cargo compartment and the right side in the aft section of the cargo compartment

B. 3 / at the pilot’s position, aft side of FS245 bulkhead, aft of the left wheel well

C. 4 / at the copilot’s position, forward side of FS245 bulkhead, aft of the right wheel well, and aft of the right paratroop door

D. 3 / at the pilot’s position, aft side of the FS245 bulkhead, and aft of the right paratroop door

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 16-3

19. The value displayed on the total quantity indicator does not include the fuel quantity for:

A. No answer is correct

B. Individual tank indicator errors do not affect the totalizer

C. The HC-130J does not have a totalizer

D. Tanks that have a failed indicating system

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 8-17

In reference to covert interior and exterior lights, personnel should not look directly into the infrared light source at a maximum intensity and should maintain a minimum of _____ feet from energized IR lights to prevent possible eye discomfort or damage.

A. 25

B. 10

C. 50

D. 5

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 7-5

Bailout from the crew entrance door is not recommended at airspeeds above _____ KIAS or with the landing gear extended.

A. 250

B. 170

C. 125

D. 150

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 3-113

If the liferaft(s) have not ejected properly after the normal in-plane liferaft release handles have been pulled, _____ .

A. the LM will pull the liferaft release handle(s) on top of the wing

B. liferafts are not installed on the HC-130J.

C. pry the liferafts out by hand

D. exit the aircraft and use the seat cushions.

23. Liferaft emergency release handles must be pulled ____ for complete ejection and inflation of liferafts.

A. In numerical sequence

B. At least 3 inches

C. Though their full travel

D. One at a time

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 3-111

If flammable fumes are present or suspected, electrical equipment not required to carry out the Fire/Smoke/Fumes Elimination checklist should _____.

A. Be turned on

B. Be turned off until fumes are eliminated

C. Not be turned on or off

D. Be disconnected

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 3-104

When fuel must be dumped to reduce gross weight in an emergency, or to provide for additional buoyancy in a ditching operation:

A. All the answers are correct

B. Do not dump in a circular pattern

C. The crossfeed valves must be closed to prevent all of the main tank fuel from being dumped

D. overboard.

E. Do not dump fuel less than 5000 ft above the terrain

In preparation for a gear up landing, the following exits should be opened and secured:

A. Paratroop doors

B. The side exits

C. All overhead escape hatches

D. All answers are correct

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 3-38

Aircraft emergency evacuation chopping locations are marked in ____ on the inside and _____ on the outside of the fuselage near the paratroop doors:

A. No answer is correct

B. Only on the inside

C. Only on the outside

D. Yellow, black

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 3-6

Whenever it is determined that the airplane will land with less than _______ lbs of fuel, inform Air Traffic Control that a fuel emergency exists.

A. 7000

B. 6000

C. 3000

D. 2000

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 5-10

If hot brakes are suspected, the area on both sides of the wheel will be cleared of personnel and equipment for at least _____ft.

A. 300

B. 100

C. 500

D. There is no restriction approaching the side of the tires

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 2A-59

Approach fuel is fuel required for approach and landing from overhead destination, which is normally____lbs.

A. 800 lbs is always required.

B. Approach fuel is never required.

C. 1,000 lbs

D. 700 lbs

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Table 12.1

Fuel required for engine start, taxi and takeoff is normally_____lbs. unless there are excessive delays that include an additional 30 minutes of engine running ground time.

A. 2,000 lbs

B. 800 lbs

C. 3,500 lbs

D. 1,300 lbs

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Table 12.1

32. The minimum landing fuel for an HC-130J aircraft is:

A. 5,000 lbs

B. 4,000 lbs

C. 3,000 lbs

D. 7,000 lbs

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Table 12.1

During an Emergency Climb procedure, the CSO will:

A. Monitor terrain (via LPCR)

B. Call "CLEAR OF TERRAIN" when above all critical terrain

C. State optimum heading when straight-ahead flight path vector will not provide terrain clearance

D. All answers are correct

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Table 16.3

Review the AFTO Form 781 series before _________ or ___________.

A. unloading cargo; loading cargo

B. approaching the aircraft; entering the aircraft

C. applying power to the aircraft; operating aircraft systems

D. takeoff; landing, whichever comes first

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 6.21.1

If unable to clear thunderstorms or cumulonimbus clouds by at least 2,000 ft vertically, avoid them by at least:

A. All answers are correct

B. 20 NM at or above FL230

C. 10 NMs below FL230

D. 5 NMs for tactical low-level operations

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 6.20.4

At no time will the number of people on the HC-130J flight deck exceed:

A. 5

B. 6

C. 8

D. 7

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 5.3

Prior to Refusal Speed, any crew member noting a safety of flight condition/malfunction during takeoff will state "________" and give a brief description of the malfunction.

A. GO

B. ABORT, ABORT, ABORT

C. REJECT

D. ROTATE

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Table 5.1

Use of non-hard surfaced runways or taxiways require _____ approval (or deployed equivalent).

A. WG/CC

B. MAJCOM/A3/DO

C. GP/CC

D. SQ/CC

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 5.20.1

The basic FDP is ____hours providing no mission events, helicopter air-to-air refueling (HAAR) below 3,000 ft AGL, pilot proficiency training, or functional check flights (FCF) are accomplished after ____hours and no AAR or HAAR at or above 3,000 ft AGL are accomplished after ____hours. If the autopilot is not operational, or its use is denied for more than ___hours, FDP will be ____hours (the use of altitude hold does not constitute use of an autopilot).

A. 12; 4; 12; 10; 16

B. 16; 12; 14; 4; 12

C. 12; 5; 10; 12; 16

D. 16; 4; 12; 10; 5

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 3.7.1.1

Except MAJCOM-approved aerial demonstrations/events or during takeoff or landing, do not operate aircraft over congested areas or groups of people if the altitude does not ensure at least _____ above the highest obstacle within a _____ radius of the aircraft.

A. 500 ft, 500 ft

B. 1,000 ft, 2,000 ft

C. 1,000 ft, 1 NM

D. 1,000 ft, 3 NM

Ref: AFI 11-202v3 Paragraph 5.14

The CSO HDDs display the same formats as the pilot’s and copilot’s HDD’s with the following exceptions:

A. Format to be displayed is selected using any CNI-MU

B. Shares the NAV-radar display format with the copilot or pilot

C. Can display either pilot's or copilots PFD displays but cannot modify format selections

D. All answers are correct

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 18D-1

Do not attempt to inflate the life vest prior to bailing out as it may _____ .

