Term
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Definition
[image]
Label image from left to right.
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Term
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Definition
A. Penam
B. Penem
C. Carbepenem - no sulfur
D. Cefem
E. Monobactam
F. Penicillianic acid
G. 6-Aminopenicillianic acid |
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Term
___ is without the sulfur molecule and. All other beta lactams have sulfur in their structure. |
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Definition
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Term
____is the only beta lactam with a 6-member ring. |
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Definition
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Term
__ and ___ are the core structure of the modern penicillin. |
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Definition
Penicillinic acid and 6-aminopenicillin acid (mostly!) |
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Term
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Definition
A - amide group
B - cis hydrogen
C - thiazolidine ring
D - carboxylic acid group
E - Beta-lactam ring
F- bicyclic structure |
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Term
The R side chain of penicillins is for ___ |
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Definition
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Term
The ___, which makes penicillin an organic acid, is essential for function |
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Definition
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Term
Penicillin is degraded by beta lactamase into ____ |
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Definition
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Term
WHich natural penicillin is given orally? |
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Definition
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Term
what is the difference between Pen G benzathine and Pen G procaine? |
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Definition
Both are IM only
difference: Benzathine is added to stabilize Pen G against BLases to maintain serum drug levels (reduce excretion), while Procaine is added to reduce pain at injection site. |
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Term
Penicillin V is more stable than G in acid due to ____ |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
beta lactamase inhibitors - Clavulanic acid (left) and Sulbactam (right) |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
Give the 5 b-lactamase resistant penicillins and thier form |
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Definition
1. Oxacillin - IV
2. Nafcillin - IV
3. Methicillin - IV
4. Dicloxacillin - oral (best)
5. Cloxacillin - oral (weak) |
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Term
Why are b-lactamase resistant penicillins resist degradation? |
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Definition
They have a bulky structure and a chloride on R1 |
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Term
Which penicillins are oral? |
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Definition
1. Pen VK
2. Dicloxacillin & Cloxacillin
3. Aminopenicillins - Ampicillin & Amoxicillin
4. Augmentin |
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Term
Give an example of a moderate spectrum beta-lactamase sensitive penicillin |
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Definition
Aminopenicillins - Ampicillin and Amoxicillin |
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Term
Example of broad spectrum beta-lactamase sensitive penicillin? |
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Definition
1. Carboxypenicillins- Ticarcillin & carbenicillin (activity against G- and pseudomonas)
2. Piperacillin
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Term
1st penicillins to have G- activity are ____ |
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Definition
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Term
Aminopenicillins have ___ in their structure which allows good G- penetration via porins but not BLactamse resistance? |
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Definition
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Term
1st penicillin against pseudomonas is ____ |
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Definition
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Term
What is the weakness of moderate and extended spectrum penicillins? |
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Definition
They are not resistant to beta-lactamase |
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Term
Give the B-lactamase inhibitors |
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Definition
1. Clavulanic acid
2. sulbactam
3. tazobactam |
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Term
B-lactamase inhibitors act as ___ for beta lactamase? |
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Definition
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Term
Give the moderate/extended spectrum combinations with aBL inhibitors and their brand names. Which are oral or parenteral? |
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Definition
Amoxicillin- Clavulanate (Augment) - oral (the only one)
Ampicillin-sulbactam (UNasyn) - IV
Piperacillin-taxobactam (Zosyn) - IV
Ticarcillin-Clavulanate (Timentin) - IV |
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Term
___ was the first cephalosporin and was made from a fungus from sewer water. |
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Definition
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Term
is a key intermediate molecule added to side chain of cephalosporin to make it active. |
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Definition
7-aminocephalosporanic acid (7-ACA) |
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Term
the key molecule in penicillin is ____. |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Cephalosporin (cepham - 6 membered ring with sulfur) |
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Term
WHy are cepholosporins more stable agains Blactamses than penicillins? |
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Definition
due to double bond in six-member ring that stabilizes the beta-lactam ring |
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Term
WHy does cephalosporins have better activity and acid stability than penicillins? |
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Definition
They have 2 R groups -
R1 = modify spectrum of activity
R2 = change in PK & ADME |
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Term
Cephalosporins, like penicillin, are still susceptible to ___ or can be degraded in a basic environment |
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Definition
nucleophilic attack (by an OH group) |
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Term
____ are not true cephalosporins. Give examples. What generation and dose form are they? |
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Definition
Cephamycins (Cefotetan and Cefoxitin) - 2nd gen - Parenteral |
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Term
1st gen ceph that is least stable to beta lactamase. Why? |
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Definition
Cefazolin (Ancef) - has a thio-linked thiazolidine ring |
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Term
why are cephamycins not true cephalosporins? |
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Definition
Have a 7-methoxy group which provides protection against b-lactamases. |
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Term
What is the effect of N-methylthiotetrazole (MTT) seen in several C2, such as Cefotetan? |
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Definition
N-methylthiotetrazole (MTT) side chainà alcohol intolerance and prothrombin deficiency. |
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Term
All 3rd gen have ____ that increase activity against gram (-)s. |
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Definition
an aminothiazole side chain |
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Term
This class of cephs have a quaternary ammonium group to help get into G- and zwitterion ion |
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Definition
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Term
This ceph has activity against MRSA and G+ |
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Definition
5th gen - Ceftaroline (Teflaro) |
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Term
This group of cephs have members with lipophilicity capable of entering CNS. |
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Definition
3rd gen - Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) and Cefotaxime (Claforan) |
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Term
Cilastatin inhibits ____and prevents Imipenem degradation. |
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Definition
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Term
___ is the only carbepenem with oral formulation |
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Definition
There is no oral carbepenem |
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Term
carbepenems with CNS penetration |
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Definition
Meropenem (Merrem) and Doripenem (Doribax) |
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Term
What is the difference between Imipenem and the other carbepenems? |
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Definition
Without cilastatin, imipenem would be degraded by dehydropeptidase, but meropenem, doripenem and ertapenem have beta-methyl group that prevents metabolism by dehydropeptidase. |
