Term
(001) Who is the key individual who allocates the maintenance resources required to meet mission
requirements? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(001) The total production effort and management of group maintenance functions are the
responsibility of the
a. Wing commander.
b. Resource commander.
c. Logistics commander.
d. Maintenance commander. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(001) Who monitors new requirements for training, equipment authorizations, special tools, work
space, facilities, and manning?
a. wing commander.
b. group commander.
c. maintenance officer.
d. maintenance operations center. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(001) Which of the following individuals manages the squadron’s cannibalization program?
a. Section chief.
b. Squadron commander.
c. Flight commander/chief.
d. Maintenance officer/maintenance |
|
Definition
| d. Maintenance officer/maintenance superintendent. |
|
|
Term
(001) What is the main responsibility of the flight commander/chief?
a. Maintenance production.
b. Allocate maintenance resources.
c. Management, supervision, and training of assigned personnel.
d. Total production effort and management of group maintenance functions. |
|
Definition
| c. Management, supervision, and training of assigned personnel. |
|
|
Term
(001) Who is responsible for making sure personnel and equipment are identified and prepared to
meet deployment taskings?
a. Group commander.
b. Quality assurance.
c. Wing commander.
d. Section chief. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(002) Whose role is it to increase reliability and maintainability of aircraft and support equipment?
a. Wing commander.
b. Quality assurance.
c. Weapons standardization.
d. Maintenance operations center. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(002) The quality assurance program (QAP)
a. provides feedback to the operations group commander.
b. maintains aircraft estimated time in commission (ETIC).
c. determines aircraft and equipment condition and personnel proficiency.
d. monitors and reports the status of electronic countermeasures (ECM) and sensor pods. |
|
Definition
| c. determines aircraft and equipment condition and personnel proficiency. |
|
|
Term
(002) Which flight in the maintenance squadron supports the field assistance support team for
calibration (FASTCAL)?
a. Test, measurement, and diagnostic equipment (TMDE).
b. Armament maintenance.
c. Accessory maintenance.
d. Avionics. |
|
Definition
| a. Test, measurement, and diagnostic equipment (TMDE). |
|
|
Term
10. (002) Aerospace ground equipment (AGE) flight services all AGE with the exception of
a. light carts.
b. heater units.
c. nitrogen carts.
d. non-powered munitions trailers. |
|
Definition
| d. non-powered munitions trailers. |
|
|
Term
(002) What is not a section of the maintenance support flight?
a. Wheel and Tire.
b. Repair and Reclamation.
c. Alternate Mission Equipment.
d. Transient Aircraft Maintenance. |
|
Definition
| c. Alternate Mission Equipment. |
|
|
Term
(003) Which of the following publications contains broad, enduring guidance for preparing and
employing Air Force resources to support national objectives?
a. Air Force doctrine documents.
b. Operating instructions.
c. Mission directives.
d. Manuals. |
|
Definition
| a. Air Force doctrine documents. |
|
|
Term
(003) What are Air Force policy directives?
a. Directives that prescribe the mission, area or responsibility, organization, responsibilities, and
command relationships of Air Force units.
b. Orders of the Secretary of the Air Force approved in the Secretariat or the Air Staff and issued
as departmental publications.
c. Orders of the Secretary of the Air Force to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct by
Air Force activities at any level.
d. Guidance documents consisting of procedures that usually contain examples for performing
standard tasks. |
|
Definition
c. Orders of the Secretary of the Air Force to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct by
Air Force activities at any level. |
|
|
Term
(003) Orders of the Secretary of the Air Force that have been approved in the Secretariat or the
Air Staff and issued as departmental publications are called
a. mission directives.
b. Air Force manuals.
c. Air Force instructions.
d. Air Force policy directives. |
|
Definition
| c. Air Force instructions. |
|
|
Term
(003) Air Force manuals may be supplemented at
a. the Air Force and command level.
b. the command level only.
c. the Air Force level only.
d. at any level. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(003) Field commands may supplement any of the following publication types except
a. Pamphlets.
b. Staff digests.
c. Air Force manuals.
d. Air Force instructions. |
|
Definition
| d. Air Force instructions. |
|
|
Term
(004) Informational publications that guide, point out, or otherwise facilitate research are called
a. Indexes.
b. Catalogs.
c. Handbooks.
d. Directories. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(004) As a rule, display of temporary visual aids should be limited to
a. 10 months or less.
b. 6 months or less.
c. 90 days or less.
d. 30 days or less. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(004) Besides publishing bulletins (PB) and base or headquarters official bulletins, other types of
bulletins
a. may be issued weekly.
b. may be issued monthly.
c. are not authorized at any time.
d. may be authorized at any time. |
|
Definition
| c. are not authorized at any time. |
|
|
Term
(004) All of the following may be included on a bulletin board except
a. important information.
b. classified information.
c. unclassified information.
d. For Official Use Only information. |
|
Definition
| b. classified information. |
|
|
Term
(005) Maintenance data collection (MDC) information is used as a tool for determining or
validating manpower, budget, and
a. equipment requirements.
b. computer requirements.
c. medical requirements.
d. dorm requirements. |
|
Definition
| a. equipment requirements. |
|
|
Term
(005) The maintenance data collection (MDC) system provides equipment maintenance schedules
and inventory information for maintenance requirements established on
a. a calendar basis.
b. an as needed basis.
c. a modification basis.
d. a non-productive basis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(005) What major command (MAJCOM) is designated as the overall logistics manager for Air
Force systems and equipment?
a. Air Combat Command (ACC).
b. Air Mobility Command (AMC).
c. Air Force Material Command (AFMC).
d. Air Education and Training Command (AETC). |
|
Definition
| b. Air Mobility Command (AMC). |
|
|
Term
(005) The reliability and maintainability information system (REMIS) is designed to accumulate
data and provide the information necessary to support the
a. Department of Defense maintenance program.
b. Air Force equipment maintenance program.
c. Air Force flight test program.
d. Defense data network. |
|
Definition
| b. Air Force equipment maintenance program. |
|
|
Term
(006) What maintenance data collection (MDC) code is used to tie together all maintenance
actions taken that relate to a specific job?
a. work unit code.
b. work center code.
c. job control number.
d. identification number. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
26. (006) The first five digits of a job control number (JCN) indicate the
a. year and Julian date.
b. month and Julian date.
c. equipment part number.
d. equipment serial number. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(006) The five-character maintenance data collection (MDC) code that identifies organizational units to which maintenance personnel are assigned or to which they may be dispatched is the
a. work unit code.
b. work center code.
c. job control number.
d. identification number. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(006) A work center that contributes labor towards a maintenance requirement is a
a. owning work center.
b. reporting work center.
c. performing work center.
d. non-reporting work center. |
|
Definition
| c. performing work center. |
|
|
Term
(006) Which five-character maintenance data collection (MDC) code is used to identify the
system that requires maintenance?
a. Work unit code.
b. Job control number.
c. Identification number.
d. Standard reporting designator. |
|
Definition
| c. Identification number. |
|
|
Term
30. (006) Which maintenance data collection (MDC) code is published in manuals for each weapon
and support system?
a. Identification number.
b. Job control number.
c. Work center code.
d. Work unit code. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(007) The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is a
a. command-level computer system used for maintenance management.
b. base-level computer system used for maintenance management.
c. command-level computer system used for supply management.
d. base-level computer system used for supply management. |
|
Definition
| b. base-level computer system used for maintenance management. |
|
|
Term
(007) What is the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) not capable of?
a. Automating aircraft history.
b. Automating aircraft scheduling.
c. Automating on-aircraft troubleshooting.
d. Automating aircrew debriefing processes. |
|
Definition
| c. Automating on-aircraft troubleshooting. |
|
|
Term
(007) What type of errors may not be detected by the Integrated Maintenance Data System
(IMDS)?
a. Mismatched HOW MAL and ACTION TAKEN codes.
b. Mismatched ID number and WORK UNIT codes.
c. Incorrect menu selection.
d. One-of-a-kind entries. |
|
Definition
| d. One-of-a-kind entries. |
|
|
Term
(007) Which Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) screen allows the operator to schedule
jobs for the workcenter?
a. 053.
b. 054.
c. 380.
d. 907. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(007) Which Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) screen and option can be viewed to
allow narratives to a specific job data record to be modified?
a. 907, option 12.
b. 907, option 14.
c. 929, option 12.
d. 929, option 14. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(007) An online inquiry can be selected from Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) screen
099 by simply inputting the
a. part number.
b. stock number.
c. serial number.
d. option number. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(007) Which Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) screen displays a maintenance
snapshot inquiry?
a. 054.
b. 122.
c. 142.
d. 380. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(008) Which of the following is not a function of the G081 automated maintenance information
system?
a. Mission scheduling.
b. Maintenance scheduling.
c. Personnel leave scheduling.
d. Personnel training management. |
|
Definition
| c. Personnel leave scheduling. |
|
|
Term
(008) What will cause the G081 automated maintenance information system to automatically
disconnect?
a. 10 minutes of activity.
b. 10 minutes of inactivity.
c. 15 minutes of activity.
d. 15 minutes of inactivity. |
|
Definition
| d. 15 minutes of inactivity. |
|
|
Term
(008) The four types of programs used in the G081 automated maintenance information system
are data input, data output, variable information retrieval programs (VIRP), and
a. batch.
b. group.
c. cursor.
d. access. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(008) Of the four types of programs used in the G081 automated maintenance information system,
which is considered to be the “heart” of the system?
a. Batch.
b. Data input.
c. Data output.
d. Variable information retrieval programs (VIRP). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(008) What word will appear on your screen to notify you that the G081 automated maintenance
information system has been logged out?
a. BYE.
b. END.
c. MOBILITY.
d. MAINTENANCE. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(009) Which is a basic principle of supply discipline?
a. Stock excess items.
b. Use supplies to fulfill any purpose.
c. Store supply items at private residence.
d. Effectively safeguard and preserve property. |
|
Definition
| d. Effectively safeguard and preserve property. |
|
|
Term
(009) Supply discipline starts with
a. each individual.
b. the commander.
c. your supervisor.
d. the first sergeant. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(009) Who’s responsibility is it to ensure everyone is knowledgeable and trained in supply
discipline?
a. Commanders and supervisors.
b. Supply custodian.
c. First sergeant.
d. Base supply. |
|
Definition
| a. Commanders and supervisors. |
|
|
Term
(010) Air Force (AF) guidance identifies property accountability as the obligation
a. to do personal inventories before shipment.
b. to account for equipment ordered.
c. to care for and safeguard property.
d. to keep accurate, auditable records of property. |
|
Definition
| d. to keep accurate, auditable records of property. |
|
|
Term
(010) Who is accountable for equipment items?
a. Supply personnel and equipment custodians.
b. Resource advisers and equipment custodians.
c. Maintenance personnel and resource advisors.
d. Equipment manufacturers and supply personnel. |
|
Definition
| a. Supply personnel and equipment custodians. |
|
|
Term
(010) To discharge their property responsibilities, commanders issue
a. instructions and directives.
b. guides and visual aids.
c. accurate records.
d. verbal orders. |
|
Definition
| a. instructions and directives. |
|
|
Term
(010) A sergeant takes possession of a box which has fallen off of a supply truck. Which type of
property responsibility does the sergeant assume?
a. Administrative.