A. hinder the donning of the survival vest

B.

be damaged during egress from the airplane as well as hinder the wearer during exit

C. not inflate

D. hinder parachute deployment

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 3-114

Which of the following overlays are not an option for the digital map display (digimap):

A. RWR and TCAS

B. Flight Plan

C. Tactical Plots

D. Nav Info

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 18B-17

For in-flight evacuation of the aircraft. If the airplane is under control and time permits, the order of preference for bailout exits are:

A. Crew entrance door, paratroop doors, and cargo door and ramp

B. Cargo door and ramp, paratroop doors, and crew entrance door

C. Paratroop doors, cargo door and ramp, and crew entrance door

D. Crew entrance door and paratroop doors

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 3-112

If bailout overwater is required, which of the following should be accomplished by the crew:

A. Don life vests and parachutes.

B. If time permits, don exposure suit

C. Answers A and B are correct

D. Check equipment of other personnel for completeness and proper adjustment

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Figure 3.7 Sheet 2

The TCAS system can only detect the presence of nearby intruder airplanes equipped with transponders that reply to air traffic control radar beacon system (ATCRBS) mode __ or mode __ interrogations.

A. S, 3

B. 4, S

C. 3, C

D. C, S

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 18B-23

On the HC-130J aircraft, emergency evacuation escape ropes are located:

A. At the flight deck escape hatch only.

B. At all emergency exits

C. At the side emergency hatches

D.

Aft of each of the three overhead escape hatches

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 20-15

On the HC-130J aircraft there are _____ hand held fire extinguishers located _____.

A. 3 / on the forward side of the bulkhead, aft of left wheel well, and aft of left paratroop door

B. 5 / on the forward and aft sides of the bulkhead, aft of left wheel well, and aft of left and right paratroop doors

C. 4 / one in the flight station on the flight station aft bulkhead and three in the cargo compartment on the cargo compartment forward bulkhead, at the rear of the left wheel well and aft of the left paratroop door.

D. 4 / at the pilot’s and copilot’s positions, aft right side of the bulkhead, and aft of the right main gear well

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 20-15

The soft panel assumes the function of the corresponding hard panel when _____.

A. The panel has been selected on the SOFT PANEL MENU.

B. Soft Panels are not manually selectable.

C. No answers correct.

D. It has been selected "ON" using the R5 LSK.

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Page 11-6

Pressing the AUTONAV on the power up page initiates:

A. Selects correct Navigation Data Base, INU GC alignment, selects TACANs

B. All navigation radios turned ON

C. INU GC alignment, align EGIs, selects all available navigation sensors, navigation source set to AUTO

D. INU BATH alignment, aligns EGIs, selects all available navigation sensors, navigation source set to MANUAL

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Page 6-5

No inflight refueling (AAR) can be accomplished after _____ hours into an augmented crew duty day.

A. 16

B. 18

C. 24

D. 12

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 3.7.1.2

CSOs will have an oxygen mask connected and readily available:

A. Between 10,000 feet and FL350

B. From before starting engines until after landing

C. Below 10,000 feet

D. No answers correct

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 6.24.3.1

To configure UHF # 2 for transmitting and receiving on the A/R frequency with guard monitoring:

A. Set the mode to BTH, and select OFF for GUARD

B. Set the mode to BTH, and select ON for GUARD

C. Set the mode to MN, and select OFF for GUARD

D. Set the mode to MN, and select ON for GUARD

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Page 9-16

No person shall act as a crew member on an aircraft _____.

A. While suffering from the after effects of alcohol.

B. While under the influence of alcohol.

C. If the individual’s physical condition could be detrimental to safety.

D. All answers are correct

Ref: AFI 11-202v3 Paragraph 5.1.4

The CMDS master switch is a two-position (OPR, STBY) lever-lock switch which inhibits all radiating and ejecting features when placed in STBY, except the CMDS _____ function.

A. Flare dispense

B. Chaff and flare dispense

C. Chaff dispense

D. Jettison

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 18C-3

The FROM/TO page allows for entry of two reference points and a selected groundspeed, and computes the bearing, distance, and time between the two points. To find bearing distance from your present position to the Davis-Monthan AFB TACAN, enter _____.

A. PRESENT/DMA

B. /DMA or PPOS/DMA

C. .DMA

D. All answers are correct

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Page 10-37

With the center escape hatch ladder installed on an HC-130J aircraft, it is _____ to exit the airplane from the center overhead cargo compartment escape hatch using the _____ side of the ladder.

A. Difficult, right

B. Impossible, right

C. Impossible, left

D. Difficult, left

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 20-16

The life raft release handles are located _____.

A. All answers are correct

B. Two on the fuselage structure aft of the right paratroop door

C. Two on the wing upper surface inboard of their respective life raft compartment

D. Two on the flight station bulkhead below the escape hatch

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 20-15

The CSO inertia reel _____function automatically nor will the shoulder harness provide restraint if the if the seat is _____.

A. will not, facing sideways

B. will, facing sideways

C. will not, forward

D. will not, backwards

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 20-13

The crew entrance door jettison handle is a yellow handle located _____.

A. Above the crew entrance door

B. To the right of the alarm bell

C. To the right of the crew entrance door

D. On the ceiling of the flight station

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 20-11

What color on the Engine Status Display page denotes an ACAWS extreme range?

A. Cyan

B. Yellow

C. Red

D. White Inverse Video

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 9-9

The alarm signal to abandon the aircraft (Ground Evacuation) is what?

A. Three long rings

B. six short rings

C. One long sustained ring

D. two rings

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 3-3

Oxygen system: Under a continuous breathing condition, the pressure should indicate __________.

A. 300-455 psi

B. 320-600 psi

C. 270-340 psi

D. pressure does not matter as long as the quantity indicates above 5 liters.

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 16-1

CAUTION: When the airplane is parked with the fuel tanks more than three-quarters full (6,400 pounds in the outboard and 6,000 pounds in the inboard), all crossfeed valves should be __________.

A. closed

B. open

C. switched ON

D. de-energized by pulling ECB 441

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 2D-5

During the EXTERIOR INSPECTION, enter/exit nose wheel well from the ____________. Do not enter/exit from the _____________of the nose wheel well due to the possible hazard of venting liquid oxygen.