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Term
___ carbepenem is given IM with 1% lidocaine |
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Definition
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Term
carbepenem that is dosed once per day. WHy? |
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Definition
Ertapenem (invanz) - has longest half-life |
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Term
___ is a beta lactam with non-toxic lead |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Macrolide - clarithromycin |
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Term
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Definition
Lincosamide - Clindamycin (Cleosin) |
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Term
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Definition
Ketolide - Telithromycin (Ketek) |
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Term
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Definition
Oxazolidinone - Linezolid (Zyvox) |
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Term
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Definition
Glycopeptide - Televancin (Vibativ) |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Glycylcycline - Tigecycline (Tygacil) |
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Term
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Definition
Aminoglycoside - Tobramycin |
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Term
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Definition
Glycopeptide - Vancomycin (Vancocin) |
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Term
Tricyclic peptide with sugar residues attached describes |
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Definition
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Term
what is the route of admin for glycopeptides? |
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Definition
Vancocin - IV and oral for colon infection (C.diff)
Vibativ - IV only |
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Term
Redman syndrome is the main ADR of ___ |
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Definition
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Term
Described as a lipoglycopeptide |
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Definition
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Term
Has an aminohexose and glycosidic bond |
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Definition
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Term
what is the route of admin for aminoglycosides? |
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Definition
All parenteral
Nebulizer: Tobramycin (nebulizer for cystic fibrosis
Opthalmic: Tobramycin and Gentamicin
Topical: Neomycins (ointment and for prophylaxis for bowel surgery) |
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Term
____has the most spectrum of activity of all aminoglycosides and is the most resistant to aminoglycoside-inactivating enzymes. |
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Definition
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Term
what are the route of admin for macrolides? |
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Definition
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Term
Macrolide that is a prodrug |
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Definition
Erythromycin (Erythromycin ethylsuccinate) |
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Term
the only macrolide with IV form |
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Definition
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Term
what is the route of admin of ketek |
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Definition
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Term
What is the route of admin for cleocin? |
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Definition
oral, parenteral and topical vaginal cream |
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Term
4 aromatic rings fused together |
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Definition
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Term
Nephrotoxicity and otoxicity are common in |
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Definition
Vancomycin and Aminoglycosides |
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Term
In degradation in acid, tetracycline form a nephrotoxic molecule called ____; while in basic if forms ___ |
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Definition
tetracycline + acid = anhydrotetracycline (nephrotoxic)
tetracycline + basic = lactone ring (inactive) |
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Term
Do not recommend tetracycline to children under ___yrs old. |
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Definition
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Term
What is the route of admin for oxazolidinones? |
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Definition
Zyvox (linezolid) - oral and IV |
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Term
Name the 5 natural antibiotics |
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Definition
B-lactam
glycopeptide
aminoglycoside
macrolide
tetracyclines |
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Term
Name the synthetic antibiotics |
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Definition
Quinolones
Sulfomethoxazole/Trimethoprim
Oxazolidinone
Chloramphenicol |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Fluoroquinolone - Ciprofloxacin |
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Term
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Definition
Oxazolidinone - Linezolid |
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Term
first synthetic quinolone |
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Definition
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Term
what is the route of admin for quinolones? |
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Definition
Oral and parenteral
ophthalamic - Moxifloxacin and levofloxacin |
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Term
Metal chelation is common in |
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Definition
Tetracyclines
fluoroquinolones
Ceftriaxone |
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Term
what is the preferred route of admin for linezolid? |
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Definition
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Term
the 1st class of antibiotics developed are |
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Definition
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Term
what is the route of admin for bactrim? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the ratio of trim/sulfa in bactrim and which MOA comes first? |
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Definition
1:5 (trim-to-sulfa) - trimethoprim is 100x more potent
MOA of sulfomethoxazole- inhibits dihydropteroate synthase and then trimethoprime (inhibit dihydrofolate reductase) |
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Term
what is the preferred route of admin for chloramphenicol? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Microbiome is the totality of all the microbes in your gut (not in blood) and on your skin and their interaction with their environment. |
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Term
___microbial typing is used to identify bacterial species |
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Definition
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Term
List these in order of most dense microbiota: mouth, colon, esophagus, stomach, small intestine |
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Definition
colon > mouth > small intestine > stomach > esophagus |
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Term
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Definition
classification of people based on their gut microbiota….not dependent on diet or ethnicity (not an accepted concept) |
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Term
Describe these organisms: parasites, fungi, protozoa, viruses, bacteria |
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Definition
Parasitesàuni- or multicellular that need host to survive.
Fungi –> uni- or multicellular organisms ex. Mold or yeast
Protozoa à single-celled organisms that require a host to survive.
Viruses à non-living, noncellular organism that require a host to grow.
Bacteria à living, single cell organism |
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Term
4 ways bacteria are classified |
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Definition
•Cell shape
•Cell grouping
•Staining ability
Growth conditions |
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Term
Define these terms: biovar, morphovar, and serovar |
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Definition
•Biovars – chemically and physiologically different
•Morphovars – morphologically different
•Serovars – antigenic properties are different |
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Term
•Usually known as the ATCC (American Type Culture Collection) strain.
•Usually the 1st strain fully studied in experiments
•Used for quality control
•Not necessary the most representative member of the species. |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Coccià spherical à seen in clusters, chains, pairs and tetrads
Bacilli à rod shaped à see in thin or broad filaments
Spirochetes à helical
Pleomorphic à various sizes and shapes |
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Term
3 difference between G+ and G- |
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Definition
1. G+ have a thick peptidglycan layer but no outer membrane, while G- have a lipopolysaccharide/phospholipid outer membrane but thin peptidoglycan layer.