b. Supervisory.
c. Command.
d. Custodial. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(010) What are the two ways to obtain relief of property responsibility when pecuniary liability is
not involved?
a. Theft and abandonment.
b. Turn-in and transfer.
c. Theft and transfer.
d. Loss and damage. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(010) When a person responsible for property is transferred and the property remains with the
organization, property responsibility
a. is dropped.
b. stays in the organization.
c. remains with the person.
d. is transferred to the supply squadron. |
|
Definition
| b. stays in the organization. |
|
|
Term
(010) What is used to explain and record the circumstances which involves the loss, damage, or
destruction of an equipment item that cost more than $500?
a. Report of survey.
b. Military pay order.
c. Statement of charges.
d. Cash collection voucher. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(011) How does the deficiency reporting system reduce total ownership cost?
a. Through process standardization.
b. Identifies system deficiencies early in its life cycle.
c. Allows investigative findings to be applied to reappearances.
d. Provides feedback to the warfighters and other users in the field. |
|
Definition
| b. Identifies system deficiencies early in its life cycle. |
|
|
Term
(011) Which of the following is not a condition for a category I deficiency report?
a. If uncorrected could cause death.
b. Directly restricts combat readiness.
c. Is attributable to errors in workmanship.
d. Would cause major damage to equipment. |
|
Definition
| c. Is attributable to errors in workmanship. |
|
|
Term
(011) Which condition does not warrant deficiency reporting?
a. Safety.
b. Does not work upon receipt.
c. Fails before expected life cycle.
d. Improper packaging and handling. |
|
Definition
| d. Improper packaging and handling. |
|
|
Term
(012) What is the most common type of deficiency report you will encounter as an aircraft
maintainer?
a. Product Quality Deficiency Report.
b. Exhibit Maintenance Report.
c. Quality Product Report.
d. Product Exhibit Report. |
|
Definition
| a. Product Quality Deficiency Report. |
|
|
Term
(012) What type of deficiency report must be forwarded within one workday?
a. Category I.
b. Category II.
c. Category III.
d. Category IV. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(012) What type of deficiency report must be forwarded within three workdays?
a. Category I.
b. Category II.
c. Category III.
d. Category IV. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(012) What type of exhibits must receive exceptional care in handling and packaging to preserve
failure evidence?
a. Exhibits comprised of failed metal parts.
b. Exhibits comprised of redistributed parts.
c. Exhibits comprised of failed plastic parts.
d. Exhibits comprised of shipping container parts. |
|
Definition
| a. Exhibits comprised of failed metal parts. |
|
|
Term
(013) If you wanted to address inquires to the office of primary responsibility (OPR) on a
classification interpretation, what section of the security classification guide would you use?
a. Operational data.
b. General instructions.
c. Release of information.
d. Performance and capabilities. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(013) If unclassified information involves a public disclosure, how far in advance is it sent to the
office of primary responsibility (OPR) for review before public release?
a. At least 15 days.
b. At least 25 days.
c. At least 35 days.
d. At least 45 days. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(013) What section of the security classification guide applies more to defense contractors than to
field maintenance technicians?
a. Funding, procurement, and production.
b. Abbreviations and definitions.
c. Release of information.
d. General instructions. |
|
Definition
| a. Funding, procurement, and production. |
|
|
Term
(013) What section of the security classification guide will you use if you are trying to determine
the classification level of line replaceable units (LRU) in a system?
a. Hardware.
b. Distribution.
c. Operational data.
d. Ground support equipment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(014) The SF 701, Security Activity Checklist, is used to
a. record the end-of-the-day security check.
b. approve the storage of classified material.
c. document opening and closing of the security container.
d. provide an inventory of classified material in the security container. |
|
Definition
| a. record the end-of-the-day security check. |
|
|
Term
(014) The SF 702, Security Container Check Sheet, is used to
a. list and record security inspection items.
b. approve the storage of classified material.
c. document opening and closing of the security container.
d. provide an inventory of classified material in the security container. |
|
Definition
| c. document opening and closing of the security container. |
|
|
Term
(014) How often are preventative maintenance and inspection requirements accomplished for
safes?
a. Every two years.
b. Every five years.
c. Every two months.
d. Every five months. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(014) If you order a Secret classified asset from base supply, what do you need to receive custody
of the asset?
a. Have a military identification card and valid need to know.
b. Hold a top secret security clearance and valid need to know.
c. Have a valid need to know and be listed on an authorized roster.
d. Have a military identification card and be listed on an authorized roster |
|
Definition
| b. Hold a top secret security clearance and valid need to know. |
|
|
Term
(015) Which type of manual is a reduced size TO which includes step-by-step procedures?
a. Aircraft.
b. Job guide (JG).
c. Other equipment.
d. Commercial-off-the-shelf (COTS). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(015) Publications that contain instructions for use in addition to data contained in another manual
are identified as
a. general aircraft.
b. other equipment.
c. supplemental manuals.
d. commercial-off-the-shelf manuals. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(015) Which letters are contained in the numerical designator of a checklist technical order (TO)?
a. CL.
b. LC.
c. CH.
d. WC. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(015) Which is not a type of time compliance technical order (TCTO)?
a. Urgent action.
b. Routine action.
c. Immediate action.
d. Emergency action. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(015) Which time compliance technical order (TCTO) is used to correct a condition that could
result in a fatal or serious injury?
a. Urgent action.
b. Routine action.
c. Immediate action.
d. Emergency action. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(016) When are technical order (TO) changes issued?
a. When changed material affects more than 80 percent of the TO.
b. Only when part of an existing TO is affected.
c. Only when urgent safety action is required.
d. When the whole TO is affected. |
|
Definition
| b. Only when part of an existing TO is affected. |
|
|
Term
(016) Which is not an authorized type of technical order (TO) supplement?
a. Formal Operational Supplement (OS).
b. Operational Page Supplement (OPS).
c. Interim Safety Supplement (ISS).
d. TO Page Supplement (TOPS). |
|
Definition
| b. Operational Page Supplement (OPS). |
|
|
Term
(016) What type of technical order (TO) supplements are printed on green paper to distinguish
them from other supplements?
a. Interim Operational Supplements (IOS).
b. Formal Operational Supplements (OS).
c. Interim Safety Supplement (ISS).
d. TO Page Supplement (TOPS). |
|
Definition
| b. Formal Operational Supplements (OS). |
|
|
Term
(016) Recommended changes to technical orders (TO) must be identified as an improvement or
a. urgent type of change.
b. correction type of change.
c. significant type of change.
d. emergency type of change. |
|
Definition
| b. correction type of change. |
|
|
Term
(016) What are the types of technical order (TO) recommendation priorities?
a. Emergency, immediate, and routine.
b. Emergency, urgent, and priority.
c. Emergency, urgent, and routine.
d. Immediate, urgent, and priority. |
|
Definition
| c. Emergency, urgent, and routine. |
|
|
Term
(017) What does the Automated Computer Program Identification Number System (ACPINS) not
provide?
a. A system to establish one-time orders.
b. A system to establish customer accounts.
c. A system to establish subscription requirements.
D. A system to establish contractor logistics software. |
|
Definition
| d. A system to establish contractor logistics software. |
|
|
Term
017) The Automated Computer Program Identification Number System (ACPINS) provides
software support to USAF customers
a. worldwide.
b. stateside.
c. overseas.
d. off base. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(018) How many fields are there in a Computer Program Identification Number (CPIN)?
a. Three.
b. Four.
c. Five.
d. Six. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(018) The first field of the computer program identification number (CPIN), consists of
a. baseline code.
b. software-type code.
c. the subsystem and system codes.
d. the category and major function codes. |
|
Definition
| d. the category and major function codes. |
|
|
Term
(018) The second field of the computer program identification number (CPIN) cannot be less than
two positions or more than
a. 27 positions.
b. 72 positions.
c. a single alpha code.
d. a two digit number. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(018) What does the computer program identification number (CPIN) revision suffix identify?
a. Corrections to previous revisions.
b. Corrections to alpha codes.
c. Corrections to qualifiers.
d. Corrections to diagrams. |
|
Definition
| a. Corrections to previous revisions |
|
|
Term
(201) Which is not an Air Force inspection concept?
a. Phased.
b. Periodic.
c. Intermediate.
d. Isochronal. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(201) Which type of inspection is a flight preparedness check?
a. Phase.
b. Pre-flight.
c. End-of-runway.
d. Basic post-flight. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(201) Which inspection is designed to detect defects that might have developed during ground
operation of the aircraft?
a. Phase.
b. Pre-flight.
c. End-of-runway.
d. Basic post-flight. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(201) When is the thru-flight inspection performed?
a. Between flights.
b. After the last flight of the day.
c. Before the aircraft goes on alert.
d. After a specific number of flying hours has elapsed. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(201) When is the basic post-flight inspection performed?
a. Between flights.
b. Before the aircraft goes on alert.
c. After the last flight of a specified flying period.
d. After a specific number of flying hours has elapsed. |
|
Definition
| c. After the last flight of a specified flying period. |
|
|
Term
(201) Which inspection is not based on hours of operation?
a. Thru-flight.
b. Pre-flight.
c. Periodic.
d. Phase . |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(201) Which inspection is designed to reduce the time an aircraft is out of commission for any
given inspection?
a. Major.
b. Phase.
c. Pre-flight.
d. Hourly post-flight. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(201) Which inspection is not peculiar to the isochronal inspection system?
a. Minor.
b. Major.
c. Basic post-flight.
d. Home station check. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(202) Except for battle damage, each discrepancy discovered is documented on AFTO Form
a. 781A.
b. 781B.
c. 781K.
d. 781L. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(202) At what point do you erase symbols you entered on the AFTO Form 781A?
a. When you enter them in error.
b. When you find them to be incorrect.
c. When you must correct a discrepancy.
d. Never, even if you entered them in error. |
|
Definition
| d. Never, even if you entered them in error. |
|
|
Term
(202) What information is required in the corrective action block of the AFTO Form 781A for
Red X discrepancies?
a. Date corrected.
b. Job control number.
c. Complete discrepancy.
d. Complete technical order reference. |
|
Definition
| d. Complete technical order reference. |
|
|
Term
(203) What is the purpose of the AFTO Form 781C?
a. Provide engine configuration and flight status.
b. Provide avionics discrepancies and load status.
c. Provide avionics configuration and load status.
d. Provide avionics configuration and engine status. |
|
Definition
| c. Provide avionics configuration and load status. |
|
|
Term
(203) Who checks the AFTO 781C before flight to make sure that the avionics equipment status
conforms to mission requirements?
a. Aircraft commander.
b. Group commander.
c. Avionics manager.
d. Quality assurance. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(203) Who ensures the validity and legibility of all required entries on the AFTO Form 781C?
a. Quality assurance.
b. Group commander.
c. Aircraft commander.
d. Maintenance personnel. |
|
Definition
| d. Maintenance personnel. |
|
|
Term
(204) Which AFTO form is used to document maintenance status and servicing information?
a. 781A.
b. 781B.
c. 781H.
d. 781J. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(204) What does a signature in the AFTO Form 781H, exceptional release block indicate?
a. Aircraft requires inspection.
b. Aircraft requires servicing.
c. Aircraft is safe for flight.