A. right side only; left side

B. left side only; right side

C. right side only; right side

D. left side only; left side

What are the limits for fuel unbalance between tanks of a symmetrical pair (main or external)?

A. 2500 pounds

B. 1500 pound

C. 500 pounds

D. 1000 pounds

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 1-13

VHF Communication Radio: Frequencies can be selected manually or by selecting one of ____ preset channels.

A. 40

B. 20

C. 30

D. 10

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 18A-3

68. ______ is the period that starts when an aircrew reports for a mission, briefing, or other official duty and ends at the completion of aircrew duties at the aircraft. Maximum is ___ hours for a basic aircrew and ___ hours for an augmented aircrew.

A. Crew Duty Time ( CDT ) / 18 / 24

B. Flight Duty Period ( FDP ) / 16 / 22

C. Crew Duty Period (CDP) / 18 / 22

D. Flight Duty Period ( FDP ) / 12 / 16

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 3.7.2

69. The minimum runway length for HC-130J touch and go landings (flaps 50%) is ______ feet.

A. 6000

B. 8000

C. 7000

D. 5000

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Table 9.1

Which of the following is the CSO’s primary ditching exit when seated in the flight station?

A. Side emergency hatch

B. Forward escape hatch

C. Center escape hatch

D. Aft escape hatch

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Figure 3-9 Sheet 4

For FIRE/SMOKE/FUMES ELIMINATION the pilot will direct all crew members to _____.

A. Report to the loadmaster for firefighting instructions.

B. Bailout

C. Turn off all equipment, fasten seat belts and await instructions

D. Don oxygen/quick don masks and goggles (as applicable) and to select 100% on their oxygen regulators

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 3-104

Do not attempt takeoff with _____ on the wings or empennage.

A. Ice

B. Snow

C. Frost

D. All answers are correct

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 2B-13

Do not approach the main wheel area when extreme temperatures due to excessive braking are suspected. If conditions require personnel to be close to any overheated wheel or tire assembly, the approach should be from _____.

A. The rear only

B. The side perpendicular to the aircraft axis

C. The fore or aft only

D. Overhead

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 2D-13

The aircraft radar is required if _____ or _____ that can be detected by airborne radar are forecast or exist along the route of flight, or essential to accomplish mission objectives.

A. Hazardous conditions

B. Severe icing

C. Thunderstorms

D. Answers A and C

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Table 4.14

Not including special Aux tank unbalance restrictions, the fuel unbalance limit between wings is _____.

A. 1000 lbs

B. 1500 lbs

C. 2500 lbs

D. 500 lbs

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 1-13

Operating procedure, technique, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed.

A. Comment

B. Note

C. Warning

D. Caution

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page iv

Operating procedure, technique, etc., that may result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed.

A. Comment

B. Caution

C. Note

D. Warning

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page iv

A person shall not act as a crewmember of an aircraft while under the influence of alcohol or its after-effects. Aircrew members shall not consume alcoholic beverages within ____ hours of take-off.

A. 8

B. 10

C. 12

D. 14

Ref: AFI 11-202v3 Paragraph 5.1.4.1

Normally, aircrew will use supplemental oxygen anytime the cabin altitude exceeds___________ .

A. 25,000 ft MSL

B. 18,000 ft MSL

C. 13,000 ft MSL

D. 10,000 ft MSL

Ref: AFI 11-202v3 Paragraph 6.4

Service ceiling is the altitude at which the maximum rate of climb at maximum continuous power and best climb speed is _________ fpm.

A. 200

B. 100

C. 500

D. 300

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1-1 Page 4-2

Cruise ceiling is the altitude at which the maximum rate of climb capability at maximum continuous power and best climb speed is _________ fpm.

A. 100

B. 500

C. 200

D. 300

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1-1 Page 4-1

Turbulence is depicted as __________ in the weather radar mode.

A. red

B. yellow

C. white

D. cyan

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 18B-30

If the engine status display is not selected on any HDD and an ACAWS warning or caution occurs, _______________.

A. the ACAWS will appear on system status page

B. the engine status display automatically appears on HDD 2

C. you will hear the warning or caution, and the system will do nothing else.

D. you must check the overflow page for further instructions

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 18-5

DIGITAL MAP STABILIZATION. Is used to select the digital map stabilization and slew mode. Pressing the digital map stabilization select switch to the left selects ________ stabilization and cursor slewing, pressing down selects _________ stabilization and cursor slewing, and pressing right selects ________ stabilization and map slewing

A. cursor; ground; airplane

B. ground; cursor; airplane

C. airplane; cursor; ground

D. ground; airplane; cursor

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 18B-18

The computer cursor switch is a snap-action, double-detent trigger switch. Pulling the switch to its first detent and releasing causes the cursor mode to change to__________. Pulling the switch to the second detent and releasing changes the cursor mode to ____________.

A. computer cursor; quick cursor

B. quick cursor; computer cursor

C. ground cursor; manual cursor

D. manual cursor; ground cursor

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 18B-19

The cursor control panels provide a centralized interface to affect coordinated ___________ on the cursor capable displays. The cursor control panels also provide some secondary functions not related to the cursor.

A. CNI-MU operation

B. AMU operation

C. flight controls

D. cursor movement

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 18B-37

The cursor functions in one of four modes (_______, ________, __________, and __________). Each mode is designed for a particular operation, by tying the cursor position to a different reference position.

A. manual; ground; computer; quick

B. cursor; map; digimap; common

C. manual; automatic; computer; reset

D. ON; OFF; STBY; RESET

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 18B-38

Operating procedure, technique, etc., that is considered essential to emphasize.

A. Caution

B. Note

C. Comment

D. Warning

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page iv

ETP computations are required on CAT 1 routes when the total time between the LSAF and FSAF is _____ hours or more

A. 4

B. 3

C. 5

D. 7

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 11.2.3.1

With the aircraft in BIU BACKUP, select the correct statement concerning the fuel system.

A. The fuel system operates normally, TANK SELECT/QTY SET is inop, and no fuel imbalance ACAWS messages

B. The fuel system goes to TANK to ENGINE

C. Crossfeed was selected at the time the BIU BACKUP, crossfeed will continue; once the crossfeed valves have closed they cannot be reopened

D. If operating on crossfeed, the system will automatically switch to TANK TO ENGINE when the fuel is at or below 600 lbs on the FROM fuel source

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 18-8

An RVCT is a control time at the ___ for a/an ___ rendezvous.

