56. Call "NO DROP" if all checklists are not completed by the ___________________.

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130 Vol 3 Para: 16.30.5.3.

57. The navigator will call "RED LIGHT" only at the expiration of the "GREEN LIGHT" time.

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130 Vol 3 Para: 16.30.7.

58. The One Minute Warning is never compressed and is always given on time. EXCEPTION: During pilot
directed airdrops, the checklist may be initiated at a point commensurate with the available time and type of
drop.

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130 Vol 3 Para: 16.30.8.

59. Airdrops conducted above _______ feet AGL are considered high altitude drops. EXCEPTION: RAMZ
airdrops at or below _______ feet AGL are considered low altitude drops.

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130 Vol 3 Para: 16.35.

61. When dropping from _______ feet MSL or higher, use pre-breathing procedures.

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130 Vol 3 Para: 16.35.1.2.

62. Under acceptable conditions, the minimum acceptable altitude for parachutists to evacuate the aircraft is
_____ feet AGL for static line deployments and _____ feet AGL for personnel freefall deployments.

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130 Vol 3 Para: 16.37.3.5.1.1.

63. For a fouled parachutist, if possible, the pilot will avoid turning the aircraft in the direction ___________
the fouled parachutist.

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130 Vol 3 Para: 16.37.3.6.3.

64. When dropping a door bundle in conjunction with personnel, the _____ will be the first object to exit.

Ref: AFI 11-2HC-130 Vol 3 Para: 16.37.4.1.

66. Do not exceed _____ KIAS at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 NMs of the primary airport of a Class C or
Class D airspace area unless authorized/required by ATC.

Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 5.9.2.2

67. Do not exceed 250 KIAS below 10,000 ft MSL within US airspace unless ________.

Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 5.9.5.1.

A. within restricted areas, when the aircraft T.O. requires or recommends a higher speed in order to

maintain safe maneuverability.

B. within MOAs, when operating within MAJCOM approved large scale exercises or short-term special
missions

C. within DoD/FAA mutually developed instrument routes, or within DoD developed visual routes (do
not exceed 250 KIAS on SR routes)

 D. All the above

 68. Normally, pilots will not turn after a takeoff, touch and go, or low approach until at least _____ ft. above
the departure end of the runway (DER) elevation, at a safe airspeed, and past the end of the runway (if visible).
This restriction does not apply when executing a closed pattern.

Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 5.11.7

 A. 400

69. Pilots must not operate aircraft over congested areas (cities, towns, settlements) or groups of people if the
altitude does not ensure at least _______ feet above the highest obstacle within a ________ ft radius of the
aircraft.

Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 5.14.3

70. Except for takeoff or landing, do not operate aircraft over non-congested areas at an altitude of less than
____ ft above the surface, except over open water, in special use airspace, or sparsely populated areas.

Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 5.14.4

71. Mission permitting, fly over national parks or monuments no less than _______. (Assuming no special use
airspace, LATN or MTR)

Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 5.14.5

72. To have oxygen readily available means: Crewmembers wear helmets with an oxygen mask attached to one
side, or have available an approved quick-donning/sweep-on mask properly adjusted and positioned. Regulators
shall be set to 100 percent and ON.

Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Table 6.2

75. Aircrew members will not fly within _____ hours of consuming alcohol or other intoxicating substance, or
while impaired by its after effects.

Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 9.11.3.4.

76. When computing the minimum DZ size for personnel airdrops at 1,000 feet AGL and below, add ______
yards to the _________ for each additional parachutist when airdropping ST/Pararescue personnel/RQS
assigned or supporting SERE personnel.

Ref: AFI 13-217, Drop Zone and Landing Zone Operations Para: Table 2.1

77. The minimum DZ size when dropping a single static line parachutist at 1,000 AGL and below is _____
yards wide by ______ yards long.

Ref: AFI 13-217, Drop Zone and Landing Zone Operations Para: Table 2.1

 78. The surface wind limit for AF MFF drops over land is _____ knots.

Ref: AFI 13-217, Drop Zone and Landing Zone Operations Para: Table 2.4

79. The surface wind limit for AF static line drops over water is _____ knots.

Ref: AFI 13-217, Drop Zone and Landing Zone Operations Para: Table 2.4

80. Surface wind limit for non-AF equipment is ______.

Ref: AFI 13-217, Drop Zone and Landing Zone Operations Para: Table 2.3.

81. Drop clearance to a marked DZ is normally inherent with mission clearance and is confirmed by the aircrew
observing the pre-briefed visual DZ markings. Unless radio communications are specifically required, any
coordinated markings, other than red smoke, red flares, or red lights indicate a clearance to drop.

Ref: AFI 13-217, Drop Zone and Landing Zone Operations Para: 2.12.1

82. During USAF MFF operations, aircrews should ensure the Jumpmaster/Team leader is aware when aerial
power lines are within ________ meters of the intended PI.

Ref: AFI 13-217, Drop Zone and Landing Zone Operations Para: 2.7.5

83. For water DZs, water depth must be a minimum of _____ feet and the area must be free of underwater
obstructions to that depth. There should be no protruding boulders, stumps, pilings, or other hazards within
_______ meters of the center of the DZ.

Ref: AFI 13-217, Drop Zone and Landing Zone Operations Para: 2.5.9.1.-2.5.9.2.

84. The minimum DZ size (length, width) when airdropping Military Free Fall (MFF) parachutists is:

Ref: AFI 13-217, Drop Zone and Landing Zone Operations Para: 2.5.1

 D. Determined by the jumpmaster based on number of personnel to be dropped, jumper

proficiency, and the prevailing winds.