d. Aircraft is grounded. |
|
Definition
| c. Aircraft is safe for flight. |
|
|
Term
(204) Which AFTO forms are used to document airframe time?
a. 781J and 781C.
b. 781H and 781J.
c. 781H and 781C.
d. 781A and 781C. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(205) Who is responsible for making entries on the AFTO Form 781J, Aerospace Vehicle -
Engine Flight Document?
a. Group commander.
b. Aircraft commander.
c. Aircraft maintenance technician.
d. Aerospace ground equipment technician. |
|
Definition
| c. Aircraft maintenance technician. |
|
|
Term
(206) Which AFTO form is used to record essential inspection and delayed maintenance data?
a. 781A.
b. 781B.
c. 781K.
d. 781C. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(206) Block D on the AFTO Form 781K is used to document
a. airframe time.
b. exceptional release.
c. engine servicing data.
d. delayed discrepancies. |
|
Definition
| d. delayed discrepancies. |
|
|
Term
(207) What form is used for support equipment?
a. 1492.
b. 244.
c. 781A.
d. 781K. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(207) Which part of the AFTO Form 244 is used to document equipment discrepancies?
a. Part I.
b. Part II.
c. Part IV.
d. Part V. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(207) The AFTO Form 245 is used
a. to document quality assurance evaluations.
b. to document scheduled maintenance on aircraft.
c. as a continuation sheet for Part V of the AFTO Form 244.
d. to allow supervisors to review equipment maintenance documentation. |
|
Definition
| c. as a continuation sheet for Part V of the AFTO Form 244. |
|
|
Term
(208) To “flag” a condition on an aircraft that could cause damage or injury if ignored, use
a. AFTO Form 244.
b. AFTO Form 245.
c. AF Form 979, DANGER tag.
d. AF Form 1492, WARNING tag. |
|
Definition
| d. AF Form 1492, WARNING tag. |
|
|
Term
(208) What portion of the tag is used to provide a “cross-check” with the aircraft forms?
a. The bottom portion.
b. The top portion.
c. Both portions.
d. Neither. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(208) When will the AF Form 1492, Warning Tag, be used in-flight?
a. Never.
b. Always.
c. For thrust reversers.
d. During emergencies. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(209) What type of wire provides high temperature resistance?
a. Conventional.
b. Kapton.
c. Coaxial.
d. Triaxial. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(209) What is the typical characteristic impedance of a coaxial cable?
a. 50 ohms.
b. 67 ohms.
c. 76 ohms.
d. 90 ohms. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(209) Triaxial cable is used when
a. further shielding is required.
b. further accuracy is required.
c. high temperature resistance is required.
d. installed in exhaust gas temperature systems. |
|
Definition
| a. further shielding is required |
|
|
Term
(209) Which of the following is not a type of metal used in thermocouple conductors?
a. Iron.
b. Gold.
c. Copper.
d. Constantan. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(209) Why is it important to ensure that equal amounts of both wires are removed when cutting
thermocouple wiring?
a. To maintain proper temperature indications.
b. To maintain optical power transmission.
c. To maintain shock resistance.
d. To maintain response time. |
|
Definition
| a. To maintain proper temperature indications. |
|
|
Term
(209) What type of solder is used in repair of thermocouple wiring?
a. Hard.
b. Zinc.
c. Soft.
d. Tin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(210) Twisting an optic fiber during installation or maintenance may results in
a. greater tension control.
b. reduced shock resistance.
c. greater elasticity of the glass fibers.
d. reduced optical power transmission. |
|
Definition
| d. reduced optical power transmission. |
|
|
Term
(210) Which component of a fiber optic cable does not add tensile strength?
a. Outer jacket.
b. Optical fiber.
c. Buffer jacket.
d. Strength members. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(210) Optoelectronic transducers perform what function in a fiber optic transmission?
a. Amplifiers output circuit signals.
b. Converts electrical signals to light signals.
c. Converts optical energy to electrical energy.
d. Emit light when current is passed through them. |
|
Definition
| c. Converts optical energy to electrical energy. |
|
|
Term
(211) What must you do before installing a splice?
a. Remove the connector from the wire.
b. Remove the insulation from the wire.
c. Shrink the sealing sleeve.
d. Shrink the crimp barrel. |
|
Definition
| b. Remove the insulation from the wire. |
|
|
Term
(211) How do you determine the exact length of insulation to strip from a wire?
a. Use the length of the wire stripping tool.
b. Refer to the appropriate wiring technical orders (TO).
c. Use the length of the heat gun.
d. Refer to a co-worker. |
|
Definition
| b. Refer to the appropriate wiring technical orders (TO). |
|
|
Term
(212) Electromagnetic pulse (EMP) cable was developed with how many outer protective layers?
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(212) An electromagnetic pulse (EMP) hardened cable is considered nonrepairable by local
personnel if it has damage to the
a. cable jacket.
b. internal wires.
c. outer braided shield.
d. wires at the connector. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(212) Which of the following is not a type of tape used in outer shield repair?
a. Electrical.
b. Shielding.
c. Polyester.
d. Silicone. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(213) When tying wire bundles behind connectors, start ties far enough back from the connector
to
a. allow adequate airflow around wires.
b. avoid violating the one-inch rule.
c. allow flexing of the wire bundle.
d. avoid spreading of the contacts. |
|
Definition
| d. avoid spreading of the contacts. |
|
|
Term
(213) What must be worn when using the cable strap tool?
a. Eye protection.
b. Ear protection.
c. Wrist strap.
d. Gloves. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(214) What tool measures the specific degree of tightness of nuts or bolts?
a. Stress kit.
b. Bolt meter.
c. Tensiometer.
d. Torque wrench. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(214) A torque wrench is not accurate
a. above 30 percent capacity.
b. above 20 percent capacity.
c. below 20 percent of capacity.
d. below 30 percent of capacity. |
|
Definition
| c. below 20 percent of capacity. |
|
|
Term
(214) What do cable tensiometers measure?
a. Degree of cable density per linear foot.
b. Angular torque of cable connections.
c. Specific degree of cable thickness.
d. Specific degree of cable tightness. |
|
Definition
| d. Specific degree of cable tightness. |
|
|
Term
(215) Aircraft panels are sealed for protection against
a. corrosion.
b. chaffing.
c. friction.
d. theft. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(215) What does sealant cure time depend on?
a. Temperature and relative humidity.
b. Corrosion and relative humidity.
c. Air pressure and temperature.
d. Temperature and corrosion. |
|
Definition
| a. Temperature and relative humidity. |
|
|
Term
(215) Which is a good practice when installing a gasket?
a. Reuse the gasket.
b. Use a new gasket.
c. Avoid the entrapment of air.
d. Use the opposite side of the gasket. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(215) Why must gaskets be properly seated during installation?
a. To avoid leaks.
b. To eliminate cuts.
c. To provide strain relief.
d. To avoid entrapment of air. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(216) Which structural area provides access to perform engine maintenance and servicing?
a. Nacelles.
b. Windows.
c. Cargo door.
d. Empennage. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(216) Which flight control surface is not found on the wing?
a. Flap.
b. Spoiler.
c. Aileron.
d. Elevator. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(217) Which is not one of the four forces at work on an aircraft in flight?
a. Lift.
b. Thrust.
c. Gravity.
d. Deceleration. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(217) Which is the force that allows an aircraft to overcome gravity during flight?
a. Lift.
b. Thrust.
c. Weight.
d. Deceleration. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(217) Drag is produced by friction and
a. turbulence.
b. altitude.
c. gravity.
d. lift. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(217) Which force must be increased during deceleration in order to maintain lift?
A. Angle of attack.
b. Relative wind.
c. Gravity.
d. Drag. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(217) Which is not one of the three axes of rotation?
a. Longitudinal.
b. Vertical.
c. Lateral.
d. Center. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(217) The longitudinal or roll axis extends lengthwise from the
a. nose to the tail.
b. top to the bottom.
c. fuselage to the tires.
d. wing tip to wing tip. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(217) At which point do all three axes meet?
a. Point of excellence.
b. Center of gravity.
c. Pentacle of drag.
d. Start of thrust. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(217) The secondary flight control system consists of the flap, slat, spoiler, and
a. pitch trim.
b. elevator.
c. aileron.
d. rudder. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(217) Which flight control system relieves the pilot of control column load caused by varying load
and flight conditions?
a. Pitch trim system.
b. Rudder control system.
c. Active drag distribution system.
d. Primary augmentation system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(218) Which system provides cabin pressurization?
a. Air conditioning.
b. Flight director.
c. Instruments.
d. Autopilot. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(218) What component in the fire protection system monitors temperature changes for fire and
overheat conditions?
a. Air conditioner.
b. Sensing module.
c. Sensing element.
d. Air thermometer. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(218) Which is not part of the propulsion system?
a. Oil distribution.
b. Accessory drive.
c. Fuel distribution.
d. Oxygen converter. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(218) Which is not a type of radio?
a. VHF.
b. UHF.
c. ATF.
d. HF. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(218) What type of navigation is a global positioning system (GPS)?
a. Secure.
b. Teletype.
c. Dependent.
d. Independent. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(218) Which ground based station signal is not used for the instrument landing system (ILS)
system?
a. Marker beacon.
b. Glideslope.
c. Localizer.
d. Attitude direction indicators. |
|
Definition
| D. Attitude direction indicators. |
|
|
Term
(218) Which components are mounted on the inertial navigation system gyro-stabilized platform?
a. Capacitors.
b. Accelerometers.
c. Stable inductors.
d. Thermal resistors. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(218) Which of the following is not monitored by the engine indicating system?
a. Exhaust gas temperature.
b. Hydraulic temperature.
c. Oil temperature.
d. Oil quantity. |
|
Definition
| B. Hydraulic temperature. |
|
|
Term
(219) Before working in a flight control surface area, make sure you
a. disable and tag the system.
b. notify the fire department.
c. install protective covers.
d. remove antennas. |
|
Definition
| A. disable and tag the system. |
|
|
Term
(220) Which step should be taken to identify any potentially hazardous conditions prior to
performing aircraft maintenance?
a. Review the aircraft forms.
b. Remove safety pins.
c. Ground the aircraft.
d. Remove streamers. |
|
Definition
| A. Review the aircraft forms. |
|
|
Term
(220) To prevent movement of the aircraft, the main landing gear wheels must be chocked in front
of and behind the wheel with a
a. 1 inch clearance.
b. 2 inch clearance.
c. 3 inch clearance.
d. 4 inch clearance. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(220) What is generally the primary flight line fire extinguisher?
a. 500 pound water.
b. 150 pound water.
c. 150 pound Halon.
d. 500 pound Halon. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(220) Compressed gas cylinders, full or empty, will be
a. stored in a non-upright position.
b. handled with care at all times.
c. stored in wet areas.
d. co-mingled. |
|
Definition
| B. handled with care at all times. |
|
|
Term
(401) Which element of the Military Standard 1553B data bus coordinates the flow of information?
a. Remote terminal.
b. Bus controller.
c. Bus monitor.
d. Data bus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(401) What happens with the bus controller when it detects a transmission error while
communicating with a remote terminal (RT) on the Military Standard 1553B data bus?
a. Retransmits the command several times, and then tries the backup data bus.
b. Is disabled and the backup controller resumes transmission.
c. Attempts to retransmit to the RT until contact is made.