A. ARCP – RV Bravo

B. RVIP/ARIP – RV Bravo

C. RVIP/ARIP – RV Alpha

D. ARCP – RV Delta

Ref: ATP-56(B) Part 2,Page 1B-1

CMDS Controls and Indicators. The MASTER switch is a two position (OPR, STBY) lever-lock switch. In the STBY position, all components of the defensive system are inhibited from radiating or ejecting.

A. True

B. False

On the HC-130J aircraft, the three (3) escape hatches and two side emergency exits may be released from _____ the aircraft.

A. only outside

B. neither inside or outside

C. only outside

D. inside or outside

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 3-6

Entering or exiting the airplane using the left or right paratroop door is prohibited while the engines are operating in the _____ mode and flaps are extended.

A. HOTEL

B. BETA

C. REVERSE

D. NORMAL

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 2D-4

During inflight refueling, a signal amplifier failure is indicated by the inability to obtain a RCPT RDY or BOOM LATCHED light indication. If a system reset does not correct the problem _____ to perform an A/R using MANUAL BOOM LATCHING procedures.

A. Place the AMPL switch in OVRD

B. The AMPL OVRD and RCPT RDY indicators should illuminate

C. Advise the tanker that all disconnects will be intitiated from the receiver.

D. All of the above.

AAR Rendezvous closure will not be continued inside _____ range or _____ feet altitude separation unless visual contact is established with the tanker.

A. ½ NM / 500

B. 5 NM / 1000

C. 3 NM / 500

D. 1 NM / 1,000

Ref: ATP-56(B) Part 2, Page 1-2

The following are mandatory AAR receiver calls for EMCON options 1 and 2:

A. Verbally notify boom operator prior to manual/emergency boom latching

B. Astern (Precontact)

C. Initial radio call 15 minutes prior to the ARCT (if applicable)

D. All answers are correct

For a RV Delta, the receiver will be established at _____ ft below the assigned base AAR altitude when departing the RVIP. Additionally, the receiver will remain in electronic contact on radar, A/A TACAN, TCAS, or other means as soon as possible, but no later than _____ nm range or the RVIP, whichever occurs first.

A. 1000, 50

B. 1000, 30

C. 500, 20

D. 500, 40

Ref: ATP-56(B) Part 2, Page 1D-4

In-Flight Fuel Management. At a minimum, consumption comparisons will be accomplished and recorded on the Master Flight Plan (MFP) at convenient waypoint intervals not to exceed ________.

A. 1 hour

B. 1 hour 20 minutes

C. 45 minutes

D. 30 minutes

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 12.7.1.2

The HC-130J is equipped with the following defensive systems:

A. AAR-47, ALE-40, ALR-69, ALQ-157

B. AAR-47, ALE-40, ALR-56M

C. AAR-47, ALE-47, ALR-56M

D. AAR-47, ALE-40, ALR-69

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 18C-1

101. Specific fuel planning procedures unique to the HC-130J aircraft can be found in:

A. AFI 11-217

B. AFI 11-216

C. AFI 11-202 Vol 3

D. AFI 11-2HC-130J Vol 3

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Chapter 12

The EGI navigation solution consists of ___ input(s).

A. INS and GPS

B. INS, GPS, Doppler

C. INS, GPS, LORAN

D. GPS only

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 18B-42

The HSI compass rose represents a __ NM distance. A ___ NM ring is made up of curved dashed segments drawn to scale with the outer ring.

A. 4, 2

B. 8, 4

C. 8, 6

D. 6, 2

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 18B-26

104. In-Flight Fuel Management. At a minimum, fuel consumption comparisons will be accomplished and recorded on the Master Flight Plan (MFP) at convenient waypoint intervals not to exceed _______ if aircraft performance is critical or marginal (actual fuel is less than Continuation Fuel, icing conditions, weather avoidance, etc.).

A. 1 hour 20 minutes

B. 30 minutes

C. 1 hour

D. 2 hours 30 minutes.

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 12.7.1.3

105. For the HC-130J, the minimum navigation equipment required for category I routes can be found in:

A. AFI 11-217

B. AFI 11-2HC-130J Vol 3

C. AFI 11-202, Vol 2

D. AFPAM 11-216

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Table 4.14

106. Auxiliary tank fuel unbalance limits are:

A. One aux tank full and the other aux tank empty

B. All other tanks symmetrically fueled

C. No greater than 1,000 lbs imbalance between symmetrical tanks and 1,500 lbs between wings

D. All of the above

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 1-13

107. The low-speed drogue is capable of extension/retraction/AR operations between _____/_____ KIAS.

A. 185/250

B. 105/120

C. 110/130

D. All of the above

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 1-15

108. Airspeeds less than _____ KIAS may cause the paradrogue to become slightly less stable. Aircrews must be vigilant of a potential loss of helicopter rotor to tanker tail clearance and the increased potential for midair collision.

A. 110

B. 130

C. 105

D. 155

Ref: ATP-56(B) Part 3, Page 1-1

109. What is the optimum delivery pressure to refuel HH-60G helicopters without valve closure restrictions?

A. 35 psig

B. 40 psig

C. 25 in.hg.

D. 11 lbs

Ref: ATP-56(B) Part 5, Page ZD-11

110. Satellite communications antennas concentrate transmitter signals into beams of high energy electromagnetic radiation. Do not stand in front of the satellite antenna or touch it at any time when transmitting. Since the radio can transmit in the DAMA mode without the user being aware, a distance of at least _____ should be maintained from the front of the satellite antenna at all times to avoid partial body exposure which could exceed the applicable permissible limits. Avoid physical contact with any bare-metal wire or antenna surface because it could result in a RF shock or burn.

A. 5 feet

B. 15 feet

C. 10 inches

D. 5 yards

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 2D-45

111. There is potential for VHF frequency interference during voice LOS operation of the ARC-231 with the ARC-222 (VHF Com.2 ), and UHF frequency interference during data LOS operation of the ARC-231 with the ARC-164 (UHF Com.1 - Lower). If interference is encountered, _____.

A. do not operate the radios simultaneously

B. turn the VHF #2 off

C. pull effected ECBs

D. all of the above

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 18A-5

112. Looking directly into the _____, even briefly, may permanently damage the LLTV camera, if selected. The LLTV camera requires a warm-up time up to _____ seconds.

A. sun, 30

B. moon, 15

C. stars, 15

D. sun, 9

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 18B-52

LTM can cause _____ and _____ blindness. To prevent blindness to personnel near the airplane ensure that LTM is _____ at any time during ground operations.