85. Aircrews will not make airdrops using parachutes for which AFI 11-231 does not list ballistics unless the
user provides approved ballistic data or "K" factor.

Ref: AFI 11-231 Para: 9.4

86. For peacetime personnel airdrops (not supporting unconventional warfare forces), the safety zone distance
will never be less than_________.

Ref: AFI 11-231 Para: Page 157, Definition

87. Consider the following when determining HAAR track length: the ____ is normally the earliest point the
tanker can pass abeam the receiver _____________.


Ref: ATP-56(B) Part 3, 1-2

88. Join-Up Altitude. Receivers should be established at or below (above for receiver high) join-up altitude
and at AAR airspeed no later than the ____, or at a previously briefed location. Receivers will be at join-up
altitude no later than the ____.

Ref: ATP-56(B) Part 3, 2-2

89. Request from receiver for the tanker to start a slow descent, maintaining the refuelling airspeed. The rate of
descent is between ___ and ___ ft per min and this should be used unless tanker or receiver requests otherwise.

ATP-56(B) Part 1, 1A-13

91. All other factors being compatible, normal HAAR airspeed will be ____ to ____ KIAS.

Ref: ATP-56(B) Part 3, 1-1

92. Receivers will use the brevity term “Texaco” to request an on-call HAAR. Tanker aircrews, after
examining the terrain on the track, will compute and relay ___________, ______, and _________ to receivers.

Ref: ATP-56(B) Part 3, 2-9

93. Tankers and receivers will begin monitoring designated radio frequencies and will have electronic RV
equipment operating no less than _____ minutes prior to ARCT.


Ref: ATP-56(B) Part 3, 5-1

94. Minimum visibility for a visual rendezvous is ___ NM.

Ref: ATP-56(B) Part 3, 2-1

96. Loss of Visual Contact, Electronic Contact Maintained – Tanker. If visual contact is lost but electronic
contact is maintained, the tanker will maintain current altitude and continue join-up. At ___ nm electronic
contact, if visual contact is not established, the tanker will turn ___° right of track heading, lower flaps to air
refuelling configuration (as required), slow to refueling airspeed, call: “NO VISUAL CONTACT”, and after
___ sec, turn left and resume track heading.

Ref: ATP-56(B) Part 3, 4-3 and 4-4

97. Before initiating a turn at night, the tanker pilot must confirm the receiver is established in either the
observation or the refuelling position. Unless an emergency fuel condition exists, receiver crews will not
attempt probe-to-drogue contact in a turn at night.

Ref: ATP-56(B) Part 3, 2-4

98. During LOST VISUAL CONTACT maneuvers, in mountainous terrain, the tanker aircraft will respond with
"EXECUTE, BASE HEADING, and the MSA". The tanker will then _________________.

Ref: ATP-56(B) Part 3, 4-7

99. Loss of Visual and Electronic Contact - Tanker. If visual and electronic contact are lost after the tanker is
within ___ nm of the receiver, the tanker will immediately call: “CONTACT LOST”, establish a minimum __ ft


vertical separation (if able or conditions permit) and Turn ___° right of the track heading. After ___ sec,
maneuver for another RV or proceed as briefed.

100. After completion of the contact checklist and when the tanker is ready, the receiver will be cleared to the
_____ position on the appropriate hose. A single clearance from the observation position to the contact position
may be used if briefed, or is standard procedure in accordance with the tanker’s National Annex; however, all
receivers will stabilize in the ____ position prior to attempting contact.

Ref: ATP-56(B) Part 3, 2-4

101. Fuel Transfer Rates. The transfer rates are normally ____-____ lbs per min; however, they are dependent
on the tanker configuration. Specific National Annex should be consulted to determine the actual fuel transfer
rate.

Ref: ATP-56(B) Part 3, 1-1

102. When an emergency condition exists that requires immediate separation of aircraft, the tanker will call
“BREAKAWAY, BREAKAWAY, BREAKAWAY” preceded by the ________ and ________ pertaining to the
receiver required to breakaway. Simultaneously, the tanker will turn on the lower anti-collision light (if
refuelling un-aided).

Ref: ATP-56(B) Part 3, 4-10

103. While configured for HAAR, the tanker has a small margin for safety above power-off stall speed. Abrupt
power reduction at high gross weights may result in a stall with no stall warning.

Ref: ATP-56(B) Part 3, 1-1

104. When airplane power is not available, operator must ensure that the SCNS switch is placed to OFF when
SCNS is not in use to prevent unnecessary drain from the INS battery.

Ref: TO 1C-130-1-4 p 1-24

105. For high accuracy estimated CEP values to be displayed, the second alignment must be at least _____
minutes long and the change in heading between the two alignments was at least +/- _____ degrees.

Ref: TO 1C-130-1-4 p 2-6

106. For the most accurate enhanced interrupted alignment, turn to a heading ___ degrees from initial alignment
heading.

Ref: TO 1C-130-1-4 p 2-6

107. Enhanced interrupted alignment is allowed only once during each INU power on cycle and ALIGN mode
must be selected within _____ minutes of transitioning to NAV mode for the first time in that power-on cycle.

Ref: TO 1C-130-1-4 p 2-6

108. When a Data bus lockup occurs, the following symptom(s) will be observed:

Ref: TO 1C-130-1-4 p 4-23, 4-24

109. The message “GPS FAIL” indicates what condition:

Ref: TO 1C-130-1-4 p 4-8