d. Establishes communications with a different RT. |
|
Definition
| A. Retransmits the command several times, and then tries the backup data bus. |
|
|
Term
(401) Which element of the Military Standard 1553B data bus is capable of being used as a backup
bus controller?
a. Remote terminal.
b. Bus controller.
c. Stub coupler.
d. Bus monitor. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(401) Each type of word used on the Military Standard 1553B data bus is
a
a. 20 bits long with a 3-bit sync character, 16 information bits, and one parity bit.
b. 16 bits long with a 3-bit sync character, 12 information bits, and one parity bit.
c. 10 bits long with a 2-bit sync character, 16 information bits, and one parity bit.
d. 8 bits long with a 2-bit sync character, 12 information bits, and one parity bit. |
|
Definition
| A. 20 bits long with a 3-bit sync character, 16 information bits, and one parity bit. |
|
|
Term
(401) Military Standard 1553B status words are only transmitted by remote terminals in response to
a command from the
a. remote terminal.
b. bus controller.
c. bus monitor.
d. fiber optic. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(401) Which type word on the Military Standard 1553B data bus contains the actual information
being transferred between remote terminals and the bus controller?
a. Command.
b. Status.
c. Mode.
d. Data. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(402) A local area network (LAN) system’s Ethernet station sends data at a rate of
a. 1 megabit per second (Mbps).
b. 10 Mbps.
c. 15 Mbps.
d. 25 Mbps. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(402) What is the round trip time limited to, through the local area network (LAN), in an Ethernet
system, based on its collision detect?
a. 50 nanoseconds
b. 50 microseconds.
c. 100 nanoseconds.
d. 100 microseconds. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(402) Data that must be sent between two processors in the Ethernet local area network (LAN)
must flow through the
a. bus monitor.
b. data transfer unit.
c. digital switching module.
d. integrated processing center. |
|
Definition
| C. digital switching module. |
|
|
Term
(403) What components control the electronic attitude director indicator (EADI) and electronic
horizontal situation indicator (EHSI) formats?
a
a. Multifunctional display control panels.
b. Heads-up display control panels.
c. Fuel management systems.
d. Mission computers. |
|
Definition
| A. Multifunctional display control panels. |
|
|
Term
(403) The multifunctional displays (MFD) are interconnected to each other through the
a. Military Standard (MIL-STD)–1553A.
b. MIL-STD–1553B.
c. Ethernet local area network (LAN).
d. Electronic horizontal situation indicator (EHSI). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(403) Which multifunctional display (MFD) overlay uses flight management system (FMS) data
and barometric or radio altitude inputs to determine position?
a. Weather radar (WXR).
b. Traffic alert collision avoidance system (TCAS).
c. Map arc.
d. Ground proximity warning system (GPWS). |
|
Definition
| B. Traffic alert collision avoidance system (TCAS). |
|
|
Term
(403) What component of the flight display system (FDS) allows you to select the navigational
source?
a. Multifunctional display (MFD).
b. MFD control panel.
c. Electronic attitude director indicator (EADI).
d. Electronic horizontal situation indicator (EHSI). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(404) Which of the following does the mission computer (MC) not provide to the heads-up
display (HUD)?
a. Radar altitude.
b. Auto-throttle speed.
c. Display mode commands.
d. Flight director commands. |
|
Definition
| D. Flight director commands. |
|
|
Term
(404) The head-up displays (HUD) are focused to infinity and permit a wide field of view that is
a. 25 degrees (°) horizontal and 18° vertical.
b. 25° horizontal and 24° vertical.
c. 30° horizontal and 24° vertical.
d. 30° horizontal and 30° vertical. |
|
Definition
| C. 30° horizontal and 24° vertical. |
|
|
Term
(404) The selected mode and symbology requirements are passed to the heads-up displays (HUD)
from the mission computers by way of the
a. Ethernet local area network (LAN).
b. 1553B data bus.
c. 1553A data bus.
d. ARINC 429. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(404) Which heads-up display (HUD) control mode has a considerably reduced brightness range?
a. OFF.
b. DAY.
c. AUTO.
d. NIGHT. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(405) Which system provides attitude and heading information to the flight management system
(FMS)?
a. Inertial navigation system (INS).
b. Global positioning system (GPS).
c. Traffic collision avoidance system (TCAS).
d. Ground proximity warning system (GPWS). |
|
Definition
| a. Inertial navigation system (INS). |
|
|
Term
(405) The flight management system (FMS) is capable of loading this number of mission plans
and waypoints, respectively.
a. 20 and 500.
b. 50 and 200.
c. 200 and 50.
d. 500 and 20. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(405) Which component provides the flight management system’s (FMS) processing and interface
functions?
a. Flight display system.
b. Navigation computer.
c. Control display unit.
d. Data transfer unit. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(405) Which component provides the primary means of loading the operational flight program
(OFP) software and saving the fault history in the aircraft’s flight management system (FMS)?
a. Data transfer unit.
b. Control display unit.
c. Navigation computer.
d. Flight display system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(406) What type information do fuel management systems, such as the Fuel Savings Advisory
System (FSAS), measure?
a. Aircraft performance data.
b. Tactical air navigation.
c. Ethernet local area network (LAN) data.
d. Ram air pressure. |
|
Definition
| a. Aircraft performance data. |
|
|
Term
(406) Which of the following is not a Fuel Management Advisory Computer (FMAC) software
functional area?
a. Vertical navigation.
b. Preflight initialization.
c. Data bus management.
d. Aircraft performance data. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(406) The fuel savings advisory data is transmitted from the Fuel Management Advisory
Computer (FMAC) to the control display unit (CDU) on the
a. 1553A Fuel Savings Advisory Bus (FSB).
b. 1553B FSB.
c. 1553A Flight Management Bus (FMB).
d. 1553B FMB. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(406) The Air Data Computer output data is provided to the Fuel Management Advisory
Computer (FMAC) for
a. preflight initialization.
b. airspeed calculations.
c. total air temperature.
d. vertical navigation. |
|
Definition
| b. airspeed calculations. |
|
|
Term
(407) The Integrated Diagnostic System (IDS) illuminates lights on the instrument panel when a
fault is
a. transferred to the maintenance management system.
b. classified as a caution or warning.
c. detected on the ground.
d. not recorded. |
|
Definition
| b. classified as a caution or warning. |
|
|
Term
(407) When is the built-in test (BIT) status of line replaceable units (LRU) monitored by the
Integrated Diagnostic System (IDS) determined?
a. After mission computer configuration is complete.
b. After control display unit configuration is complete.
c. Before mission computer configuration is complete.
d. Before control display unit configuration is complete. |
|
Definition
| a. After mission computer configuration is complete. |
|
|
Term
(407) Integrated Diagnostic System (IDS) fault codes are recorded on the
a. flight management system control display units.
b. ground proximity warning system.
c. dual slotted data transfer system.
d. status test panel. |
|
Definition
| c. dual slotted data transfer system. |
|
|
Term
(407) What indicates there is not a fault detected in the flight management system (FMS) initiated
built-in test (IBIT) code?
a. 0.
b. 1.
c. 8.
d. 16. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(408) This happens to static pressure as you increase in altitude.
a. Increases.
b. Decreases.
c. Stays the same.
d. Increases, and then decreases. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(408) The standard datum plane is a theoretical plane where the atmospheric pressure is
a. 29.92″ mercury (Hg) and the temperature is +15 degrees (°) Celsius (C).
b. 29.92″ Hg and the temperature is +40°-C.
c. 30.92″ Hg and the temperature is +15°-C.
d. 30.92″ Hg and the temperature is +40°-C. |
|
Definition
| a. 29.92″ mercury (Hg) and the temperature is +15 degrees (°) Celsius (C). |
|
|
Term
(408) The purpose of the static pressure holes on a pitot-static tube is to allow
a. atmospheric pressure to enter the static chamber.
b. atmospheric pressure to enter the pitot chamber.
c. impact pressure to enter the static chamber.
d. impact pressure to enter the pitot chamber. |
|
Definition
| a. atmospheric pressure to enter the static chamber. |
|
|
Term
(408) The pressure of the alternate static source in the unpressurized part of an aircraft is lower
than the
a. pitot pressure.
b. impact pressure.
c. airflow pressure.
d. atmospheric pressure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(409) What Air Data Computer module converts pitot pressure input into a usable electrical
signal?
a. Air data processor.
b. Remote terminal module.
c. Total transducer assembly.
d. Static transducer assembly. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(409) A manual self-test of the Air Data Computer is inhibited if airspeed is
a. greater than 50 knots.
b. greater than 70 knots.
c. less than 50 knots.
d. less than 70 knots. |
|
Definition
| b. greater than 70 knots. |
|
|
Term
(409) When the failure annunciator on the front panel of the Air Data Computer is reset, it shows
a. solid black.
b. solid white.
c. three black wedges on a white background.
d. three white wedges on a black background. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(409) Why does the Air Data Computer provide impact pressure to the stability augmentation
system?
a. To determine when to activate the stall warning.
b. To aid in calculations for accurate navigation.
c. For altitude and heading hold functions.
d. For roll and yaw stability functions. |
|
Definition
| d. For roll and yaw stability functions. |
|
|
Term
(410) The TTU–205 test set is capable of controlling and measuring
a. time and distance.
b. power and ground.
c. altitude and airspeed.
d. commands and displays. |
|
Definition
| c. altitude and airspeed. |
|
|
Term
(410) You must perform the AUTO EXERCISE test on the TTU–205 test set when power has
been
a. on for more than one hour.
b. off for more than one hour.
c. on for more than a half hour.
d. off for more than a half hour. |
|
Definition
| b. off for more than one hour. |
|
|
Term
(410) For system stabilization, how long must the TTU–205 test set be allowed to warm-up?
a. One hour.
b. Eight hours.
c. 10 minutes.
d. 30 minutes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(411) A density error on an altimeter can be corrected by adjusting the
a. barometric scale on the front of the indicator.
b. barometric scale on the back of the indicator.
c. high-pressure scale on the front of the indicator.
d. high-pressure scale on the back of the indicator. |
|
Definition
| a. barometric scale on the front of the indicator. |
|
|
Term
(411) This rate of change represents the difference in pressure between the inside and outside of
the vertical velocity indicator’s diaphragm.
a. Mach.
b. Altitude.
c. Airspeed.
d. Temperature. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(412) The maximum allowable airspeed of an aircraft is lower
a. at higher altitudes.
b. at lower altitudes.
c. at true airspeed.
d. at sea level. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(412) The aircraft’s altitude aneroid ensures accurate airspeed indicator operation regardless of
a. true airspeed.
b. density error.
c. temperature.
d. Mach. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(412) What is the primary difference between indicated airspeed (IAS) and true airspeed (TAS)?
a. Density error.
b. Instrument error.
c. Installation error.
d. Differential error. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(413) The sensing elements on an aircraft’s true airspeed indicator are surrounded by
a. pitot pressure.
b. static pressure.
c. impact pressure.
d. methyl chloride gas. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(413) What condition causes an aircraft’s uncorrected airspeed indicator to read higher than it
should?
a. Decreased temperature.
b. Increased temperature.
c. Decreased friction.
d. Increased friction. |
|
Definition
| b. Increased temperature. |
|
|
Term
(413) Each total air temperature probe contains these sensing elements.