2. G+ have teichoic and lipoteichoic acid, while G- have periplasm and periplasmic space
3. G+ stain purple, while G- stain pink
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Term
___ of lipopolysaccharide is used for serological-typing of strains |
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Definition
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Term
Describe the 4 types of stains used for gram staining. |
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Definition
Primary stain àCrystal violet
Mordant à Iodine
Decolorizerà Alcohol
Counter stain àSafarin |
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Term
Describe 3 properties acid-fast bacteria |
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Definition
1. Has G+ cell wall structure
2. Has glycolipids and mycolic acid
3. Stains best with acid-fast stains |
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Term
T/F: You cannot stain mycoplasma and mycobacterium. |
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Definition
False: you can stain mycobacterium with acid-fast stains, but not mycoplasma |
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Term
T/F: Gram stain always gives defintive results for definitive therapy |
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Definition
False: you can't stain mycoplasma due to lack of cell wall |
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Term
Give example of 7 atypicals/intracellular organisms |
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Definition
Mycoplasma
Mycobacterium
Rickettsia
Legionella
Bruscella
Fransicella
Chlamydia |
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Term
The 2 types of acid fast stains are: |
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Definition
Carbolfuchsin stains
Fluorescent stain |
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Term
what is the gold standard of bacteria identification? |
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Definition
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Term
Sexual reproduction in Bacteria occurs when uptake of ___ |
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Definition
exogenous DNA
-
-Occurs via horizontal gene transfer
-Increases diversity
-Changes existing gene |
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Term
What is a planktonic bacteria? |
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Definition
Bacteria not found in a biofilm. It single floating and grows own its owm. |
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Term
Are most infections caused by biofilms or planktonic bacteria |
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Definition
Biofilms - harder to treat |
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Term
4 ways biofilms become more resistant to drugs? |
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Definition
1. They produce slime that reduces the penetration of drug into the biofilm to reach the bacteria.
2. The slime reduces nutrients to some bacteria, putting them in stationary phase, making them hard to target.
3. Biofilm increases adaptation mechanism of the bacteria.
4. They also have pumps that pump out drug, reducing concentration. |
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Term
Place in order of highest to lowest microbiota density: genitals and armpit, head, stomach, colon, stomach, skin, mouth, intestine, eyes, lungs |
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Definition
colon > mouth > genitals and armpit > intestine > head hair >stomach > skin > eye > lungs |
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Term
What are the top 2 bacteria in nose and mouth? |
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Definition
staphylococci (coagulase-negative) and ViridansStreptoccoci |
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Term
What are the top 2 bacteria in small intestine? |
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Definition
lactobacillus and bacteroides |
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Term
What are the top 2 bacteria in skin |
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Definition
staphylococci (coagulase-negative) and Diptheroids (+ propionibacterium acnes) |
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Term
staphylococcus (coagulase-negative) and Diptheroids are top two bacteria found in the: |
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Definition
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Term
___ is thought to be the main inhabitant in the stomach à causes gastric ulcers and heart burn |
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Definition
H. Pylori - microaerophilic |
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Term
Which are normally sterile sites as far as we know:
Jejunum
Stomach
Respiratory tract
Large intestine
Eyes
Duodenum |
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Definition
Duodenum and lungs are considered sterile, normally |
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Term
The most prevalent bacteria in the female genital tract is ___ |
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Definition
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Term
-Found in mucosal surfaces portal of entry into tissues and blood |
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Definition
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Term
what is the difference between anaerobes and aerobes? |
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Definition
anaerobes lack important enzyme needed for detoxifying pathway against oxygen radicals, while aerobes have this enzyme. |
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Term
explain the 2 phases of anaerobic bacteria exposure to oxygen |
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Definition
Phase 1: brief exposure to oxygen
•Bacteriostatic effect seen
•Loss of energy, which is used to reduce O2, causes slow or loss of growth
•Phase 1 maybe reversible if brief
Phase 2 : long term exposure
Bactricidal effects seen
•Lethal and irreversible
•There is no protective enzyme to prevent the effects of oxygen radicals à hydroxyl radicals, superoxide anions, and hydrogen peroxide.
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Term
What is an exogenous anaerobe? Give one example. |
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Definition
Anaerobes that live outside of animals & humans, but prefer soil, sediments of fresh and sea water.
Ex. Clostridium is found in soil as endospores |
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Term
Anaerobes are most likely to be found in all except:
A. Oral cavity
B. GI tract
C. peritoneal cavity
D. Genitourinary tract |
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Definition
C.
Remember: Heavily colonized mucosal surfaces can be portals of entry into tissues, blood stream, & usually sterile body sites |
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Term
Susceptibility testing have historically tested for anaerobes and aerobes. |
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Definition
False: susceptibility testing primarily focuses on aerobes |
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Term
Anaerobes are common seen in these infections: |
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Definition
•Brain abscess
•Endocarditis
•Infection of prosthetic device or vascular graft
•Joint infections
•Osteomyelitis
•Refractory or recurrent bacteremia |
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Term
Why culture for microbiota? |
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Definition
-Access and quantify normal microbiome.
-Isolate and identify pathogenic bacteria.
-Determine the cause of infection
-Test for resistance and susceptibility |
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Term
How long does it take to manually:
a) grow a culture?
b) biochemically ID each colony?
c) Get sensitivity testing for each colony? |
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Definition
a) 24 hrs
b) 24 hrs (6hrs if by machine)
c) 24 hrs (6hrs if by machine) |
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Term
What is the difference between presumptive and definitive identification of microbes? |
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Definition
•Presumptive ID tries to identify susceptibility by based on physical and behavioral characteristics (ex. Morphology or hemolysis of blood cells); this saves money rather than using a lot of antibiotics testing against the bug.
•Definitive testing involves biochemical analysis àfully testing the bug against antibiotics |
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Term
Types of specimen for culture |
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Definition
-Blood
-Body fluids à CSF, urine, peritoneal fluid, pleural fluid, pericardial fluid, dialysates etc
GI specimentsà stool, rectal swab, gastric aspirates |
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Term
Used for diagnosis of group A streptococcus |
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Definition
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Term
Colony count all specimen during diagnosis of ____ |
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Definition
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Term
international body that meets to decide standard treatment. |
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Definition
Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) |
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Term
Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) categorize drugs based on ___ |
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Definition
Breakpoint - S, I, R interpretations |
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Term
Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) factors for picking a drug as the standard for treatment is based on these 3 factors: |
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Definition
-Least toxic
-Most cost-effective
-Most clinically appropriate |
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Term
T/F: Direct susceptibility testing should not be done on body fluids. Explain answer. |
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Definition
True: body fluids have proteins which affects susceptibility testing...using American Type Culture Collection (ATCC) strains |
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Term
What is the difference between susceptible, imtermediate and resistant intepretations. |
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Definition
MIC – minimum inhibitory concentration
•Susceptible: if drug concentration > MIC at site of infection
•Intermediate: MIC > or = concentration of drug
•Resistant: drug concentration < MIC |
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Term
Which of the two is a qualitative method:
Kirby-bauer (disk diffusion method)
or
Dilution test method |
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Definition
Kirby-bauer (disk diffusion method) - qualitiative (mm) --> does not measure MIC
Dilution test method - quantitative |
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Term
WHat is the incubation parameters for kirby-bauer test |
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Definition
35 degrees celcius temperature
Ambient air
for 16-18 hours
measure zone of inhibition |
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Term
T/F: in kirby-bauer, two bacteria with the same susceptibility to a particular antibiotics, the slower replication rate will have the smaller zone of inhibition. |
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Definition
False.
Faster replication (virulent)= smaller zone of inhibition
Slower replication (not virulent) = larger zone of inhibiton |
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Term
what is the difference between irby-Bauer vs. MIC method? |
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Definition
- In KB, the bigger/wider the diffusion the more sensitivity the bug is to the drug; in MIC, the smaller the growth in the broth the more sensitive the bug is. [Inversely related]
- KB is qualitative, while MIC method is quantitative
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Term
define Minimal bactericidal concentration
(MBC) |
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Definition
is lowest concentration of antibiotic that kills 99.9% of bacteria.
MBC is also a quantitative test like MIC |
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Term
How do you judge an MIC and MBC test? |
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Definition
MIC: 1st tube with absence of
turbidity
¤Quantitative test
MBC: 1st agar plate with absence of growth
¤Quantitative test |
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Term
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Definition
MBC (plate) is more accurate than MIC (broth), though both are quantitative |
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Term
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Definition
E test: quantitative test that measures antimicrobial density gradiant in a Kirby-Bauer agar plate. Agar is IMPregnated with antimicrobial concentration gradient
•Is quantitative
•Has a diffusion coeffient in ellipse shape
•Used against fastidious organisms and anaerobes |
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Term
Which is used against fastidious organisms and anaerobes :
MIC
MBC
E-test |
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Definition
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|
Term
Name the 5 oral penicillins. |
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Definition
1. Pen V
2. Dicloxacillin
3. Cloxacillin
4. Ampicilli
5. AMoxicillin |
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Term
Name the anti-staphylococcal penicillins |
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Definition
also known as beta-lactamase resistant penicillins: Methicillin, Nafcilliin, Dicloxacillin, Cloxacillin, Oxacillin |
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Term
What is a pharmacobooster? Give examples. |
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Definition
they help improve the pharmacokinetics of the drug ex. penicillinase/b-lactamase inhibitors. |
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Term
Bacteria cell wall is made of 2 repeating glycans molecules called __and ___ |
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Definition
N-acetylglucosamine and N-Acetylmuramic acid (abbreviated NAG and NAM)
Note: Hanging down from the N-Acetylmuramic acid (NAM) is a 5 amino acid peptide à the bottom one is clipped off leaving only 4. the last is a D-alanin. So you have a repetition of D-alanine-D-alanine peptide.
•The NAM-NAG with the 4 hanging peptide is used to synthesize bacteria cell wall. |
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|
Term
Describe the crosslinkage/transpeptidation step seen in bacterial cell wall. |
|
Definition
-a 5 GLYCINE residue chain linkage with neighboring peptidoglycan, a crosslink is formed.