A. immediate, permanent, not armed

B. temporary, flash, not aimed

C. serious, color, not pointed

D. permanent, temporary, locked

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)J-1 Page 2A-13

114. The Flight Authorization designates a pilot in command (PIC) for all flights. PICs are:

A. In command of all persons on board the aircraft, and are responsible for the welfare of their aircrew and passengers.

B. Vested with the authority necessary to manage their crew and safely accomplish the mission.

C. The final mission authority and will make decisions not specifically assigned to a higher authority.

D. All of the above

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 2.5

115. Each aircrew member will be qualified or in training for qualification in that crew position, mission, and mission design series (MDS) aircraft to perform duties as a primary aircrew member.

A. True

B. False

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 3.1

116. Critical phases of flight are defined as:

A. Engine start, takeoff, approach and landing, and all tactical mission events.

B. Taxi, takeoff, approach and landing, and all tactical mission events.

C. Takeoff, approach and landing, and all tactical mission events.

D. Engine start, taxi, takeoff, and approach and landing.

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 3.1.3

117. A CSO is not required during receiver AAR.

A. True

B. False

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Table 3.1, Note 2

118. The pilot in command (PIC) may extend the ___________.

A. FDP by up to 2 hours on a mission in progress.

B. FDP and/or CDP by up to 2 hours on a mission in progress.

C. FDP and/or CDP by up to 4 hours on a mission in progress.

D. CDP by up to 4 hours on a mission in progress.

119. The alert duty period will begin at a scheduled time determined by the unit/mission commander. Provide aircrew members ___ hours crew rest prior to alert duty. The unit/mission commander will determine the length of the alert period, not to exceed ___ hours.

A. 12, 72

An alert period may be extended up to a maximum of ___ days with MAJCOM/A3 (or deployed equivalent) approval provided aircrew members receive a ___ hour recovery period prior to the next alert.

A. 5, 24

B. 5, 12

C. 7, 12

D. 7, 24

121. The FDP will begin when the aircrew shows for flight duties. Crews may complete initial alert activities without starting their FDP.

A. True

B. False

122. Waiver authority for post-mission crew rest is the ______.

A. OG/CC

B. Theater commander

C. A or B

D. None of the above

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 3.9.2

123. Waiver requests for post-mission crew rest are considered on a case by case basis only with the concurrence of the _______.

A. SQ/CC

B. Individual crewmember

C. Mission commander

D. Aircraft commander

124. Normally, if a soft panel is selected due to hard panel failure, it should be used for the remainder of the flight.

A. True

B. False

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 4.10.1

125. There is one Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) and one Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR) installed on the aircraft. Which of the following statements is true:

A. The CVR and DFDR are required and must be operational for all flights.

B. Do not fly passengers without an operative CVR and DFDR.

C. Both A and B

D. None of the above

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Table 4.11

One crew oxygen system is installed and required. The minimum oxygen quantity is ____ liters, or as necessary for mission accomplishment.

A. 5

B. 2

C. 10

D. 15

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Table 4.15

127. There are three Communication/Navigation/Identification Management Units (CNI-MUs) installed on the aircraft. One may be inoperative at the _____ position.

A. PM

B. CP

C. CSO

D. None of the above. All three CNI-MUs are required.

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Table 4.17

128. One of the Heads Down Displays (#1-#4) may be inoperative provided:

A. No instrument approaches are planned.

B. The HUD on the affected side is fully operational

C. No tactical events are to be accomplished

D. Heads Down Display #5 is operational

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Table 4.17

The PIC may allow individuals to occupy the CSO station, when unoccupied, as long as their presence will not hinder the performance of the crew.

A. True

B. False

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 5.2.1

Routes will be planned at _____ KTAS (260 KTAS below 10,000 MSL), except for oceanic crossings. For oceanic crossings, routes will be planned at _____ KTAS or _____ KTAS, optimized for gross weight.