a. Two variable resistance-type.
b. Three variable resistance-type.
c. Two variable capacitance-type.
d. Three variable capacitance-type. |
|
Definition
| a. Two variable resistance-type. |
|
|
Term
(414) If a fault condition exists, the fault indicators on the front of the flight data acquisition unit
turn solid
a. red.
b. black.
c. white.
d. yellow. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(414) The recording capacity of the flight data recorder system is
a. 15 minutes.
b. 25 minutes.
c. 15 hours.
d. 25 hours. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(414) How is the flight data recorder’s underwater locator beacon activated?
a. Flight recorder switch.
b. Water immersion.
c. Aircraft power.
d. Gravity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(415) Which caution/advisory warning lights indicate actuation and normal operation of aircraft
equipment?
a. Red.
b. Blue.
c. Green.
d. Yellow. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(415) Which caution/advisory warning lights indicate unsafe flight conditions and system
failures?
a. Black.
b. Green.
c. White.
d. Yellow. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(415) The TEST switch on the caution/advisory panel lights the annunciators to
a. check for proper aircraft system operation.
b. check for proper light bulb operation.
c. extinguish the master caution light.
d. extinguish the audible warning. |
|
Definition
| b. check for proper light bulb |
|
|
Term
(416) The ground proximity warning system is active at altitudes from
a. 0 to 2450 feet.
b. 50 to 2450 feet.
c. 0 to 12,450 feet.
d. 50 to 12,450 feet. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(416) When the control panel INHIBIT/ON switch is in the INHIBIT position, this ground
proximity warning system’s aural warning is disabled.
a. “Glideslope.”
b. “Don’t Sink.”
c. “Too Low, Gear.”
d. “Too Low, Flaps.” |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(416) What is the highest priority warning the ground proximity warning system gives?
a. “Whoop-Whoop, Pull Up.”
b. “Too Low, Terrain.”
c. “Too Low, Gear.”
d. “Glideslope.” |
|
Definition
| a. “Whoop-Whoop, Pull Up.” |
|
|
Term
(416) Which ground proximity warning system mode is always active when the aircraft is
between 50 and 2450 feet, regardless of aircraft configuration?
a. Mode 1, Excessive Sink Rate.
b. Mode 2, Excessive Closure Rate.
c. Mode 4, Proximity to Terrain.
d. Mode 5, Descent Below Glideslope. |
|
Definition
| a. Mode 1, Excessive Sink Rate. |
|
|
Term
(416) Which ground proximity warning system mode sounds the alert “DON’T SINK”?
a. Mode 1, Excessive Sink Rate.
b. Mode 3, Descent After Takeoff.
c. Mode 4, Proximity to Terrain.
d. Mode 5, Descent Below Glideslope. |
|
Definition
| b. Mode 3, Descent After Takeoff. |
|
|
Term
(417) The control column shakers on the stall warning system control panels are prevented from
operating continuously in phase with each other by
a. interconnecting the two shakers physically.
b. allowing only one shaker to operate at a time.
c. having the copilot’s shaker run slower than the pilot’s.
d. alternating between the two shakers on a one-second interval. |
|
Definition
| c. having the copilot’s shaker run slower than the pilot’s. |
|
|
Term
(417) The stall warning computer produces a shaker signal if the aircraft’s angle-of-attack (AOA)
and the permissible AOA are in this position of each other.
a. Within 10 degrees.
b. Within five degrees.
c. Within two degrees.
d. Equal. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(417) The stall warning computer produces a pusher signal if the aircraft’s angle-of-attack (AOA)
equals the permissible AOA for
a. one second.
b. three seconds.
c. five seconds.
d. 10 seconds. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(801) The pilot’s elevator input system is connected to the
a. outboard elevators.
b. inboard elevators.
c. upper rudder.
d. lower rudder. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(801) The copilot’s elevator input system is connected to the
a. outboard elevators.
b. inboard elevators.
c. upper rudder.
d. lower rudder. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(801) Control of the aircraft in the yaw axis is accomplished by the
a. Elevators.
b. Ailerons.
c. Rudders.
d. Spoilers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(801) What type of cable system does the rudder input system incorporate that run from the flight
station to the upper and lower rudder servo input quadrants?
a. Triple cable system.
b. Single cable system.
c. Double cable system.
d. Quadruple cable system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(802) When are leading-edge slats and trailing-edge flaps used
a. Coordinated turns.
b. Landings and takeoffs.
c. Aileron augmentation.
d. Pitch and yaw maneuvers. |
|
Definition
| B. Landings and takeoffs. |
|
|
Term
(802) The slat surface is extended and retracted by
a. two telescoping ballscrew actuators.
b. three telescoping ballscrew actuators.
c. two variable slat drive roller carriages.
d. three variable slat drive roller carriages. |
|
Definition
| A. two telescoping ballscrew actuators. |
|
|
Term
(802) The flap and slat power package receives hydraulic pressure from the
a. number one and number two hydraulic systems.
b. number one and number four hydraulic systems.
c. number two and number four hydraulic systems.
d. number two and number three hydraulic systems. |
|
Definition
| B. number one and number four hydraulic systems. |
|
|
Term
(803) What is not included in the mechanical flight control system?
a. Cables.
b. Torque tubes.
c. Push-pull tubes.
d. number one and number four hydraulic systems. |
|
Definition
| d. number one and number four hydraulic systems. |
|
|
Term
(803) Some aircraft incorporate flight control systems that automatically revert to servo-tab control
a. in case of total electrical system failure.
b. in case of total hydraulic system failure.
c. to limit the external wind forces from damaging the aircraft while it is parked.
d. to limit the external wind forces from damaging the aircraft while it is tied down. |
|
Definition
| B. in case of total hydraulic system failure. |
|
|
Term
(803) Hydraulic powered actuators convert hydraulic pressure into
a. control surface movements.
b. artificial stall warning.
c. gust lock limit.
d. fly-by-wire. |
|
Definition
| A. control surface movements. |
|
|
Term
(803) Artificial feel systems provide
a. increased resistance to the flight controls at lower speeds.
b. decreased resistance to the flight controls at lower speeds.
c. increased resistance to the flight controls at higher speeds.
d. decreased resistance to the flight controls at higher speeds. |
|
Definition
| C. increased resistance to the flight controls at higher speeds. |
|
|
Term
(803) Electronic flight control computers can be programmed to prevent undesirable and
dangerous characteristics, such as
a. stalling.
b. gust lock.
c. aileron trim.
d. artificial feel. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(804) On the horizontal stabilizer pitch trim system, hydraulic motor torque is transferred to the
nut and screw drives through a
a. step-down transformer.
b. torque synchro.
c. gear train.
d. lever. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(804) With flaps up, limit switches cut off electrical power to the screw drive unit when the
horizontal stabilizer reaches
a. 1.5° aircraft NOSE DOWN or 6.0° aircraft NOSE UP.
b. 1.5° aircraft NOSE DOWN or 8.0° aircraft NOSE UP.
c. 2.5° aircraft NOSE DOWN or 6.0° aircraft NOSE UP.
d. 2.5° aircraft NOSE DOWN or 8.0° aircraft NOSE UP. |
|
Definition
| A. 1.5° aircraft NOSE DOWN or 6.0° aircraft NOSE UP. |
|
|
Term
(804) What is energized by simultaneous actuation of the horizontal stabilizer trim control wheel
switches?
a. Flap direction solenoid.
b. Trim direction solenoid.
c. Rudder direction solenoid.
d. Aileron direction solenoid. |
|
Definition
| B. Trim direction solenoid. |
|
|
Term
(804) Horizontal stabilizer pitch trim, console switches provide a means of operating the actuator
a. generator drive.
b. synchro drive.
c. screw drive.
d. nut drive. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(804) Pitch trim position is displayed by a dial-type indicator, incorporating a scale graduated in
degrees from
a. –5° to +15°.
b. –6° to +14°.
c. –7° to +13°.
d. –8° to +12°. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(804) The pitch trim actuator screw drive and nut drive receive hydraulic power from
a. two hydraulic systems operating at 2000 pounds per square inch (PSI).
b. two hydraulic systems operating at 3000 pounds per square inch (PSI).
c. three hydraulic systems operating at 2000 pounds per square inch (PSI).
d. three hydraulic systems operating at 3000 pounds per square inch (PSI). |
|
Definition
| B. two hydraulic systems operating at 3000 pounds per square inch (PSI). |
|
|
Term
(805) What flight control surface indicator is designed to display percentage of surface extension?
a. Flap position indicator.
b. Rudder trim position indicator.
c. Aileron trim position indicator.
d. Horizontal stabilizer trim position indicator. |
|
Definition
| A. Flap position indicator. |
|
|
Term
(805) Synchro position indicating systems convert mechanical shaft angles to
a. mechanical shaft degrees.
b. electrical shaft degrees.
c. mechanical signals.
d. electrical signals. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(805) What type of operating power is required by a selsyn position indicating system?
a. 26 VAC.
b. 28 VDC.
c. 115 VAC.
d. 120 VDC. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(805) The selsyn position indicating system transmitter consists of a circular resistance winding
with three taps positioned how many degrees apart?
a. 45.
b. 90.
c. 120.
d. 180. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(806) Manual pitch and roll axis attitude adjustments are allowed by the
a. Flight control augmentation system (FCAS).
b. Stability augmentation system (SAS).
c. Flight management system (FMS).
d. Flight control set (FCS). |
|
Definition
| D. Flight control set (FCS). |
|
|
Term
(806) The flight control set (FCS) roll axis must be engaged for selection of heading select (HDG
SEL) or
a. Mach number hold (MACH HOLD).
b. navigation/localizer (NAV/LOC).
c. altitude hold (ALT HOLD).
d. glide slope (G/S). |
|
Definition
| B. navigation/localizer (NAV/LOC). |
|
|
Term
(806) The flight control set (FCS) pitch axis must be engaged for selection of altitude hold (ALT
HOLD) or
a. Mach number hold (MACH HOLD).
b. Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN).
c. navigation/localizer (NAV/LOC).
d. heading select (HDG SEL). |
|
Definition
| A. Mach number hold (MACH HOLD). |
|
|
Term
(806) Which is not one of the navigation signals that can be selected in the flight control set (FCS)
navigation/localizer (NAV/LOC) mode?
a. Instrument Landing System (ILS).
b. Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN).
c. Flight Management System (FMS).
d. Automatic Direction Finder (ADF). |
|
Definition
| D. Automatic Direction Finder (ADF). |
|
|
Term
(806) The continuous built-in-test (BIT) monitors and records errors within each axis of operation
while the aircraft
a. is in flight and the flight control set (FCS) is engaged.
b. is in flight and the flight control set (FCS) is disengaged.
c. is on the ground and the flight control set (FCS) is engaged.
d. is on the ground and the flight control set (FCS) is disengaged. |
|
Definition
| A. is in flight and the flight control set (FCS) is engaged. |
|
|
Term
(807) All analog signals that come into the flight control set processor (FCSP) are converted to
a. digital.
b. pitot-static.
c. positional feedback.
d. electromagnetic pulse. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(807) Which component provides all switch holding voltages to the flight control set (FCS)
control panel?
a. Flight control set controller.
b. Flight control set processor.
c. Horizontal position sensor.