-GLYCOPEPTIDE TRANSPEPTIDASE aka Penicillin-binding Proteins: is the enzyme that facilitates the crosslinkage of the 5 glycine residues.
-Peptidoglycan is the repeating NAG-NAM residues – is larger in gram (+) s and thinner in gram (-) |
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|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of penicillins and other beta lactams? |
|
Definition
•GlycopeptideTranspeptidase (aka PBP) are blocked by penicillins, blocking the transpeptidation step (the last step of cell wall synthesis).
•Penicillin structure resembles the D-alanyl-D-alanine, which means that glycopeptidetranspeptidase often confuses the penicillin drug for D-ala-D-ala and reacts with the drug.
•The “ring” is opened and a suicide inhibition of the enzyme occurs when a covalent bond is formed with a nearby serine residue in the active site of the glycopeptidetranspeptidase.
•Permanent inhibition à“suicide inhibition” occurs
•The inactivated glycopeptidetranspeptidase can no longer repair damage cell wall or make new ones.
•Cell wall leakage occurs and the bacteria cant maintain ion gradient à generation of hydroxyl ion and superoxide ions. |
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Term
Where are pumps and porins found in bacterial structure? |
|
Definition
Porins = outer membrane
Pumps = inner membrane |
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|
Term
What is the spectrum of activity of natural penicillins? |
|
Definition
Aerobic and anaerobic G+ (not C. diff) and spirochetes (syphilis) |
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|
Term
What are depot forms of penicillin? |
|
Definition
–Procaine penicillin G and benzathine penicillin G may be injected in a “time-release” or repository IM formulation – slow, sustained absorption leads to an extended plasma level time course |
|
|
Term
Active excretion of penicillin can be blocked by use of ___ to extend half-life. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Penicillins are eliminated via ___, so reduce dose excepts for ___ types |
|
Definition
Kidney elimination;
except for antistaph/penicillinase-resistant penicillins |
|
|
Term
What is the spectrum of aminopenicillins? |
|
Definition
Aerobic and anaerobic G+ and G-, inlcuding H. influenza, E.coli, proteus and spirochetes |
|
|
Term
Give examples of anti-pseudomonal penicillins. |
|
Definition
aka Extended-spectrum Penicillins:
carbenicillin, ticarcillin, mezlocillin and piperacillin |
|
|
Term
T/F: only type 1 hypersensitivity is seen in penicillins. |
|
Definition
False: type I to IV is seen |
|
|
Term
What is the most common type of drug allergy seen in penicillins? |
|
Definition
Hypersensitivity: rash > feber > bronchospasm |
|
|
Term
Explain how a penicillin can cause hypersensitivity reaction. |
|
Definition
Penicillins act as haptens after covalent reaction with proteins, inducing immune response |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
When Pen G is given as Na+ or K+ salt, can lead to hypernatremia or hyperkalemia. |
|
|
Term
Cephalosporin that is administered once a day for convenience. |
|
Definition
Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) - longest half-life |
|
|
Term
What is the spectrum of activity of second gen cephs? |
|
Definition
True cephs: good aerobic G+ acitive, some G-
cephamycins: best for anaerobic G- |
|
|
Term
What is the spectrum of activity of 3rd gen cephs? |
|
Definition
strong aerobic G- and moderate aerobic G+ activity
Ceftriaxone & Cefotaxime for streptococcus (s. pneumo)
Ceftazidine for pseudomonas
Ceftizoxime for anaerobes |
|
|
Term
What is the spectrum of activity of 4th gen cephs? |
|
Definition
Cefepime is strong on pseudomonas, aerobic G - and G+ |
|
|
Term
Which cephalosporin is good for MRSA? |
|
Definition
5th gen - Ceftaroline (Teflaro) |
|
|
Term
3 Unique Properties of Ceftriaxone (Rocephin): |
|
Definition
Chelates with calcium IV.
-Has the longest half-life, so administered once a day for convenient
-Penetrates CNS (along with Cefotaxime and Cefepime) |
|
|
Term
3rd gen ceph that is modified and can be used for pseudomonas |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3
cephalosporins that can penetrate CNS |
|
Definition
Cefotriaxone (Rocephin)
Cefotaxime (Claforan)
Cefepime (Maxipime)
|
|
|
Term
Rapidly inducible b-lactamase is a form of resistance against 3rd gen cephs. Give examples of organisms with such ability |
|
Definition
CephalosporinsMay Prove Sub-Efficacious
-Citrobacter
-Morganella
-Providencia
-Serratia
-Enterobacter |
|
|
Term
3rd gen cephalosporin that targets G+ and G- anaerobes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Though all cephs are renally excreted, only 2 need dose adjustment, which? |
|
Definition
Ceftizoxime (Ceftizox) and Ceftazidine (tazicef) |
|
|
Term
high doses of ___may create congestion in the biliary tract (long half-life) – use care in neonates due to immature hepatic/biliary function |
|
Definition
ceftriaxone = biliary sludging |
|
|
Term
3 common ADR of cephalosporins |
|
Definition
1. hypersensitivity
2. Nephrotoxicity
3. Diarrhea/ GI upset
Drugs with MTT (1-methyl-5-thiotetrazole) like the cephamycins, cause alcohol intolerance and descreased prothrombin ( increase prothrombin time in coag) |
|
|
Term
1.What factors affects drug that is used? |
|
Definition
•Identity and susceptibility of the bacteria
•Patients immune status – especially for bacteriostatic drugs
•Site of infection
•Allergy |
|
|
Term
•What 3 factors make pseudomonas very hard to treat?
|
|
Definition
•Porins in outer membrane (seen in gram negatives)
•Efflux pumps – pumps drug out of cell
•Beta lactamases |
|
|
Term
•What 2 penicillins are active against pseudomonas
|
|
Definition
•Zosyn (Pip-tazo)
•Unasyn (Ampi-sulbac) |
|
|
Term
WHat is the spectrum of activity of aztreonam? |
|
Definition
Only G- activity, good for pseudomonas, Neisseria, haemophilus andd enterobacter |
|
|
Term
what is the preferred route of admin for aztreonam? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the preferred route of admin for carbepenems? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
WHy does imipenem combined with Cilastatin? |
|
Definition
Imipenem/Cilastatin (Primaxin) - cilastatin is needed to inhibit dehydropeptidase (kidney enzyme) from degrading imipenem |
|
|
Term
This is the only carbepenem without pseudomonal activity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Ertapenem - has the highest half life |
|
|
Term
WHat is the spectrum of activity of carbepenems? |
|
Definition
aerobic and anaerobi G+ and G- , pseudomonas (except ertapenem) |
|
|
Term
The only renal-sparing beta lactam is ___, which can be given even if renal disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3 common ADR of carbepenems |
|
Definition
ADR: are mostly due to CNS
-Most common = N/V/D – due to CNS effects?
-Headaches – CNS
-Seizures – Meropenem and Doripenem are less likely to cause seizures
-Cross-reactivity with other B-lactams. |
|
|
Term
What are 3 beta lactamase inhibitors? |
|
Definition
Pharmacoboosters - Clavulanic acid, sulbactam, and tazobactam. |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of glycopeptides? |
|
Definition
-Binds to the D-ala-D-ala residues (4th and 5th residues on NAM unit) and inhibits TRANSGLYCOSLASE, which is needed for the addition of new NAG-NAM peptide units and form a polymer of peptidoglycans; ultimately, the new NAG-NAM peptides are prevented from binding to the existing peptidoglycan framework (Polymerization).