A. 250, 210, 200

B. 340, 250, 210

C. 320, 300, 290

D. 290, 290, 210

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 12.5.9

A. AC, PM, PM

B. PF, PM, PF

C. PF, AC, PM

D. PF, PM, PM

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 5.6

A. 10,000 ft AGL

B. 18,000 ft MSL

C. 10,000 ft MSL

D. 5,000 ft AGL

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 5.7

A. True

B. False

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 5.8.1

A. 10, 10, 100

B. 20, 20, 200

C. 5, 5, 250

D. 10, 10, 250

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 5.12.2

A. VOX

B. Interphone

C. Primary radio

D. A and B

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 5.14.1

A. Mission commander (MC)

B. Pilot flying (PF)

C. Aircraft commander (AC)

D. All of the above

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 5.14.1

A. Is appropriately classified after landing

B. Remains on and running for 30 minutes until the tape is clear of any recorded classified conversations

C. Is removed by maintenance, and the tape is destroyed

D. Remains on for 30 minutes after landing to ensure classified information is properly cleared

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 5.14.3.2

A. Turned in to Intel

B. Properly classified

C. Zeroized using the RMM Destruct function

D. A and B

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 5.14.3.2

A. True

B. False

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 5.15.4

A. True

B. False

A. Ground roll plus 500 ft, 80 feet, 60 feet

B. ADJUSTED MFLMETO, 100 feet, 60 feet

C. 3,000 feet, 80 feet, 60 feet

D. 5,000 feet, 80 feet, 60 feet

A. 25 feet, OG/CC

B. 30 feet, MAJCOM/A3

C. 25 feet, MAJCOM/A3

D. 50 feet, OG/CC

A. MAJCOM/A3

B. SQ/CC

C. OG/CC

D. Wing safety

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 5.20.1

A. True

B. False

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 5.20.5.2

A. 3,000 feet

B. Charted Maximum Effort landing ground roll plus 500 feet

C. Charted Maximum Effort landing ground roll plus 1000 feet

D. ADJUSTED MFLMETO

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 5.20.7.3.1

A. Go-around point

B. Time status

C. Lowest acceptable altitude

D. Parking spot

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 5.20.7.3.1

A. 25, 10

B. 30, 10

C. 25, 15

D. 30, 15

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 5.21.1

A. Obstruction clearance

B. A minimum of 10 feet clearance from any permanent obstruction

C. A minimum of 25 feet clearance from any permanent obstruction

D. Aircraft clearance

A. Operations Supervisor

B. SQ/CC

C. OG/CC

D. Pilot in Command

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 5.22.3

A. Land as soon as conditions permit

B. Land after accomplishing remaining training items

C. Request an operations supervisor waiver to continue flight

D. Inspect aircraft systems inflight to determine if landing is necessary

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 5.23.5

A. True

B. False

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 6.1.2

A. VMC

B. VFR

C. IFR

D. IMC

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 6.15

A. PIC, PIC

B. PIC and CSO, PIC

C. CSO, PIC and CSO

D. None of the above

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 6.17.1

A. Latitude/longitude from current FLIP

B. Falconview chart data

C. Squadron approved custom database

D. All of the above

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 6.17.2

A. The CSO

B. The PM

C. Both pilots

D. The CSO and PM

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 6.17.3

A. Aircraft ground time exceeds 12 hours

B. A maintenance dash six preflight is performed

C. 72 hours provided the aircraft is sealed, not flown, and documented entry control is maintained

D. All of the above

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 6.22.2

A. The best known weather conditions for the alert period

B. The worst weather conditions expected for the alert period

C. The weather conditions for the expected alert time

D. The current weather conditions

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 6.23.5

A. Flown below 2,000 feet (except for takeoffs, approaches, or landings)

B. From coast-out to coast-in

C. Beyond the power off glide distance of the aircraft

D. At the discretion of the PIC

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 6.24.5

A. True

B. False

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 6.34

A. In approved fuel jettison areas

B. Under Emergency conditions

C. For missions requiring gross weight reduction

D. All of the above

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 6.40.5

A. Prior to descent for landing

B. As soon as practical

C. Before reaching the ETP and one hour prior to ETA

D. Prior to coast-out

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 6.42

A. D, 130, C

B. C, 130, D

C. C, 140, D

D. D, 140, C

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 6.44.1

A. AFTO Form 781F

B. AFTO Form 781G

C. AFTO Form 781H

D. Both A and C

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 6.48.1

A.

items not higher than the second from the bottom rung

B. items higher than the second from the bottom rung

C. restraint harnesses

D. None of the above. There are no exceptions.

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 6.57.3

A. 5, 1

B. 4, 1

C. 5, 2

D. 4, 2

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 9.3

A. Category II route

B. Overwater route

C. Tactical navigation route

D. Category I route

A. Mission Planning Combination (MPC)

B. Mission Plannng Environment (MPE)

C. Mission Planning Cell (MPC)

D. Flight Planning Build (FPB)

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 11.1.1.10

A. CAT II routes when the total time between LSAF and FSAF is 5 hours or more

B. CAT I routes when the total time between LSAF and FSAF is 3 hours or more

C. CAT I routes when the total time between LSAF and FSAF is 5 hours or more

D. Any CAT II route greater than 3 hours

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 11.2.3.1

A. to the ETP

B. to the FSAF

C. over any reporting point prior to the ETP

D. To the coast out point

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 11.2.3.3

A. True

B. False

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 11.4.2

A. 5.0, 10.0, CNI UPDATE

B. .03, .05, CNI UPDATE

C. 4.0, 8.0, CNI PROGRESSS

D. 2.0, 4.0, CNI PROGRESS

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 11.4.4

A. 30 degrees (or greater), 3

B. 60 degrees (or greater), 3

C. 30 degrees (or greater), 5

D. 60 degrees (or greater), 5

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 11.5.3.3

A. True

B. False

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 11.5.4.2

A. EGI

B. INS

C. GPS

D. I-INS

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 11.5.6

A. 30 minutes

B. 30 nm

C. 1 hour

D. 60 nm

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 11.5.8.8

A. 10% of flight time fuel over the CAT I route/route segment, not to exceed +45 minutes of fuel at terminal fuel flow

B. 5% of flight time fuel over the CAT I route/route segment, not to exceed +45 minutes of fuel at terminal fuel flow

C. 10% of flight time fuel over the CAT I route/route segment, not to exceed +45 minutes of fuel at cruise fuel flow

D. 6,000 lbs overhead the destination

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 12.5.5

A. The ETP has been crossed (CAT I routes)

B. Fuel systems and quantity indicators are functioning normally

C. There is obvious extra fuel and the +EXCESS fuel trend is favorable

D. All of the above

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 12.7.3

A. 6,000 lbs

B. 3,000 lbs

C. 7,000 lbs

D. 2,000 lbs

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 12.7.6

A. AF Form 781F

B. AF Form 791

C. AF Form 1522

D. AF Form 781A

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 13.4.3

A. 5

B. 10

C. 20

D. 3

A. True

B. False

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 15.3

A. Search and Rescue

B. Combat Search and Rescue

C. Personnel Recovery

D. Rescue

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.1

A. 10

B. 15

C. 20

D. 30

A. 10%

B. 0.8 millilux

C. 0.8 millilux with CC/DO approval

D. There is no minimum

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.10.2.1

A. Adding enroute MSL altitude to predicted terrain elevation within 1 NM either side of course centerline or planned flight path

B. Adding enroute AGL altitude to predicted terrain elevation on centerline

C. Adding enroute AGL altitude to predicted terrain elevation within 1 NM either side of course centerline or planned flight path

