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HC-130P NAV MQF 166-221 RITTER
Part 4 of 4
56
Aviation
Professional
04/12/2012

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Cards

Term

 

166. The AN/AAQ-36 Laser Illuminator/Pointer is eye-safe from the aperture and produces invisible laser
radiation. It will not cause permanent loss of eyesight.

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)H-1 p 1M-31; TO IC-130(H)N-1, p.4-214.8

Definition
 B. False
Term


167. When the Navigator's Video Display Unit (VDU) is turned on, a power-on BIT is performed. At the
completion of this test, a flashing letter "F" on the VDU indicates___________.

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)H-1 p 1M-121; TO IC-130(H)N-1, p.4-56G (Sheet 1 of 3).

Definition
B. A BIT failure. VDU power must be cycled via the ON/OFF switch.
Term


168. The AN/AAQ-36 Central Electronics Unit (CEU) interfaces with the SCNS 1553 data bus for what
purpose?

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)H-1 p 1M-36; TO IC-130(H)N-1, p.4-214.9.

Definition

 B. Bus monitoring (as a passive device)
Term

 

169. When the AN/AAQ-36 is placed in CAGE mode, the Turret FLIR Unit (TFU) is commanded to a
particular pointing angle with respect to ____________.

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)H-1 p 1M-35; TO IC-130(H)N-1, p.4-214.13.

Definition
 C. Airframe centerline
Term

 

170. The AN/AAQ-36 FLIR may be stowed from any active scanning or slaving mode.

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)H-1 p 1M-35; TO IC-130(H)N-1, p.4-214.30.

Definition

 B. False
Term
171. To protect the optical window from possible damage, ensure that the TFU is in ______ position before turning the AN/AAQ-36 system off.
Ref: TO 1C-130(H)H-1 p 1M-49; TO IC-130(H)N-1, p.4-214.12.
Definition
B. STOW
Term


172. During taxi, the AN/AAQ-36 FLIR does not have to be stowed, and may be set as required.

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)H-1 p 4A-10; TO IC-130(H)N-1, p.8-12.

Definition
A. True
Term


173. AN/ALE-47. The MWS (Missile Warning System) inhibit switch is a two-position (ON, OFF) switch that
permits the operator to enable or inhibit all missile warning system dispense inputs to the CDU.

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)H-1, 1P-15; TO IC-130(H)N-1, p.4-224.1.

Definition
 A. True
Term


174. [AN/ALE-47] The jettison switch is a two-position (OFF, JETT) switch that must be pulled out and raised
to be activated.

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)H-1, 1P-15; TO IC-130(H)N-1, p.4-256

Definition
 A. True
Term


175. AN/ALE-47. To avoid damage to the CDU, the mode switch must be pushed in and turned when engaging
or disengaging the _______function from any other position.

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)H-1 p 1P-15; TO IC-130(H)N-1, p.4-455.

Definition
 C. BYP
Term

 

176. [AN/ALE-47] If the safety switch pins are removed, placing the ground test switch to GND TEST/EMER
will arm the CMDS, which could result in inadvertent flare ejection.

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)H-1 Para: 1P-17; TO IC-130(H)N-1, p.4-226.

Definition
 A. True
Term


177. The ALR-69 Frequency Selective Receiver System (FSRS) is used for measuring specific parameters
required for ambiguity analysis.

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)H-1 p 1P-20; TO IC-130(H)N-1, p.4-231.

Definition

 A. True
Term

 

178. The ALR-69 diamond routine is controlled by the HAND OFF pushbutton. In normal operation, the
diamond _______.

Definition
A. floats to the highest priority display in the environment
Term

179. In the OPEN mode, up to ____ emitter symbols can be displayed versus ____ in the PRIORITY mode.

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)H-1 p 1P-21; TO IC-130(H)N-1, p.4-235.

Definition
D. 16, 5
Term


180. The ALR-69 "New Guy Audio" consists of _____ beeps within _____ seconds at the new threat PRF.

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)H-1 p 1P-24; TO IC-130(H)N-1, p.4-236.

Definition

 D. 3, 1.5
Term

181. When operating the AN/ALR-69, allow a _______ warm-up after system power on.

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)H-1 p 1P-26; TO IC-130(H)N-1, p.4-273.

Definition
 C. 2-Minute
Term


182. Do not exceed _____ KIAS when paratroop doors are in operation (opening or closing).

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)H-1 p 5-10; TO IC-130(H)N-1, p.5-18.

Definition
 A. 150
Term


183. Foam in tanks, with air refueling pods. The design maximum takeoff weight of the HC-130P is
_________ lbs. The maximum overload takeoff weight is _________ lbs.

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)H-1 p 5-22; TO IC-130(H)N-1, p.5-20.

Definition
C. 155,000, 175,000
Term

 

184. During the exterior inspection, avoid unnecessarily standing in the area near flare and chaff dispensers

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)H-1 p 4A-2; TO IC-130(H)N-1, p.8-5.