d. Status/test panel. |
|
Definition
| B. Flight control set processor. |
|
|
Term
(807) Which condition is required to engage the flight control set (FCS) pitch axis?
a. Valid heading signal.
b. Turn knob must be in detent.
c. Valid selected gyro #1 and gyro #2 signals.
d. Series yaw damper system must be engaged. |
|
Definition
| C. Valid selected gyro #1 and gyro #2 signals. |
|
|
Term
(807) What condition is not required for flight control set roll axis engagement?
a. Valid heading signal.
b. Turn knob must be in detent.
c. Valid selected gyro #1 signal.
d. Valid selected gyro #2 signal. |
|
Definition
| D. Valid selected gyro #2 signal. |
|
|
Term
(807) The status/test panel (STP) allows maintenance personnel to initialize and step through
flight control set tests which are controlled by
a. air data computer software.
b. analog to digital conversion.
c. flight control set processor software.
d. flight control set controller software. |
|
Definition
| C. flight control set processor software. |
|
|
Term
(807) The secondary goal of the flight control set continuous built-in-test (CBIT) is to isolate
failures to a particular line replaceable unit (LRU) and store the information in
a. flight control set processor non-volatile memory.
b. flight control set controller non-volatile memory.
c. flight control set processor volatile random access memory.
d. flight control set controller volatile random access memory. |
|
Definition
| A. flight control set processor non-volatile memory. |
|
|
Term
(808) The flight control set (FCS) status/test panel (STP) provides personnel with an interface to
the
a. flight control set disengage annunciator.
b. flight control set control panel.
c. flight control set controller.
d. flight control set processor. |
|
Definition
| D. flight control set processor. |
|
|
Term
(808) Which flight control set (FCS) status/test panel (STP) pushbutton switch allows personnel
to record an indicated failure in memory?
a. POWER.
b. VERIFY.
c. Left arrow (←).
d. Right arrow (→). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(808) Which flight control set (FCS) status/test panel (STP) pushbutton switch allows personnel
to repeat a test?
a. POWER.
b. VERIFY.
c. Left arrow (←).
d. Right arrow (→). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(808) Which flight control set (FCS) status/test panel (STP) pushbutton switch allows personnel
to bypass a report failure?
a. POWER.
b. VERIFY.
c. Left arrow (←).
d. Right arrow (→). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(809) Which component enables the flight crew to engage and disengage the flight control set
(FCS)?
a. Flight control set processor.
b. Flight control set controller.
c. Flight control set control panel.
d. Flight control set status/test panel. |
|
Definition
| C. Flight control set control panel. |
|
|
Term
(809) Engagement of the control panel ROLL axis switch causes the flight control set (FCS) to
maintain the aircraft in a wings-level condition and
a. maintain the prevailing pitch attitude.
b. maintain the prevailing yaw attitude.
c. hold the existing heading.
d. hold the existing altitude. |
|
Definition
| C. hold the existing heading. |
|
|
Term
(809) When the control panel NAV LOC switch is in the ON position, the flight control set (FCS)
automatically
a. flies down the glide slope beam path.
b. navigates along the selected course.
c. achieves Mach.
d. gains altitude. |
|
Definition
| B. navigates along the selected course. |
|
|
Term
(809) What controls the flight control set (FCS) control panel LOC ARM/CAP and G/S
ARM/CAP indicators?
a. Flight control set processor.
b. Flight control set controller.
c. Flight control set control panel.
d. Flight control set status/test panel. |
|
Definition
| A. Flight control set processor. |
|
|
Term
(809) When a flight control set (FCS) mode select switch is switched ON, a 28 VDC
a. engage signal is sent to the flight control set processor.
b. disengage signal is sent to the flight control set processor.
c. engage signal is sent to the flight control set servo drum and bracket.
d. disengage signal is sent to the flight control set servo drum and bracket. |
|
Definition
| A. engage signal is sent to the flight control set processor. |
|
|
Term
(809) What is the degree rotation of the flight control set (FCS) controller thumbwheels?
a. 90.
b. 180.
c. 270.
d. 360. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(809) What is the degree rotation of the flight control set (FCS) controller turn knob?
a. 90.
b. 180.
c. 270.
d. 360. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(810) The flight control set (FCS) uses one servo motor to move the ailerons and one to move the
a. slats.
b. rudders.
c. spoilers.
d. elevators. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(810) Which component provides a drive voltage to the flight control set (FCS) servo motor?
a. Flight control set processor.
b. Flight control set controller.
c. Flight control set control panel.
d. Flight control set status/test panel. |
|
Definition
| A. Flight control set processor. |
|
|
Term
(810) In the flight control set (FCS) system, control surface movement from a neutral position
produces a synchro electrical output signal that is processed by the
a. Flight control set status/test panel.
b. Flight control set control panel.
c. Flight control set controller.
d. Flight control set processor. |
|
Definition
| D. Flight control set processor. |
|
|
Term
(810) What provides the only mechanical connection from the flight control set (FCS) servo
motor to the aircraft control cables?
a. Horizontal position sensor.
b. Servo drum and bracket.
c. Jackscrew assembly.
d. Trim actuator. |
|
Definition
| B. Servo drum and bracket. |
|
|
Term
(810) The flight control set (FCS) horizontal position sensor (HPS) consists of a
a. trim actuator.
b. jackscrew assembly.
c. servo drum and bracket.
d. linear variable differential transformer. |
|
Definition
| D. linear variable differential transformer. |
|
|
Term
(811) The primary function of the flight control set (FCS) roll loop is to fly the aircraft at a wings
level attitude while in
a. heading hold mode.
b. altitude hold mode.
c. glide slope mode.
d. Mach hold mode. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(811) What flight control set processor (FCSP) module makes the aircraft roll smoothly into a turn
regardless of how fast the turn knob is moved?
a. Test module.
b. Pitch control module.
c. Pitch stability module.
d. Roll command module. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(811) What is the maximum bank angle in the flight control set (FCS) heading hold mode?
a. 10 degrees.
b. 15 degrees.
c. 20 degrees.
d. 25 degrees. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(811) What is the maximum bank angle in the flight control set (FCS) heading select mode?
a. 10 degrees.
b. 15 degrees.
c. 20 degrees.
d. 25 degrees. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(811) The flight control set (FCS) will not enter flight management system (FMS) steering mode
until the
a. turn knob is out of detent.
b. turn knob is returned to detent.
c. glide slope (G/S) switch is returned to on.
d. navigation/localizer (NAV/LOC) switch is off. |
|
Definition
| B. turn knob is returned to detent. |
|
|
Term
(811) The flight control set (FCS) tactical air navigation (TACAN) mode will not advance to
capture until the
a. turn knob is in detent.
b. turn knob is out of detent.
c. glide slope (G/S) switch is on.
d. navigation/localizer (NAV/LOC) switch is off. |
|
Definition
| A. turn knob is in detent. |
|
|
Term
(811) What is a prerequisite for entering the flight control set (FCS) localizer (LOC) capture
mode?
a. A valid radio altimeter signal.
b. A valid glide slope signal.
c. A valid air data signal.
d. A valid Mach signal. |
|
Definition
| A. A valid radio altimeter signal. |
|
|
Term
(812) What is the flight control set (FCS) pitch attitude degree limit?
a. 10.
b. 15.
c. 20.
d. 25. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(812) What is not a command input to the flight control set (FCS) pitch loop?
a. Mach hold signals.
b. Glide slope signals.
c. Altitude hold signals.
d. Heading hold signals. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(812) Flight control set (FCS) altitude hold cannot be engaged if the vertical velocity is greater
than how many feet per minute?
a. 3000.
b. 2500.
c. 2000.
d. 1000. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(812) What will cause the flight control set (FCS) glide slope mode to disengage if the beam has
been captured?
a. Selecting navigation/localizer.
b. Selecting heading select.
c. Selecting altitude hold.
d. Selecting test. |
|
Definition
| C. Selecting altitude hold. |
|
|
Term
(812) The flight control set (FCS) pitch thumbwheels, Mach hold, and altitude hold are disabled
in which mode?
a. glide slope capture.
b. localizer capture.
c. glide slope arm.
d. localizer arm. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(813) How can the pilot override the flight control augmentation system (FCAS) inputs?
a. By applying rudder pedal force.
b. By applying control wheel force.
c. By applying control column force.
d. By applying electromagnetic pulses. |
|
Definition
| A. By applying rudder pedal force. |
|
|
Term
(813) Which pounds per square inch (PSI) must the hydraulic pressure to the rudder power control
unit exceed in order for the flight control augmentation system (FCAS) to be operative?
a. 200.
b. 500.
c. 800.
d. 1000. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(813) The engine fail assist system (EFAS) is engaged during all takeoff and landing phases of
flight when the flaps are extended and
a. airspeed is more than 200 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS).
b. airspeed is less than 200 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS).
c. altitude is more than 200 feet above ground level (AGL).
d. altitude is less than 200 feet above ground level (AGL). |
|
Definition
| B. airspeed is less than 200 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS). |
|
|
Term
(813) When does the engine fail assist system (EFAS) provide the greatest rudder assistance?
a. Airspeeds below 160 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS).
b. Airspeeds above 160 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS).
c. Altitudes below 160 feet above ground level (AGL).
d. Altitudes above 160 feet above ground level (AGL). |
|
Definition
| A. Airspeeds below 160 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS). |
|
|
Term
(813) The engine fail assist system (EFAS) asymmetric thrust indicator makes the pilots aware of
differential
a. N2 of 500 RPM or less between the inboard engines.
b. N2 of 500 RPM or less between the outboard engines.
c. N1 of 1500 RPM or greater between the inboard engines.
d. N1 of 1500 RPM or greater between the outboard engines. |
|
Definition
| D. N1 of 1500 RPM or greater between the outboard engines. |
|
|
Term
(814) The series yaw damper (SYD) rudder inputs are initiated by signals from the
a. pitch angle rate gyro.
b. yaw angle rate gyro.
c. heading rate gyro.
d. roll rate gyro. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(814) What can the series yaw damper (SYD) command from any initial rudder position below
350 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS)?
a. A maximum of four degrees left or right rudder deflection.
b. A minimum of four degrees left or right rudder deflection.
c. A maximum of six degrees left or right rudder deflection.
d. A minimum of six degrees left or right rudder deflection. |
|
Definition
| A. A maximum of four degrees left or right rudder deflection. |
|
|
Term
(814) When is the flight control augmentation system (FCAS) built-in-test (BIT) disabled?
a. 20 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS) or greater.
b. 40 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS) or greater.
c. 60 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS) or greater.
d. 80 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS) or greater. |
|
Definition
| D. 80 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS) or greater. |
|
|
Term
(814) The flight control augmentation system (FCAS) flap position switch is actuated when the
flaps are within
a. three to six degrees of full up.
b. three to six degrees of full down.
c. seven to eighteen degrees of full up.
d. seven to eighteen degrees of full down. |
|
Definition
| A. three to six degrees of full up. |
|
|
Term
(814) Electromagnetic pulse (EMP) components are mounted in the flight control augmentation
system (FCAS) air data computer (ADC) survivability/vulnerability (S/V) box to filter out
a. altitude signals.
b. airspeed signals.
c. desirable pulses.
d. undesirable pulses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1. (601) The magnitude of the Coriolis error signal depends on the aircraft speed, aircraft heading,
a.rotation of the Earth, and geographic longitude.