D. Adding 500 feet to the highest terrain within 1 NM and rounding up to the nearest 100 feet

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.10.2.2.1

A. True

B. False

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.10.2.2.2

A. 6,000

B. 5,000

C. 4,000

D. 5,500

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.10.3

A. 1:250,000 (JOG) or larger scale chart

B. 1:500,000 (TPC or sectional) or larger scale chart

C. Any chart suitable for the terrain and visbility

D. Chart at the discretion of the CSO

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.12

A. TPC

B. TFC

C. JOG

D. Sectional

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.12

A. Proceed beyond 1 NM

B. Descend below DH

C. Descend below 300 feet AGL

D. Begin descent

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.22.5

A. 500, 2

B. 600, 2

C. 300, 2

D. 300, 1

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.22.5

A. 300, 200, 100, 50, 25, 10 ft above toucdown

B. 300, 200, 100, 50, 40, 30, 20, 10 ft above touchdown

C. 200, 100, 50, 25, 10 ft above touchdown

D. 100, 50, 25, 10 ft above touchdown

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.22.5.2

A. 1 NM

B. 3 NM

C. The descent point

D. Final Approach Fix

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.22.10.1

A. 10

B. 7

C. 5

D. 6

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.23.3.2

A. An SCA

B. An SCA for IMC use

C. An SCA for NVG use

D. Approaches to AMP-4 landing zones

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.23.3.2

A. The end of the planned touchdown zone

B. 1 NM and 300 feet AGL

C. Zero distance to go on the mission computer or as required on the SCA plate at MDA

D. None of the above

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.23.4

A. The IP, the FAF, 1/2

B. 10, 5, 1

C. 10, 3, 1/2

D. 10, 5, 1/2

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.23.5.1 and 16.23.5.3

A. 30 minutes

B. 1 hour

C. 25 minutes

D. 20 minutes

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.30.5

A. True

B. False

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.33

A. Aircraft call sign, date, and TOT

B. Chem lights

C. Aircraft call sign, date, and altitude

D. Aircraft call sign and date

A. True

B. False

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.35.3.1

A. Any crewmember can call “NO DROP”

B. The PM and CSO will immediately acknowledge a “NO DROP” call

C. The CSO will advise the DZ party of aircraft time status

D. All of the above

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.35.3.2

A. The Verbally Initiated Release System

B. Visual airdrop

C. Automatic release at the computer derived release point

D. Low altitude airdrop positioning

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.37.1

A. 5,000 feet AGL

B. 3,000 feet AGL

C. 3,500 feet AGL

D. All RAMZ airdrops are low altitude

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.42

A. 10

B. 5

C. 15

D. 2

Visually

Electronically

A or B

None of the above.

A. 150, 300, 300, 500

B. 300, 500, 150, 500

C. 300, 500, 150, 300

D. 150, 500, 300, 500

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.45.9.4

A. IMC Entry point

B. IFR Initial point

C. DZ Entry Point

D. IMC Initial Point

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.45.12.2.1

A. 500, 500, 1

B. 500, 400, 3

C. 500, 400, 5

D. 500, 500, 5

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.45.12.1

A. 500

B. 1,500

C. 2,000

D. 1,000

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.46.1.1

A. RV GOLF

B. Tanker Orbit

C. RV BRAVO

D. Head-on offset

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.46.2.2

A. HF radio transmissions

B. Electronic Counter Measures emissions

C. Both A and B

D. None of the above

E. Huge DooDoo's

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.48.4

A. Combat operations

B. Emergency fuel situations

C. When aleternate communication methods exist and are pre-briefed

D. All of the above

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.48.2

A. 1,000, 2,000, 3

B. 500, 1,000, 10

C. 500, 1,000, 3

D. 1,000, 2,000, 10

A.

pull the respective FIRE handle then place the ENGINE START switch to STOP.

B. shutdown all engines.

C. pull the symmetrical engine FIRE handle then place the ENGINE START switch to STOP.

D. place the ENGINE START switch to STOP.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 3-3 Chap: 3

A. True

B. False

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 8-2 Chap: 8

A.

142,000; 540

B. 130,000; 300

C. 140,000; 314

D. 155,000; 540

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 1-2 Chap: Sec 1

A. Tanks No. 1 and No. 4 always contain 500 to 1,000 pounds more fuel per tank than tanks No. 2 and No. 3, except when total usable fuel is less than 6,000 pounds.

B. The main tanks are full, except for fuel used for taxi, takeoff, and climb; but not less than 7,060 pounds in tanks No. 1 and No. 4 and not less than 6,400 pounds in tanks No. 2 and No. 3, when the external and/or auxiliary tanks contain usable fuel.

C. Fuel unbalance is within the limits specified by the AIRSPEED LIMITATIONS and FUEL UNBALANCE LIMITS.

D. All of the above

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 1-3 Chap: Sec 1

A. 6677; 28,000

B. 6400; 26,000

C.

7,323; 28,000

D. 7060; 26,000

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 1-2 Chap: Sec 1

A.

10

B. 15

C. 5

D. 20

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 2A-117 Chap: Sec 2A

A. 175,000

B.

164,000

C. 155,000

D. 142,000

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 1-2 Chap: Sec 1

A. 27;32

B. 28;50

C.

28;40

D. 20;40

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 2D-7 Chap: Sec 2D

A.

low (less than 1700 psi)

B. lower than 1500 psi

C. out of hydraulic pressure limits

D. unavailable

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 11-105 Chap: 11 Para:

1

A. Yellow

B. White

C. Red

D. Green

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 7-5 Chap: 7

A. 20

B. 30

C. 10

D. 5

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 7-6 Chap: 7

A. Hydrolic powered

B.

AC powered

C. DC powered

D. Gravity fed

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 8-2 Chap: 8

A. Equal operating time

B. Equal fuel flow

C. Equal transfer rate

D. Maximum fuel flow

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 8-2 Chap: 8

A. force/airflow

B. inflation drag/gravity

C.inflation drag/ hydraulic hose reel

D. weight/hydrolic hose wheel

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 8-6 Chap: 8

A. True

B. False

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Pg: 8-2 Chap: 8

A. True

B. False

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 8-6 Chap: 8

A.

Tanker ready

B. Return to observation

C. Cleared for contact

D. Dry contacts only

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 8-6 Chap: 8

A. True

B. False

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 8-11 Chap: 8

A. Aux Tanks

B. External Tanks

C. No. 1 Tank

D. No. 3 tank

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 8-12 Chap: 8

A. 1000, 500, 500

B. 1520, 500, 500

C. 1000, 0, 0

D. 1520, 0, 0

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 8-14 Chap: 8

A. True

B. False

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 8-12 Chap: 8

A. 5

B. 10

C. 20

D. 3

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 8-16 Chap: 8

A. True

B. False

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 8-17 Chap: 8

A. True

B. False

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 1-4 Chap: 1

A. 250

B. 185

C. 150

D. 130

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 1-6 Chap: 1

A. 120

B. 150

C. 130

D. 105

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 1-7 Chap: 1

A. 181

B. 200

C. 250

D. 150

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 1-6 Chap: 1

A. 141

B. 139

C. 150

D. 165

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 1-8 Chap: 1

A. 5 minutes; RUN

B. 1 minute; STOP

C. 5 minutes; STOP

D. 1 minute; RUN

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 1-13 Chap: 1

A. 40,000

B. 28,000

C. 42,000

D. 50,000

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 1-18 Chap: 1

A. Red

B. Green

C. Yellow

D. Orange

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 1-18 Chap: 1

A. ±40 feet

B.