Definition

 A. True
Term


185. During the "BEFORE TAXI" checklist, item 1 - 'Compass systems and heading indicators', the navigator
compares the No. 1 and No. 2 systems, and states the heading of the _____.

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)H-1 p 4A-9; TO IC-130(H)N-1, p.8-13.

Definition

 B. # 1 compass
Term

186. The navigator may initiate those items on the "Before Taxi" checklist, not requiring crew coordination,
prior to the pilot calling for it, providing at least _____________________.
Definition

 C. one engine is on speed and its generator is on line
Term
187. On a VMC approach, the navigators may call the Before Landing checklist complete prior to fastening
their safety belts and shoulder harnesses.

Ref: TO 1C-130(H)H-1 p 4A-14; TO IC-130(H)N-1, p.8-16.
Definition
A. True
Term


188. The degree of radio silence is commensurate with the risk assessment of hostile SIGINT capabilities. Do
not jeopardize the mission to maintain strict radio silence.

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Pg: Chap: 2 Para: 2.3.6.1.4

Definition
A. True
Term

 

189. A reference altitude is an altitude designed to provide terrain masking and terrain clearance along the
planned flight path. Base these altitudes on terrain within _____ either side of planned flight path.

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Pg: Chap: 2 Para: 2.3.7.4.12.

Definition
 A. 1 NM
Term

 

190. Excessive bank angles and roll rates result in wing flash which can visually highlight the HC/MC-130 to
adversary air and surface defense forces.

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Pg: Chap: 2 Para: 2.4.5.5.4.

Definition
A. True
Term


191. During route planning, use sufficient distance between points to allow completion of normal work
requirements (e.g., updates, warnings, briefings, communications, and listening watch); also, construct legs to
avoid revealing your intended overall direction of flight.

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Pg: Chap: 2 Para: 2.4.5.1.2.

Definition
 A. True
Term

192. For high-level long range planning, use ___ knots constant TAS or long range cruise airspeed adjusted for
mean or worst-case winds and temperatures.

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Pg: Chap: 4 Para: 4.2.1.1.

Definition
D. 290
Term

193. Consider the effects of terrain-induced turbulence when flying low-level. Rapid downdrafts, particularly
during ridge crossings, can exceed aircraft capability if not avoided. Typically, this dangerous turbulence occurs
when wind blows perpendicular to a mountain with a velocity of _____knots or more.

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Pg: Chap: 4 Para: 4.2.4.2

Definition
 C. 25
Term


194. The threat or airspace structure may lead to a high- or mid-level profile, followed by a descent to low-level
for a terminal event. This profile should be considered when the majority of the threats can be overflown en
route to the terminal area. The disadvantage with this profile is that the aircraft must descend through the heart
of most ___________ and ___________ engagement envelopes.

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Pg: Chap: 4 Para: 4.2.2.

Definition
 A. MANPADS, AAA
Term


195. Start Climb Points. For high-density altitudes or long climbs where 1,000 feet per minute climbs cannot be
sustained, calculate climbs at _______ feet per minute.

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Pg: Chap: 2 Para: 2.4.5.5.

Definition
D. 500
Term


196. An advantage of airdrop is the ability to maximize the number of personnel and/or equipment delivered to
an area with little or no ground support while minimizing exposure time.

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Pg: Chap: 8 Para: 8.1.1

Definition
 A. True
Term


197. Some low-altitude airdrops may be conducted at high pressure altitudes. Due to high true airspeed,
increased distance for ___________ may be required.

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Pg: Chap: 8 Para: 8.2.5.2.1.

Definition

 B. Slowdown
Term

 

198. All-Terrain Vehicles (ATV) are four-wheel quad runners rigged on combat expendable platforms and are
rigged with ________ parachutes.

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Pg: Chap: 8 Para: 8.3.6.

Definition
 C. G-12E
Term


199. The RAMZ consists of a deflated Zodiac F470 combat rubber raiding craft with a 35 horsepower outboard
engine. When rigged, the RAMZ package weighs between _________ and __________ pounds.

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Pg: Chap: 8 Para: 8.3.5

Definition

 A. 600/1000
Term


 200. Track lengths less than _____ NM are usually insufficient for rejoin and HAR off-load of 5,000 pounds
per two-ship of receivers.

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Pg: Chap: 6 Para: 6.2.2.3.

Definition
 B. 20
Term

 

201. According to ATTP 3-3.HC-130, if track length is not sufficient to accomplish HAR without track reversal
due to terrain, threat, or mission parameters, careful attention must be given to _________ and
_______________ for the turns.

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Pg: Chap: 2 Para: 2.8.

Definition
 A. Turn rate, power considerations
Term


202. The probability of kill (Pk) for any threat system is dependent upon:

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Pg: Chap: 10 Para: 10.1

Definition
 E. All of the above
Term


203. Successful threat avoidance or evasion depends on timely receipt of an attack warning. Improper threat
calls may cause:

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Pg: Chap: 10 Para: 10.8.2.