b.rotation of the Earth, and geographic latitude.
c.aircraft attitude, and geographic longitude.
d.aircraft attitude, and geographic latitude. |
|
Definition
| d.aircraft attitude, and geographic latitude. |
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Term
2. (601) What does a misalignment between the magnetic azimuth detector and the aircraft create?
a.Meridian convergence error.
b.Transmission error.
c.Coriolis error.
d.Index error. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(601) From what degrees is the compass system latitude knob on the digital controller continuously variable?
a.0 to 90.
b.0 to 180.
c.45 to 90.
d.45 to 180. |
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Definition
|
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Term
(601) The one-cycle error compensator consists of
a.two variable resistors and three isolation resistors.
b.three variable resistors and two isolation resistors.
c.two variable diodes and three isolation diodes.
d.three variable diodes and two isolation diodes. |
|
Definition
| a.two variable resistors and three isolation resistors. |
|
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Term
(601) In what compass mode does the magnetic azimuth detector send a signal to the remotemagnetic compensator for magnetic compensation?a.DG mode.
b.RGA mode.
c.MAG mode.
d.AUTO mode. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
(602) The control console is used to conduct the compass swing once the magnetic azimuthdetector is transferred to and aligned in the
a.tripod.
b.aircraft.
c.compass rose.
d.magnetic field monitor. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
(602) The telescope on the magnetic field monitor is
a.42-power and rotates 180 degrees.
b.42-power and rotates 360 degrees.
c.22-power and rotates 180 degrees.
d.22-power and rotates 360 degrees. |
|
Definition
| d.22-power and rotates 360 degrees. |
|
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Term
9. (602) Which cable is not part of the compass calibration set reel assemblies?
a.Power.
b.Monitor.
c.Intercom.
d.Transmitter. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
(602) A compass swing must be performed after replacing the
a.magnetic azimuth detector or remote magnetic compensator.
b.remote magnetic compensator or digital controller.
c.magnetic azimuth detector or digital controller.
d.compass controller or compass amplifier.
11. |
|
Definition
| a.magnetic azimuth detector or remote magnetic compensator. |
|
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Term
(603) The flight director control panel pitch command selects a climb or descent angle from
a.20 degrees up to 5 degrees down.
b.15 degrees up to 5 degrees down.
c.20 degrees up to 10 degrees down.
d.15 degrees up to 10 degrees down.
12. |
|
Definition
| d.15 degrees up to 10 degrees down. |
|
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Term
(603) The attitude director indicator (ADI) speed deviation scale and pointer indicates deviation from desired
a.approach speed.
b.approach track.
c.ground speed.
d.ground track.
13. |
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Definition
|
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Term
(603) What commands the horizontal situation indicator (HSI) heading bug?a.Remote heading slew switch.
b.Pitch command control.
c.Heading slew controls.
d.Rate-of-turn indicator.
14. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
(603) With the remote heading slew switch in the DUAL position, which heading bug(s) willmove when the pilot heading slew control is pressed?a.Pilot only.
b.Copilot only.
c.Pilot and copilot.
d.Pilot and navigator.
15. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(603) Where are the roll and pitch computer lateral and vertical steering commands displayed?
a. Horizontal situation indicator (HSI) lubber line.
b.Attitude director indicator (ADI) command bars.
c. Horizontal situation indicator (HSI) compass card.
d.Attitude director indicator (ADI) speed deviation scale. |
|
Definition
| b.Attitude director indicator (ADI) command bars. |
|
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Term
(604) In the rotation go-around (RGA) subsystem with the flaps are set at 30 degrees, how many degrees of initial climbout are displayed on the attitude direction indicator (ADI) during takeoff?
a. 7.
b. 8.
c.8.5.
d.9.5.
17. |
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Definition
|
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Term
(604) Pressing the rotation go-around (RGA) control wheel switch on approach causes the attitudedirection indicator (ADI) to command a
a.wings-level dive attitude of 7 degrees.
b.wings-level dive attitude of 8 degrees.
c.wings-level climb attitude of 7 degrees.
d.wings-level climb attitude of 8 degrees.
18. |
|
Definition
| c.wings-level climb attitude of 7 degrees. |
|
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Term
(604) In the rotation go-around (RGA) subsystem, the angle-of-attack transmitters detect and transmit changes in local angle-of-attack at aircraft speeds above how many knots?a. 70.
b. 80.
c. 90.
d.100.
19. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(604) What rotation go-around (RGA) component averages the angle-of-attack signals?
a.RGA computer.
b.RGA control panel.
c.RGA interface logic unit.
d.Longitudinal accelerometer. |
|
Definition
| c.RGA interface logic unit. |
|
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Term
20. (604) The rotation go-around (RGA) interface logic unit flap indicators indicate the presence of
a.15 or 25 degree flap discrete signals
b.20 or 25 degree flap discrete signals.
c.25 or 30 degree flap discrete signals.
d.25 or 35 degree flap discrete signals. |
|
Definition
| a.15 or 25 degree flap discrete signals |
|
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Term
(604) Which rotation go-around (RGA) interface logic unit test switch must be activated to allowgo-around mode testing on the ground?
a.Dim switch.
b.Flap test switch.c.Test reset switch.
d.Weight-on-wheels test switch.
22. |
|
Definition
| d.Weight-on-wheels test switch. |
|
|
Term
(605) The comparator warning monitor subsystem continuously monitors and compares the inputs to the flight director from the
a.compass, localizer, glide slope, and autopilot systems.
b.compass, localizer, glide slope, and radio altimeter systems.
c.compass, localizer, glide slope, and flight management systems.
d.compass, localizer, glide slope, and barometric altimeter systems. |
|
Definition
| b.compass, localizer, glide slope, and radio altimeter systems. |
|
|
Term
(605) The comparator warning indicators illuminate when one of the
a.five monitored dual navigation systems has a discrepancy.
b.seven monitored dual navigation systems has a discrepancy.
c.five monitored dual navigation systems is operating correctly.
d.seven monitored dual navigation systems is operating correctly. |
|
Definition
| a.five monitored dual navigation systems has a discrepancy. |
|
|
Term
(605) After localizer capture, how many degrees of error must be detected for the compass system indicator on the comparator warning monitor display panel to illuminate?
a. 3.
b. 4.
c. 5.
d. 6.
25. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(605) The rotation go-around (RGA) system indicator on the comparator warning monitor display panel illuminates when a differential error of
a.two degrees pitch exists for more than three seconds between the RGA computers.
b.three degrees pitch exists for more than two seconds between the RGA computers.
c.two degrees pitch exists for more than three seconds between the steering computers.
d.three degrees pitch exists for more than two seconds between the steering computers.
26. |
|
Definition
| b.three degrees pitch exists for more than two seconds between the RGA computers. |
|
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Term
(606) What drives the attitude director indicator (ADI) command bars to a wings-level attitude in the rotation go-around (RGA) mode of the flight director system?
a.RGA interface logic unit.
b.Pitch steering computer.
c.Roll steering computer.
d.RGA computer.
27. |
|
Definition
| c.Roll steering computer. |
|
|
Term
(606) In what flight director mode are the attitude director indicator (ADI) command bars drivenout of view?a.Heading (HDG).
b.GYRO.
c.Navigation/localizer (NAV/LOC).
d.Approach/manual (APPR MAN).
28. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(606) Switching the mode selector on the flight director control panel to the HDG position causes the pitch steering computer to operate in either the
a.manual pitch or altitude hold mode.
b.altitude hold or glide slope mode.
c.manual pitch or localizer mode.
d.altitude hold or localizer mode.
29. |
|
Definition
| a.manual pitch or altitude hold mode. |
|
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Term
(606) In the flight director system, what initiates the glide slope extension mode?
a.100 foot altitude trip voltage.
b.200 foot altitude trip voltage.
c.300 foot altitude trip voltage.
d.500 foot altitude trip voltage.
30. |
|
Definition
| b.200 foot altitude trip voltage. |
|
|
Term
(606) In the flight director system, what mode overrides the navigation (NAV) lateral and glideslope beam sensors?
a.Rotation go-around (RGA).
b.Navigation/localizer (NAV/LOC).
c.Approachmanual (APPR MAN).
d.Approach automatic (APPR AUTO).
31. |
|
Definition
| c.Approachmanual (APPR MAN). |
|
|
Term
(607) The inertial navigation unit (INU) section of the embedded global positioning and inertialnavigation unit (EGI) consists of
a.two ring laser gyros and two accelerometers.
b.two ring laser gyros and three accelerometers.
c.three ring laser gyros and two accelerometers.
d.three ring laser gyros and three accelerometers. |
|
Definition
| d.three ring laser gyros and three accelerometers |
|
|
Term
(607) What inertial navigation system (INS) component provides precise angular rate information about the aircraft pitch, roll, and yaw axes?
a.Accelerometers.
b.Ring laser gyros.
c.Synchro repeaters.
d.Control/annunciator panel.
33. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(607) The inertial navigation unit (INU) accelerometer pendulum moves in response to an applied
a.acceleration.
b.wind speed.
c.laser beam.
d.frequency.
34. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(607) What component replacement should be an early maintenance consideration if the embedded global positioning and inertial navigation unit (EGI) does not acquire satellites?
a.Battery.
b.Accelerometer.
c.Ring laser gyro.
d.Synchro repeater.
35. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(607) Synchro repeaters amplify and distribute inertial navigation unit (INU) attitude signals to the
a.flight director, flight displays, color weather radar, and autopilot systems.
b.flight director, flight displays, color weather radar, and compass systems.
c.flight director, compass, color weather radar, and autopilot systems.
d.flight director, flight displays, compass, and autopilot systems.
36. |
|
Definition
| a.flight director, flight displays, color weather radar, and autopilot systems. |
|
|
Term
(608) What mode does the embedded global positioning and inertial navigation unit (EGI)automatically enter following power-up initialization?
a.Airborne alignment.
b.Gyro compass alignment.
c.Inertial navigation system initialization (INS INIT).
d.Global positioning system initialization (GPS INIT).
37. |
|
Definition
| c.Inertial navigation system initialization (INS INIT). |
|
|
Term
(608) How long does it take the embedded global positioning and inertial navigation unit (EGI) to transition from gyro compass alignment to navigate mode?
a.4 seconds.
b.4 minutes.
c.20 seconds.
d.20 minutes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(608) The embedded global positioning and inertial navigation unit (EGI) stored heading (SH)alignment is completed in
a.30 seconds.
b.60 minutes.
c.30 minutes.
d.60 seconds.
39. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(608) What system signals are used in the embedded global positioning and inertial navigation unit (EGI) airborne (AIR) alignment mode?
a.Global positioning.
b.Flight director.
c.Autopilot.
d.Compass. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(608) In the pure inertial mode, the inertial navigation unit (INU) portion of the embedded global positioning and inertial navigation unit (EGI) acts independent of all external input sources except
a.compass.
b.autopilot.
c.flight director.
d.digital air data.
41. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(608) Which embedded global positioning and inertial navigation unit (EGI) navigation solution provides the best estimate of position, attitude, velocity, and time?
a.global positioning system only.
b.Pure inertial.
c.Stored heading.
d.Blended solution. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(609) When the junction of the alumel and chromel metals in the exhaust gas temperature indicating system is heated or cooled, a voltage is produced that can be correlated to the a. temperature.
b. pressure.
c. torque.
d. speed.
43. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(609) Exhaust gas temperature thermocouple wiring is equal in length and installed in
a. oil.
b. fuel.
c. series.
d. parallel.
44. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(609) What is the operating range of the analog pointer on the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicator?
a. 0 to 1000 degrees Celsius.
b. 20 to 975 degrees Celsius.
c. 0 to 1000 degrees Fahrenheit.
d. 70 to 975 degrees Fahrenheit.
45. |
|
Definition
| a. 0 to 1000 degrees Celsius. |
|
|
Term
(609) What will the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicator digital readout indicate during the built-in-test?
a. 975 degrees (±20 degrees Celsius).
b. 999 degrees (±20 degrees Celsius).
c. 975 degrees (±70 degrees Fahrenheit).
d. 999 degrees (±70 degrees Fahrenheit).
46. |
|
Definition
| a. 975 degrees (±20 degrees Celsius). |
|
|
Term
(610) Engine inlet pressure and engine exhaust pressure are applied to the dual bellows in the engine pressure ratio (EPR) transducer through
a. an electrical connector.
b. a pair of tubes.
c. shock mounts.
d. an amplifier. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(610) Instead of using a dual bellows sensing element, what type sensing element does the digital engine pressure ratio transducer use?
a. Piezocapacitive temperature.
b. Piezoresistive temperature.
c. Piezocapacitive pressure.
d. Piezoresistive pressure |
|
Definition
| d. Piezoresistive pressure |
|
|
Term
(610) What engine pressure ratio indicates exhaust pressure is equal to inlet pressure?
a. 0.1.
b. 1.0.
c. 2.0.
d. 4.1. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(611) What types of sensing elements are used in the oil pressure transmitter?
a. Magnets.
b. Aneroids.
c. Dual bellows.
d. Bourdon tubes.
50. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(611) The oil pressure transmitter vented Bourdon tube is vented to the a. atmosphere.
b. case.
c. fuel.
d. oil. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(611) What is the only moving part in the oil pressure indicator?
a. Synchro receiver.
b. Bourdon tube.
c. Sector gear.
d. Rotor. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(611) The oil pressure indicator displays oil pressure from how many pounds per square inch (psi)?
a. 0 to 150.
b. 0 to 200.
c. 15 to 100.
d. 15 to 200. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(612) The fuel flow indicator provides pointer and digital readouts of
a. engine fuel flow rate in pounds per hour.
b. engine fuel flow rate in ounces per hour.
c. engine fuel used in pounds.
d. engine fuel used in ounces. |
|
Definition
| a. engine fuel flow rate in pounds per hour. |
|
|
Term
(612) The fuel used indicator provides a continuous digital readout of the accumulative
a. fuel consumption by each engine in pounds.
b. fuel consumption by each engine in ounces.
c. oil consumption by each engine in pounds.
d. oil consumption by each engine in ounces. |
|
Definition
| a. fuel consumption by each engine in pounds. |
|
|
Term
(612) What is the speed in revolutions per minute (RPM) of the fuel flow transmitter motor?
a. 50.
b. 100.
c. 150.
d. 1000. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(612) How many pounds of fuel does each fuel flow electronic module pulse sent to the fuel used indicator represent?
a. 10.
b. 90.
c. 100.
d. 270. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(613) What causes a signal to be induced in the N1 tachometer transmitter sensor coil?
a. Engine fan blade passing by the magnetic field of the N1 tachometer transmitter.
b. Engine fan blade passing by the magnetic field of the N2 tachometer transmitter.
c. Engine fan blade passing by the limit index of the N1 tachometer transmitter.
d. Engine fan blade passing by the limit index of the N2 tachometer transmitter. |
|
Definition
| a. Engine fan blade passing by the magnetic field of the N1 tachometer transmitter. |
|
|
Term
| (613) The face of the N1 tachometer indicator is graduated from what range? a. 0 to 125 percent, in 15 percent increments. b. 0 to 125 percent, in 5 percent increments. c. 0 to 95 percent, in 15 percent increments. d. 0 to 95 percent, in 5 percent increments. |
|
Definition
| b. 0 to 125 percent, in 5 percent increments. |
|
|
Term
(613) In the tachometer indicating system, what range represents the maximum percent of allowable N1 revolutions per minute (RPM)?
a. 60 to 120.
b. 80 to 120.
c. 60 to 121.4.
d. 80 to 121.4. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(613) The tachometer indicator built-in-test is initiated by rotating a small screw on the front of the indicator
a. 90 degrees clockwise.
b. 45 degrees clockwise.
c. 90 degrees counterclockwise.
d. 45 degrees counterclockwise. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(613) The N2 tachometer transmitter is an alternating current generator whose frequency is directly proportional to
a. rotor speed.
b. stator speed.
c. ground speed.
d. maximum speed. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(614) The torquemeter assembly consists of
a. three concentric shaft assemblies.
b. two concentric shaft assemblies.
c. three pickoff coils.
d. two pickoff coils. |
|
Definition
| b. two concentric shaft assemblies. |
|
|
Term
(614) The torquemeter indicator displays torque value from
a. –4,000 inch pounds to 24,000 inch pounds.
b. –4,000 inch pounds to 28,000 inch pounds.
c. –4,000 foot pounds to 24,000 foot pounds.
d. –4,000 foot pounds to 28,000 foot pounds. |
|
Definition
| b. –4,000 inch pounds to 28,000 inch pounds. |
|
|
Term
(614) When are the flange teeth on the torquemeter assembly in alignment?
a. Zero torque.
b. Positive torque.
c. Negative torque.
d. Feedback torque. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(614) When positive torque is applied to the torquemeter assembly, the
a. feedback pulse leads the torque pulse.
b. reference pulse leads the torque pulse.
c. torque pulse leads the feedback the pulse.
d. torque pulse leads the reference the pulse. |
|
Definition
| b. reference pulse leads the torque pulse. |
|
|
Term
(614) When negative torque is applied to the torquemeter assembly, the
a. feedback pulse leads the torque pulse.
b. reference pulse leads the torque pulse.
c. torque pulse leads the feedback the pulse.
d. torque pulse leads the reference the pulse. |
|
Definition
| d. torque pulse leads the reference the pulse. |
|
|
Term
(615) How many magnetic reed switches are connected to the oil quantity transmitter’s resistance element?
a. Seven.
b. Eight.
c. Nine.
d. Ten. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(615) What does the oil quantity transmitter float assembly follow?
a. Power level.
b. Fluid level.
c. Amplifier.
d. Torquer. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(615) What oil quantity transmitter signal positions the indicator pointer?
a. Power.
b. Output.
c. Ground.
d. Potentiometer. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(615) The output of the oil quantity indicator amplifier is applied to the
a. resistance element.
b. reed switch.
c. torquer.
d. float. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(616) Each fuel quantity probe consists of two concentric tubes forming an inner and outer
a. potentiometer.
b. electrode.
c. resistor.
d. float. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(616) Fuel tanks closer to the wing tips contain more fuel quantity probes to compensate for
a. greater attitude changes during aircraft roll.
b. smaller attitude changes during aircraft roll.
c. greater attitude changes during aircraft pitch.
d. smaller attitude changes during aircraft pitch. |
|
Definition
| a. greater attitude changes during aircraft roll |
|
|
Term
(616) What fuel quantity indicating system component accounts for changes in the density of the fuel?
a. Total fuel quantity indicator.
b. Fuel quantity indicator.
c. Compensator probe.
d. Tank probe. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(616) What term is used for the unshielded wire used as a power lead in the fuel quantity indicating system?
a. Lo-Z.
b. Hi-Z.
c. Kapton.
d. Thermocouple. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(616) What term is used for the shielded wire used as a signal lead in the fuel quantity indicating system? a. Lo-Z.
b. Hi-Z.
c. Kapton.
d. Thermocouple. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(616) What component of the capacitance liquid quality system supplies excitation voltage to the fuel probes?
a. Total fuel quantity indicator.
b. Fuel quantity indicator.
c. Ratio unit.
d. Amplifier. |
|
Definition
| b. Fuel quantity indicator. |
|
|
Term
(616) The total fuel quantity indicator displays the total amount of fuel on-board the aircraft in
a. pints.
b. quarts.
c. gallons.
d. pounds. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(616) Outputs from the fuel quantity system bridge circuit reference leg and variable leg are
a. 90 degrees out-of-phase with each other.
b. 180 degrees out-of-phase with each other.
c. 270 degrees out-of-phase with each other.
d. 360 degrees out-of-phase with each other. |
|
Definition
| b. 180 degrees out-of-phase with each other. |
|
|
Term
(616) When fuel is added to the tank, fuel quantity probe capacitance
a. increases and current decreases.
b. increases and current increases.
c. decreases and current decreases.
d. decreases and current increases. |
|
Definition
| b. increases and current increases. |
|
|
Term
(616) When fuel is being used, fuel quantity probe capacitance
a. increases and current decreases.
b. increases and current increases.
c. decreases and current increases.
d. decreases and current decreases. |
|
Definition
| d. decreases and current decreases. |
|
|
Term
(616) What type of fuel quantity indicating system malfunction causes an indicator pointer to continuously rotate clockwise?
a. Open Lo-Z.
b. Open Hi-Z.
c. Open compensator.
d. Shorted compensator. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(616) When water contaminates the fuel at the fuel quantity probe, the dielectric constant increases,
a. capacitance increases, and current increases.
b. capacitance increases, and current decreases.
c. capacitance decreases, and current increases.
d. capacitance decreases, and current decreases. |
|
Definition
| a. capacitance increases, and current increases. |
|
|
Term
(617) The PSD60–1AF fuel quantity test set measures insulation resistance in a. picofarads.
b. megohms.
c. amperes.
d. volts. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(617) How is the PSD60–1AF fuel quantity test set powered?
a. Rechargeable batteries.
b. Alternating current.
c. Alkaline batteries.
d. Aircraft power. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(617) Which PSD60–1AF fuel quantity test set function switch position is used to select measurement of TANK UNIT parameters?
a. SIM ONLY.
b. MEASURE INT.
c. MEASURE EXT.
d. AIRCRAFT ONLY. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(617) What is the purpose of the PSD60–1AF fuel quantity test set vernier dials?
a. Coarse adjustments of simulation values.
b. Fine adjustments of simulation values.
c. Coarse adjustments of power values.
d. Fine adjustments of ground values. |
|
Definition
| b. Fine adjustments of simulation values |
|
|
Term
(617) Voltage checks between the PSD60–1AF fuel quantity test set chassis and ground
a. are not required.
b. are always required.
c. are required for new power sources. d. are required for resistance checks. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(618) The capacity of the bonding meter battery is adequate for how many hours of continuous operation?
a. 2.
b. 6.
c. 8.
d. 20. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(618) What initiates operation of the bonding meter?
a. Built-in display illumination.
b. Resistance range setting.
c. LAMP switch.
d. TEST switch. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(618) On a range setting of two milliohms the bonding meter will measure from
a. 0 to 1.999 milliohms.
b. 0 to 19.99 milliohms.
c. 19 to 199.9 milliohms.
d. 199 to 1999 milliohms. |
|
Definition
|
|