Glycopeptide prevents polymerization (remember, beta lactams prevents transpeptidation or crosslinking via inhibition of glycopeptidetranspeptidase |
|
|
Term
What is the secondaray MOA of telavancin? |
|
Definition
disruption of bacterial cell membrane |
|
|
Term
WHat is the spectrum of glycopeptides? |
|
Definition
aerobic and anaerobic G+; HA and CA-MRSA, staph epidermidis (MRSE, strep |
|
|
Term
What are common ADR of glycopeptides? |
|
Definition
Redman syndrome - IV vancomycin
Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
QT prolongation: Telavancin > vancomycin |
|
|
Term
-Why use antisense strand of DNA to make copy of mRNA? |
|
Definition
Because when the antisense is copied, its complementary strand is a “sense” copy. The antisense goes in a 3’-5’ direction and transcribed to mRNA in a 5’-3’ direction. |
|
|
Term
Why does protein synthesis inhibitor antibiotics not target human cells? |
|
Definition
ukaryotes (humans) have a 40s and a 60s subunits, which form an 80s structure, while bacteria has a 30S and 50S ribosomes. Also, their translation occurs much later after transcription than is seen in bacteria cells, since in eukaryotes, DNA has to be transported out of nucleus, but bacteria does not have a nucleus. |
|
|
Term
What are the 3 sites on a ribosome that help with protein synthesis? |
|
Definition
-A site: binds the incoming tRNA (rxts with amino acid and bring them back to A site) with its amino acid.
-P site – holds the growing peptide together from the A site (peptide bond is formed)
-E site – ejection site that takes the empty tRNA |
|
|
Term
A ribozyme that catalyzes the formation of new peptide bond to elongate the polypeptide |
|
Definition
Peptidyl transferase - a catalytic RNA |
|
|
Term
What are the activities of the 30S and 50S ribosome? |
|
Definition
-30S àInvolved in recognition of genetic code and amino acids, and then binding affinity to them.
-50S à catalytic activity (peptide bond formation)
-The catalytic activity is done by catalytic RNA ( a ribozyme) |
|
|
Term
Name the 3 30S protein inhibitors |
|
Definition
•Aminoglycosides – bactericidal effect
•Tetracyclines – bacteriostatic effect
•Glycylcyclines – bacteriostatic effect |
|
|
Term
What is the prefered route of admin for aminoglycosides? |
|
Definition
Parenteral
Nebulizers - tobramycin
Topical - neomycin
Ophthalamic - gentamicin |
|
|
Term
What is a post-antibiotics effect? Which classes of antibiotics has this property? |
|
Definition
residual antibiotic activity persisting after serum concentration of aminoglycoside has fallen below MIC |
|
|
Term
Why are anaerobes naturally/inherently resistant to aminoglycosides? |
|
Definition
Aminoglcysides need O2 in order to be transported into bacteria cell, so in anaerobic environment, they become inactive. |
|
|
Term
Transport (EDP1) of aminoglycosides into cell is inhibited by these 5 factors: |
|
Definition
1. low oxygen (anerobes are resistant)
2. low pH
3. high Ca2+
4. high Mg2+
5. High osmolarity |
|
|
Term
The only aminoglycoside given orally is ___ |
|
Definition
Neomycin - for GI cleansing |
|
|
Term
3 common ADR of aminoglycosides |
|
Definition
1. Nephrotoxicity
2. Ototoxicity
3. Neuromuscular paralysis
Hypersensitivity (rare) |
|
|
Term
-Best tetracycline for CNS infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
-Best tetracycline for parenteral use? Doxycycline |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All tetracycline are oral except |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Tetracycline with the highest half-life, permitting less doses per day |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of tetracyclines? |
|
Definition
-TetrAcyclines binds the A site in 30S subunit and prevents incoming aa-tRNA |
|
|
Term
What is the spectrum of tetacyclines? |
|
Definition
Aerobic and anaerobic G+ and G- , and Atypicals
Rickettsia(e.g., Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever, typhus, Q fever)
•Mycoplasmapneumoniae (common cause of pneumonia in young adults and persons in close confines)
•Some Chlamydia organisms
•Spirochetes - Borreliaburgdorferi (Lyme disease) and Treponemapallidum (syphilis)
•Vibriocholerae(cholera) and Bacillus anthracis (anthrax)
•Mycobacterium leprae (leprosy) |
|
|
Term
Cholesterol/fat binding
substances (cholestyramine or
colestipol) will bind ____in the
gut and prevent absorption |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How can tetracycline lead to overgrowth of resistant organism in gut? |
|
Definition
many tetracyclines are incompletely absorbed and also undergo enterohepatic cycling, their concentration in the gut remains high and kills normal microbiome, causing overgrowth of resistant organisms ex. C.diff |
|
|
Term
Tetracyclines tend to accumulate in ___ and ___ |
|
Definition
•Reticuloendothelial cells of liver, spleen, and bone marrow
•Tissues undergoing calcification - bone & enamel of teeth |
|
|
Term
What is the preferred route of excretion for tetracyclines? |
|
Definition
–Most tetracyclines also undergo biliary excretion with partial reabsorption (enterohepatic cycling) |
|
|
Term
2 Tetracyclines for patients with renal compromise |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4 Some common tetracycline ADR. |
|
Definition
1. Heptatic and renal toxicity
2. GI discomfort - diarrhea/vomitting due to C. diff overgrowth
3. Photosensitivity
4. Teeth discolorization
Outdated TC - Fanconi syndrome - nephrotoxic --> N/V, polyuria
|
|
|
Term
5 difference between Tigecycline (Glycylcycline) and Tetracycline |
|
Definition
-Glycylcycline vs. Tetracycline:
-GCC has a glycylamido moiety at the 9-position that helps it to avoids all the mechanisms of resistance that plagues TC.
-Tigecycline interacts with warfarin (increased bleeding, while TC doesn’t.
-TCs are preferred for CA-MRSA, while Tigecycline is preferred for HA-MRSA and last line for CA-MRSA
-Tigecycline has activity against refractory C.difficile, but TC does not.