Definition
D. All of the above
Term


 

204. Indirect Threat Radars may not be an immediate threat to the HC-130 but are important since they may be
used to vector AIs and/or as a cueing source for SAM/AAA systems. These types of radars include:

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Pg: Chap: 10 Para: 10.10.2.4.2.

Definition
D. All of the above
Term


205. _______________ is used to determine the low-altitude coverage of a radar over the water or flat terrain.
The coverage is based on the line of sight limitation of the radar.

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Pg: Chap: 2 Para: 2.12.1.2.

Definition
A. Radar Horizon Distance
Term


206. Detection Free Altitude is the highest altitude an aircraft can transit a point and remain below the radar's
coverage.

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Pg: Chap: 2 Para: 2.12.1.4.

Definition
 A. True
Term

 

207. ___________ is the sum of military, diplomatic, and civil efforts to affect the recovery

and reintegration of isolated personnel

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Pg: A1-19

Definition

 C. Personnel Recovery (PR)
Term


208. When executing a ridge crossing, a crossing angle between ____ and ____ degrees allows a decreased
climb gradient and maintains a reasonable energy level throughout the crossing.

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Pg: Chap: 4 Para: 4.5.3.

Definition
A. 30 / 45
Term


209. ______________ is a system of receiving radio beacon signals from navaids and rebroadcasting them on
the same frequency to confuse navigation. The enemy will conduct these operations to prevent aircraft from
arriving at their intended targets or destinations.

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Para: A3.6.6.3.1.1.

Definition
A. Meaconing
Term


210. ________________ is deliberately radiating, reradiating, or reflecting electromagnetic energy to impair the
use of electronic devices, equipment, or systems. The enemy conducts these operations to prevent effective
employment of radios, radars, navaids, satellites, and electro-optics.

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Para: A3.6.6.3.1.3.

Definition
 B. Jamming
Term

 

211. During a contour search evaluate the area for turbulence and down drafts before descending to search
altitude and flying close to a mountain side, as severe down drafts (__________ feet per minute and greater)
may occur.

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Pg: Chap: 9 Para: 9.11.4.6.

Definition
C. 2000
Term


212. The airframe becomes less tolerant of exceeding structural operating limitations depending on it’s:

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Para: A4.5.3.

Definition

 D. All of the above
Term

 

213. Wind hazards are a significant threat to low-level operations. Wind shears of ____ knots or more can
develop along a boundary between accelerated winds from terrain and more stable air around it.

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Para: A4.8.1

Definition
C. 80
Term


214. Wind hazards are a significant threat to low-level operations. Wind acceleration along terrain faces can
lead to large up and downdrafts as the flow is concentrated. Downdrafts along mountain ridges can travel as far
as ___ miles from the driving terrain.

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Para: A4.8.1

Definition
 D. 45
Term


 

215. NVGs have _____ degrees field of view (FOV) considerably less than the eye’s normal FOV of _____
degrees. The reduction requires the wearer to actively and aggressively scan.

Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HC-130 Para: A3.7.1.2.

Definition

 C. 40, 120
Term

216. Basic Area Navigation (BRNAV) Airspace. HC-130 aircraft are approved for BRNAV operations.
BRNAV navigation accuracy criteria is RNP-___. BRNAV operations require at least one fully operational
INS system. The Maximum time limit for BRNAV operations is ___ hours.

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130 Vol 3, 4.9.4.

Definition
A. 5; 9.6
Term


217. Helmet visors will be lowered or eye protection worn by all personnel aft of FS ___ on all airdrops, HAR,
and pyrotechnic missions requiring doors to be open.

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130 Vol 3, 6.27.10.3.

Definition
 B. 617
Term

 

218. Automated Mission Planning Fuel Planning. When using automated mission planning tools (CFPS), all
required fuel, performance, and ETP calculations may be used in lieu of manually derived calculations from
planning documents and/or performance technical orders. Add alternate, identified extra, and reserve fuel in
addition to the calculations derived from CFPS.

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130 Vol 3, 11.6.1

Definition
 A. True
Term

219. Use the following low level chart annotation style for start climb points given the following example: Start
climb at 17 NM to go and to be at 3,500 feet MSL by 12 NM to go:

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130 Vol 3, 16.8.3.1.

Definition

 A. S/C 17/12/3500

 B. S/C 17/3500/12

 C. S/C 3500/17/12

  D. Any of the above examples are acceptable

(ANSWER IS D) 

Term


220. The following is true regarding airdrops in contested environments:

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130 Vol 3, 16.24.1.1.

Definition
 B. Navigator-directed tactical airdrops using CARP/HARP procedures will be used
Term


221. The minimum operating equipment required for MCAD airdrops is:

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130 Vol 3, Table 16.3.

Definition

 D. Both B and C
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