±75 feet

C. ±50 feet

D. ±70 feet

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 1-22 Chap: 1

A. 20 degrees

B. 10 degrees

C. 45 degrees

D. 15 degrees

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 1-23 Chap: 1

A. 1/2 inch

B. 1 inch

C. ¼ inch

D. ¾ inches

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 15-2 Chap: 15

A. 2000/Black

B. 1000/Black

C. 2000/Green

D. 1000/Green

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 18B-14 Chap:18

B. 40

C. 50

D. 60

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 18B-17 Chap:18

A. position update

B. Doppler beam sharpening

C. windshear

D. ALL

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 18B-32 Chap:18

APN 241 LPCR Beacon Mode: The beacon data can be displayed in all radar range scales, sector sizes and

expands, but beacon coverage itself will not extend past _______ NM.

A. 40

B. 10

C. 20

D. 80

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 18B-35 Chap:18

A. 100

B. 200

C. 300

D. 400

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 18B-49 Chap:18

A. 15 percent

B. 20 percent

C. 50 percent

D. 70 percent

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 18C-4 Chap:18

A. 5 ft /20 – 80 ft

B. 6 ft/ 20-80 ft

C. 10 ft/ 20-70 ft

D. 10 ft/ 20-70 ft

Ref: ATP 56B Part 5 page ZD-3

A. 83 - 93 ft

B. 73 – 93 ft

C. 70 – 90 ft

D. 70 – 80 ft

Ref: ATP 56B Part 5 page ZD-4

A. 5

B. 10

C. 15

D. 20

Ref: ATP 56B Part 5 page ZD-4

A. 1020 lb/min

B. 1000 lb/min

C. 750 lb/min

D. 1500 lb/min

Ref: ATP 56B Part 5 page ZD-12

A. True

B. False

Ref: ATP 56B Part 1 page 1A-5

A. Hard Hose (Dead Hose)

B. Stuck Hose

C. Broken Hose

D. Bent Hose

Ref: ATP 56B Part 1 page 1A-7

A. Visual

B. Judy

C. Contact

D. Tally

Ref: ATP 56B Part 1 page 1A-7

A. TRAIL

B. FROM

C. RWND

D. RESET

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 2A-116 Chap:2

A. 15 to 20-minute

B. 10 to 15-minute

C. 30 minute

D. 45 minute

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 2A-117 Chap:2

A. True

B. False

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 2A-119 Chap:2

A. 2150 meters

B. 300 meters

C. 150 meters

D. 100 meters

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 2-4 Chap:2

A. True

B. False

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 1-2 Chap:1

A. True

B. False

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 1-2 Chap:1

A. True

B. False

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 6-2 Chap:6

A. AUTO

B. MAN

C. REF

D. MODE

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 6-5 Chap:6

A. ALIGN mode

B. NAV mode

C. EGI mode

D. GPS solution

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 6-6 Chap:6

A. 10; 20

B. 10; 30

C. 15; 20

D. 10; 15

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 6-10 Chap:6

272.

T/F: GPS FOM must be ≤ 4 for the CNI-MU to allow an inflight alignment (IFA) to be selected.

A. True

B. False

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 6-10 Chap:6

A. 20

B. 10

C. 40

D. 60

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 7-2 Chap:7

A. 5 NM

B. 1 NM

C. 10 NM

D. 3 NM

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 7-13 Chap:7

A. CARP

B. RENDEZVOUS

C. LANDING ZONE

D. All of the above

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 7-16 Chap:7

A. 2,150

B. 2,100

C. 2,500

D. 1,000

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 7-26 Chap:7

A. FUEL QTY MISCOMPARE

B. FUEL QTY O/B

C. LOW FUEL QTY

D. FUEL QTY ERROR

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 7-32 Chap:7

A. 15 knots

B. 20 knots

C. 45 knots

D. 35 knots

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 8-33 Chap:8

A. EGI

B. INS

C. GPS

D. NAV

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 9-71 Chap:9

A. True

B. False

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 9-73 Chap:9

A. True

B. False

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 9-73 Chap:9

A. 10

B. 5

C. 15

D. 11

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 9-115 Chap:9

A. True

B. False

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 10-9 Chap:10

A. True

B. False

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 11-62 Chap:11

A. True

B. False

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 11-66 Chap:11

A. 90

B. 180

C. 120

D. 70

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 11-66 Chap:11

A. 4.0

B. 5.0

C. 6.0

D. Unrestricted

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 11-66 Chap:11

A. 25

B. 30

C. 45

D. 15

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 12-48 Chap:12

A. 1.0

B. .25

C. .5

D. 2.0

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 12-48 Chap:12

A. 200;10

B. 200; 20

C. 150; 10

D. None of the above

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 12-60 Chap:12

A. True

B. False

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1-4 Ch2 Pg: 12-60 Chap:12

A. 18,000; 30

B. 10,000; 30

C. 14,500; 30

D. 12,500; 30

Ref: AFI 11-202v3 ACC Sup Paragraph 6.4.1

A. 3SMs flight visibility, clear of clouds

B. 3 SMs flight visivility, 500 ft below clouds, 1,000ft above clouds, 2,000ft horizontal of clouds

C. 5 SMs, 1,000ft below clouds, 1,000 ft above clouds. 1 SM horizontal of clouds

D. None of the Above

Ref: AFI 11-202v3 ACC Sup Table 7.1

A. Where all compatible approaches require radar

B. Where required NAVAIDs are unmonitored

C. When the point of intended landing’s lowest compatible approach weather minimums are greater than or equal to a 1,500 ft. ceiling or 3 SM visibility

D. All of the above

Ref: AFI 11-202v3 ACC Sup Paragraph 8.7.2

A. 500; 2

B. 500; 3

C. 1000; 2

D. 1000; 3

Ref: AFI 11-202v3 ACC Sup Paragraph 8.8.1.1

A. True

B. False

Ref: AFI 11-202v3 ACC Sup Paragraph 8.17.1

A. During emergency fuel need situations with more than one crewmember to monitor and coordinate the transfer

B. A reliable source of known quantity transferred is available

C. Symmetrical tanks are maintained within 1,000 lbs at all times

D. All of the above

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 4.7.3.

A. True

B. False

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130Jv3 Paragraph 16.19.1.1.

A. Pod MASTER POWER to OFF

B. HYDROLIC POWER to OFF

C. Pod supply valve to MAN/CLSD

D. All of the above

A. True

B. False

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(H)J-1 Ch2 Pg: 2A-126.3 (WARNING) Chap:2