-Tigecycline has a longer t.5 life than TC |
|
|
Term
What is the route of admin for tigecycline? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Excretion route of tigecycline? |
|
Definition
Bile (like tetracyclines) |
|
|
Term
WHat is the spectrum of macrolides? |
|
Definition
Best for G+ and ok for some G-, good for atypicals
Azithromycin is opposite: best for G- and weak against G+ |
|
|
Term
What is the preferred route of admin for macrolides? |
|
Definition
Oral
Azithromycin is oral and IV |
|
|
Term
This macrolide has an sustained-release that is given once per day. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The only Macrolide without significant CYP3A4 inhibition is |
|
Definition
Azithromycin - least drug interactions |
|
|
Term
what is the preferred route of excretion for each macrolide? |
|
Definition
Erythro - Hepatic
Clarithro - Renal and Hepatic
Azithro - Hepatic as bile |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. Metallic taste
2. Ototoxicity
3. Cholestatic jaundice
4. QT prolongation |
|
|
Term
Metallic taste and cholestatic jaundice is an ADR of ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of ketolide? |
|
Definition
-binding to two separate areas of the 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibits protein synthesis
-Binding to 2 site = increase binding affinity = less resistance from bacteria than macrolide. |
|
|
Term
WHat is the spectrum of activity of ketolide? |
|
Definition
G+ and community-acquired G- respiratory pathogens, and atypicals
•Ketolide was developed especially for treatment of community-acquired respiratory infections caused by common and atypical pathogens. |
|
|
Term
What is the preferred route of admin for ketolide |
|
Definition
Telithromycin is best for oral |
|
|
Term
6 common symptoms of ketolide |
|
Definition
-N/V/D
-Visual disturbances
-Syncope
-Liver toxicity
-Cardiac issues – QT prolongation
- CYP 450 drug interaction |
|
|
Term
WHat is the MOA of lincosamide? |
|
Definition
Clindamycin - same as Macrolides |
|
|
Term
T/F: Macrolide has cross-resistance with ketolide and lincosamide |
|
Definition
False: cross-resistance only with lincosamide due to having the same MOA/binding site
Remember: telithromycin binds at two sites on thr 50S and has no cross-resistance with macrolides, even though it is derived from erythromycin and share a similar structure. |
|
|
Term
WHat is the spectrum of lincosamide? |
|
Definition
aerobic G+; anerobic G+ and G-, and CA-MRSA, parasitic protozoan, commonly used for acne |
|
|
Term
Preferred route of admin for lincosamide |
|
Definition
CLINDAMYCIN is oral or IV
Clindamycin palmitate is a prodrug for oral
phosphate ester form is given parenterally |
|
|
Term
Preferred route of admin for clindamycin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4 common ADR of lincosamides |
|
Definition
1. Diarrhea
2,. Pseudomembranous colitis - overgrowth of C. diff
3. Local thrombophlebitis (IV admin)
4. Skin rashes |
|
|
Term
Describe the 2 streptogramins and their ratio combinations. What is their brand name? |
|
Definition
Dalfopristin (streptogramin A): Quinuprisitin (streptogramin B)
in a 70: 30 ratio
Brand name is SYnercid |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of streptomigrins> |
|
Definition
Dalfopristins (Streptogramin A) binds to the 50S and causes a positive allosteric effect that increases the binding affinity of quinupristin (streptogramin B)
Quinupristin (streptogramin B) binds to the 50S and inhibit peptide chain elongation and causes chain termination. |
|
|
Term
What is the spectrum of streptogramins? |
|
Definition
G+s but not G-, some atypicals, VRE (faecium), HA-MRSA, penicillin-resistant S. pneumonia |
|
|
Term
Preferred route of admin for streptogramins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Route of elimination for streptogramins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Arthralgia and myalgia are ADR of ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the MOA of chloramphenicol? |
|
Definition
-Reversibly binds to 50S subunit and blocks the binding of amino acid end of tRNA to the ribosome.
-Peptidyltransferaserxn cannot occur – no peptide bond formation (1st drug to do this so far!)
-Secondary MOA: inhibits protein synthesis of mitochondrial ribosomes (to a lesser extent). In humans, they are 70S like the bacterial ribosomes. Might be the cause of toxicity with chloramphenicol. |
|
|
Term
Spectrum of activity of chloramphenicol |
|
Definition
Aerobic and anaerobic G+ and G-; atypicals, bacterial meningitis |
|
|
Term
route of admin of chloramphenicol |
|
Definition
Parenterally as a prodrug - crosses CNS |
|
|
Term
Route of excretion by chloramphenicol |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4 common ADRs of chloramphenicol are |
|
Definition
1. bone marrow suppression (anemia/leuokopenia/thrombocytopenia)
2. Aplastic anemia
3. Gray Baby syndrome
4. Tissues with high O2 demand |
|
|
Term
Gray Baby syndrome and Tissues with high O2 demand are ADRs of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of oxazolidinone? |
|
Definition
Linezolid - -inhibits the formation of 70S fMet-tRNA initiation complex – prevent start of translation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
G+ only, including enterococcus, HA-MRSA, PRSP, VRE |
|
|
Term
What is the preferred route of admin of linezolid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Route of excretion for linezolid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4 Severe ADR of linezolid |
|
Definition
1. Myelosuppression (same as chloramphenicol)
2. Pseudomembranous colitis (same as clindamycin)
3. Peripheral or optic neuropathy
4. Serotonin syndrome
Tyramine rxn - avoid food/drink with tyramine |
|
|
Term
This drug causes serotonin syndrome |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Give the 2 cell membrane inhibitors |
|
Definition
Lipopeptides (daptomycin) and Polymixins (Polymixin B and polymixin E/Colistin) |
|
|
Term
What is the brand name of daptomycin? Which class is it? |
|
Definition
Daptomycin (Cubicin) is a lipopeptide |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of lipopeptide? |
|
Definition
uses Ca3+ ions to bind to inner membrane and then inserts into the cytoplasmic membrane, causing ions to leak. |
|
|
Term
What is the spectrum of daptomycin (cubicin) |
|
Definition
aerobic G+ only, enterococcus, VRE, MRSA, VRSA |
|
|
Term
WHat is a resistant mechanism to daptomycin |
|
Definition
There is no known resistance to Cubicin |
|
|
Term
Why isnt cubicin recommended for respiratory infections |
|
Definition
It binds to lung surfactants and is inactivated |
|
|
Term
preferred route of admin for cubicin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a major ADR of daptomycin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Give examples of polymixins |
|
Definition
Polymixin B and Colistin (polymixin E) |
|
|
Term
The ____are surface-active, amphipathic agents |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of polymixins? |
|
Definition
insert themselves into cell membrane and acts as cationic detergents to weaken the membrane. |
|
|
Term
what is the moa of polymixins? |
|
Definition
G - mostly, pseudomonas (as salvage therapy) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Neurotoxicity
Nephrotoxicity
Bronchospasm - if colistin is inhaled |
|
|
Term
Quinolones derived from___, a by-product of chloroquine synthesis for malaria |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
WHat is the MOA of fluoroquinolones? |
|
Definition
-Inhibition of DNA gyrase (type 2 topoisomerase) – an enzyme that causes negative supercoils and relaxes DNA for it to be copied and transcribed. Affects most G-
-Inhibition of Topoisomerase IV – separates combined daughter cells into individual cells and reseals the nicks.
Quinolones prevents the resealing of DNA breaks – DNA replication and transcription are affected. Affects most G+. |
|
|
Term
spectrum of activity of fluoroquinolones |
|
Definition
Strong against G- and some G+, pseudomonas (Cipro, Levo, Oflox), and enterobacter, and atypicals.
Levo, MOxi, Gemi for respiratory strep,
Moxi for anaerobic G+ and G- |
|
|
Term
Cipro has a ___side chain at R7 that enhances entry into Gram negs, but weakens it against Gram pos; Cipro has a reputation for weakness against aerobic Gram pos, especially Streptococcus pneumoniae. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
piperazine side chain is seen mostly in 3 types of agents |
|
Definition
Piperacillin
Ciprofloxacin
Rifampin |
|
|
Term
non-cationic phosphate binders used in renal failure patients should be avoid with ___ |
|
Definition
Fluoroquinolones
Remember: avoid cholesterol-binders from tetracycline |
|
|
Term
what is the preferred route of admin for flouroquinolones? |
|
Definition
All oral or parenteral except for Gemifloxacin (oral only) |
|
|
Term
route of excretion for fluoroquinolones? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
While most FQs are both oral or parenteral, which two are oral only? |
|
Definition
GO - Gemifloxacin and Ofloxacin |
|
|
Term
Major ADR of fluoroquinolones |
|
Definition
Photosensitivity
Tendonitis
QT prolongation
CYP450 inhibition |
|
|
Term
WHat is the MOA of nitrufurans? |
|
Definition
-reduces NO2 group to reactive agent that inhibits bacterial enzyme and damages their DNA -NADPH is needed for NO2 reduction
-The reduction occur faster in bacterial cells than in human cells
-Greater activity in acidic pH (such as found in urine – why it’s used for UTI) |
|
|
Term
Main ADR of nitrofurantoin (macrobid) |
|
Definition
Hemolytic anemia
Acute pneumonitis
Interstitial pulmonary fibrosis
Do not give in elderly due to risk of renal dysfunction and pulmonary ADR. |
|
|
Term
Do not give this agent to elderly due to risk of renal dysfunction and pulmonary ADR. |
|
Definition
Macrobid (Nitrofurantoin) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Inhibits Fe-S (ferrodoxin) proteins that help to reduce NO2 preventing reactive species that attack anaerobes and parasites. |
|
|
Term
This agent involves drug recycling of parent drug |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Most common ADRs of metronidazole |
|
Definition
1. Neurotoxicity
2. Disulfiram-like effect (as seen in cephamycins due to MTT)
3. Carcinogenic & Teratogenic
4. Steven-Johnson syndrome
•Most Common:
–Headache, dry mouth, furry tongue or unpleasant, metallic taste with oral drug therapy |
|
|
Term
This agent causes Neurotoxicity, Carcinogenic & Teratogenic, and Steven-Johnson syndrome |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Referred to as accessory antibiotics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-Inhibits RNA polymerase and inhibits the transcription of DNA to mRNA.
-Binds the beta subunit of the enzyme and prevents the initiation of RNA synthesis
-Can affect host’s mitochondrial RNA in high doses |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
G+ and G-, pseudomonas, atypicals including tuberculosis |
|
|
Term
___ increasees the in vitro activity of other tuberculosis agents like isoniazid and streptomycin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
best cephamycin for parenteral use |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Best rifamycin with good oral absorption |
|
Definition
Rifampin, Rifabutine and Rifapentine |
|
|
Term
route of admin for rifamycins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Rifamycin for local actions only on GI tract and is used Traveler's Diarrhea and some C. diff therapy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Long-acting rifamycin with longest half-life |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Rifamycin that is least likely to cause P450 induction and drug interactions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
route of excretion for rifamycins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Patients should expect a red-orange color to urine, feces, saliva, sputum, tears and sweat. Contact lenses will also be stained |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
–Some hepatitis and an occasional death (liver failure)
•Incidence rises greatly with old age, alcohol intake and chronic liver disease
•Rarely seen in patients with normal hepatic function |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1) polymyalgia (pain in several muscle groups)
2) pseudojaundice (skin discoloration due to blood constituents, not true hepatic disease)
3) anterior uveitis (inflammation of the uvea; the second or vascular coat of the eye, |
|
Definition
ADR of rifabutin (though it does not induce CYP3A4, 2C9, 2C19 and 1A2 |
|
|
Term
1st chemotherapeutic agents used as antibiotics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim |
|
|
Term
Sulfonamide used in leprosy |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Decreases folic acid synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme dihydropteroate synthase, which incorporate para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) into dihydropteroic acid, a folic acid precursor.
No folate = no cell division |
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Term
___ are resistant to sulfonamides because they make get their own folate from environment, unlike other bacteria |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Broad G+ and G-, salmonella, E. coli and shigella, UTI |
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Term
Which sulfonamides are used for:
1. treatment of burns
2. opthalmic infections
3. leprosy
4. cleanse GI |
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Definition
1. Silver sulfadiazine
2. sulfacetamide
3. Dapsone
4. Sulfasalazine |
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Term
Kidney crystal formation occur with |
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Definition
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Term
route of excretion for sulfonamides |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Hemolytic anemia
Anorexia, nausea and vomiting
Hypersensitivity - rashes
Agranulocytosis or aplastic anemia
Crystalluria
Steven-Johnson |
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Term
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Definition
-inhibits dihydrofolatereductase which convers dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate. |
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Term
what is the combination of sulfamethoxazole to trimethoprim to form bactrim? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
spectrum of activity of bactrim |
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Definition
UTI, otitis media and respiratory infx (H. influenza and S. pneumoniae), GI infection (salmonella and shigella), CA-MRSA, pneumocystic jirovecii in AIDs |
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Term
Megaloblastic anemia and jaundice is ADR of __ |
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Definition
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Term
Example of a macrocyclic agent |
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Definition
Fidaxomicin (Dificid) - -It is not a pure substance, but a mixture of different isomers |
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Term
What is the MOA of macrocyclics? |
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Definition
Fidaxomicin - same as Rifamycins --> inhibits transcription of DNA to mRNA by inhibiting RNA polymerase. |
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Term
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Definition
organisms that co-exist with the host and may even be beneficial
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Term
what is the difference between invasion and colonization? |
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Definition
Colonization is achieved when an organism is established on a body surface and it requires attachment to host cell and reproducing.
Invasion requires penetration of physiologic barriers and other host defenses
b. Intracellular organisms must also penetrate into cells
Spread occurs via direct extension through tissues or along tissue planes, through the vasculature and lymphatic systems, and through other mechanisms |
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Term
Normal flora secrete ____ that inhibit growth of
other organisms |
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Definition
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Term
cell-mediated adaptive system, such as T lymphocytes, primarily targets ___ |
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Definition
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Term
Two types of adaptive immune system |
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Definition
Cell-mediated ex. T lymplocytes and antigen-presenting cells (dendritic cells)
Humoral ex antibodies and complement system |
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Term
what is virulence and virulence factors? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
1. Defensive - attachment/adherence, recognition, proliferation
2. Offensive - dissemination/spreading, toxins, tissue damage
3. Multifunctional - both offensive and defensive
4. Robustness of the organism
5. multidimensional - works under certain conditions ex. beta lactamase |
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Term
T/f: lipopolysaccharide is a defensive mechanism for G- bugs. |
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Definition
False: it acts as a both an offensive (causes fever) and a defensive mechanism -- multifactorial |
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Term
difference between exotoxins and endotoxins |
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Definition
exotoxins have to be INJECTED to causes symptoms of infection ex. tetanus, botulinum, diptheria, anthrax
Endotoxins have to be RELEASE to cause symptoms of infection ex. lipopolysaccharide |
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Term
Most common bacterial infection is |
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Definition
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Term
How does urine have protect peri-urethral area from infection |
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Definition
Urine acts as a bacteriostatic antibacterial agent
It uses anti-adherence substances, like Tamm-Horsfall mannoproteins, which acts as a binding decoy |
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Term
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Definition
1. Urine - bacteriostatic and has mannose proteins that act as binding decoys
2. Urethra - has umbrella cells that act as physical barriers and produce mucus
3. Normal flora - lactobacilli prevents overgrowth |
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Term
The degree of ___ correlates with the virulence and severity of UTIs. |
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Definition
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Term
Another name for lower and upper UTI |
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Definition
Lower UTI = cystitis (uncomplicated or complicated)
Upper UTI = pyelonephritis (complicated) |
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Term
UTI is always classified as complicated if: |
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Definition
6. Immunosuppressed - diabetic or on drugs |
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Term
Give and explain the most common organisms that cause UTI |
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Definition
1. E.coli - most common cause (90% of UTI)
2. Staph saprophyticus (a coagulase negative) - most common in young women
3. Other G-
4. Enterococcus |
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Term
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Definition
1. gender
2. location
3. Ease of treatment
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Term
difference between lower and upper UTI |
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Definition
Lower UTI - infection of bladder only; There is no vaginal discharge, and fever is rare
Upper UTI - infection of bladder and Kidney; fever and chills always occur, with flank pain, costo-vertebral angle tenderness, N/V
Older patients present with altered mental status or urinary incontinence |
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Term
2 Examples of sensitive tests for UTI |
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Definition
Pyuria (Leukocyte esterase or WBC >10)
>5 RBC |
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Term
2 Examples of specific tests for UTI |
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Definition
1. Presence of nitrites (fermentative G-)
2. Presence of bacteria |
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Term
what are the 1st line agents for uncomplicated UTI? |
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Definition
Bactrim or Septra (TMP/SMZ) - 160/800mg BID for 3 days
Macrobid (Nitrofurantoin) - 100 mg BID for 5 days (avoid if CrCl <50 ml/min or G6PD deficient)
Trimethoprim - 100 mg BID for 3 days (if sulfa allergy)
Fosfomycin (Monurol) - 3 gm single dose |
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Term
secondline agents for uncomplicated UTI; duration? |
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Definition
FQs (Cipro, Levo & Oflox) - for 3 days
Or
Augmentin, Cefdinir, Cefaclor, and Cefpodoxime for 3-7days (do not use Unasyn due to resistance)
250 mg Cipro BID for 3 days or
500 mg Cipro ER daily for 3 days
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250 mgLevo daily for 3 days
200 mg Ofloxacin BID for 3 days
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Term
T/F: oral antibiotics is preferred for both inpatient and outpatient complicated UTI |
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Definition
False: oral for outpatient and IV for inpatient |
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Term
WHat is the 1st line agent for pyelonephritis? |
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Definition
Ciprofloxacin 500 g PO BID or
400 mg IV q12h for 7 days
Levofloxacin 750 mg IV/PO daily for 5 days |
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Term
Treatment for pyelonephritis |
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Definition
Ciprofloxacin*
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500 mg PO BID or
1000 mg ER PO q 24 h or
400 mg IV q 12 h x 7 days
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Levofloxacin*
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750 mg IV/PO daily x 5 days
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Trimethoprim*-sulfamethoxazole
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160/800 mg PO BID x 14 days
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Ceftriaxone
Cefotaxime
Aztreonam
Ampicillin/sulbactam
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1 gm IV daily 10-14 days
1 gm IV q 8 h
1 gm IV q 8 h
1.5-3 gm IV q 6 h
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Gentamicin
Tobramycin
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5 mg/kg IV q 24 h
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Term
Preferred antibiotics for prostatitis and duration |
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Definition
Quinolones and Bactrim
Acute = 4 weeks or more
Chronic = 6 weeks or more |
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Term
what is asymptomatic bacteruria? |
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Definition
- presence of significant bacteria (>10^5 CFU/ml) with no symptoms
It is common in elderly or longterm care facilities |
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Term
T/F: Asymptomatic bacteruria should be treated as without culture. |
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Definition
False. do not treat at all unless pregnant or undergoing invasive urologic procedure.
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Term
How to treat UTI in pregnancy |
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Definition
Sulfonamides in 1st and 2nd trimester
nitrofurantoin, cephalosporins, fosfomycin |
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Term
Drug prophylaxis for UTI is only recommended in ___ |
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Definition
patients with recurrent UTI (3 or more times per year) |
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Term
5 Factors contributing to skin infections: |
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Definition
- inoculum size
- reduced vascular supply
- skin penetration/foreign body
- immunocompromised condition
- disruption of normal lymphatic or
venous drainage
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Term
Differentiate between uncomplicated and complicated cellulitis. |
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Definition
Uncomplicated = monomicrobial ex.
1. strep pyogenes/group A strep = common in children
2. Staph aureus = common adults
Complicated = polymicrobial ex.
1. Staph aureus (CA-MRSA) - seen in IV drug users
2. Strep pyogenes - IV drug users
3. Fungus (C. albicans)
(mixed aerobes and anerobes is seen in diabetic ptns) |
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Term
Treatment duration for cellulitis |
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Definition
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Term
Empiric therapy for cellulitis |
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Definition
Empiric, nonpurulent cellulitis
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MSSA, Strep pyogenes
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Penicillinase-resistant penicillin
(alternatives - clindamycin, Bactrim (limited activity against S. pyogenes), erythromycin, C1, clindamycin
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Empiric, purulent cellulitis
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MSSA, CA-MRSA
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Mild Infections: clindamycin, Bactrim, doxycycline, minocycline, linezolid
Severe infections: linezolid, vancomycin, daptomycin, televancin
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Suspected polymicrobial infection
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Gram positives and negatives
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refer to diabetic foot infection treatment
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Term
Target therapy for cellutis for:
Strep pyogenes
MSSA
MRSA |
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Definition
Strep pyogenes = penicillins
MSSA = Penicillinase-resistant penicillins
MRSA = debridement; Bactrim, Clindamycin, Doxycycline or Minocycline if mild
Severe CA-MRSA cellulitis: Linezolid, Vancomycin, Daptomycin |
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Term
3 pathophysiologic factors involved in diabetic foot infection |
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Definition
1. neuropathic changes
a. motor
b. sensory
c. sympathetic
2. atherosclerosis
3. immunologic defects
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Term
T/F: pain is not part of the clinical presentation seen in diabetic foot infection |
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Definition
True - due to neuropathic changes |
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Term
Common bacterial isolates of diabetic foot infection:
G+ :
G- :
Obligate anaerobes:
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Definition
a. Gram positive: S. aureus, Strep. spp., Enterococcus spp.
b. Gram-negative: Proteus, Enterobacter, E. coli, Klebsiella, Pseudomonas
c. Obligate anaerobes (ischemia): Peptostreptococcus, Bacteroides fragilis
d. Pseudomonas and MRSA may be considered in select populations
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Term
Treatment duration for diabetic foot infection |
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Definition
14 days or
28 days (complicated) |
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Term
Empiric therapy for catheter-related infections in all patients include Vancomycin, Linezolid and Daptomycin |
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Definition
False: Linezolid should never be used for empiric therapy when treating CRBSI |
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Term
De-escalation: narrow therapy for CRBSI based on culture results:
- MSSA/MSSE:
- Enterococcus:
- Gram negative bacilli:
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Definition
MSSA/MSSE: nafcillin or oxacillin
Enterococcus: ampicillin or vancomycin ± aminoglycoside
Gram negative bacilli: beta lactams preferred, depends on culture and sensitivity |
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Term
Treatment duration for complicated and uncomplicated CRBSI |
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Definition
Uncomplicated CRBSI = 2 weeks
Complicated CRBSI = 6 weeks |
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