Term
IgE is induced by allergen and bound via its Fc receptor to mast cells and eosinophils. After encountering the antigen again, the fixed IgE induces degranulation and release of mediators (e.g. histamine) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Antigens on a cell surface combine with antibody, which leads to complement-mediated lysis or other cytotoxic membrane damage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ag-Ab immune complexes are deposited in tissues, complement is activated, and PMN cells are attracted to the site, causing tissue damage |
|
Definition
Type III Hypersensitivity |
|
|
Term
T cells, sensitized by an antigen, release cytokines upon second contact with same antigen. The cytokines induce inflammation and activate macrophages |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
- Vascular Adherence (cell rolling)
- Diapedesis - process of neutrophils moving through EC into ECM
- Activation - increased granules
- Phagocytosis and Killing
|
|
Definition
Phagocyte (neutrophil) Response to Infection |
|
|
Term
Characteristic of neutrophils
Contain
Cationic proteins
Defensins (play a role in killing)
myeloperoxidase |
|
Definition
Characteristics of Primary Neutrophil Granules |
|
|
Term
Specific for Mature Neutrophils
Contain
lysozyme
NADPH
Lactoferrin (reduce ability to use Fe)
B-12 binding protein (reduce ability to use B-12) |
|
Definition
Characteristics of Secondary Granules |
|
|
Term
Receptor Mediated
- Attachment
- Pseudopod Extension
- Phagosome Formation
- Granule Fusion
- Phagolysosome Formation
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Damage to Microbial membranes |
|
Definition
Function of Cationic Proteins |
|
|
Term
Hydrolyses mucopeptides in the cell wall |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Deprives pathogens of iron |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Function of Hydrolytic enzymes (proteases) |
|
|
Term
Fragments of complement proteins released during activation.
Results in increased vascular permeability and attracts leukocytes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bacterial toxins released from damaged cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
CD8
T cells that kill other cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Lysis of bacteria or cells by insertion of membrane attack complex derived from compliment activation
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A process whereby phagocytic cells are attracted to the vicinity of invading pathogens |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Immunity in which the participation of lymphocytes and macrophages is predominant.
Generally applied to Type IV Hypersensitivity |
|
Definition
Cell-mediated (cellular) immunity |
|
|
Term
B cells are the precursors of plasma cells that produce antibody |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A substance that can react with an antibody |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A protein produced as a result of interaction with antigen.
The protein has the ability to combine with the antigen that stimulated its production. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Variants of a single genetic locus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Molecules that mediate the binding of cells to other cells or ECM (such as fibronectin) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Large granular lymphoid cells with no known antigen-specific receptors. The are able to recognize and kill certain abnormal cells and also activate the innate response |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A phagocytic blood cell that matures into a tissue macrophage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A phagocytic mononuclear cell found in tissues and at site of inflamation.
Also an accessory role is an antigen-presenting cell (APC) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Low MW proteins that stimulate leukocyte movement |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Characterized by a multilobed nucleus
Phagocytic for bacteria and other particles |
|
Definition
Polymorphonuclear Cell (PMN) |
|
|
Term
Cluster of gen es in close proximity that encodes the histocompatibility antigens |
|
Definition
Major Histocompatability Complex |
|
|
Term
A molecule that is not immunogenic by itself but can react with a specific antibody |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A set of plasma proteins that is the primary mediator of antigen-antibody reactions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Induction of immunity by injecting a dead or attenuated form of a pathogen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A thymus-derived cell that participates in a variety of cell-mediated immune reactions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A terminally differentiated B cell that secretes antibody |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The coating of an antigen or particle by sustances (such as Ab, complement, fibronectin, etc.) that facilitate phagocytosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A substance capable of enhancing phagocytosis.
Antibodies and complement are the two main opsonins. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The end product of activation of the complement cascade, which makes holes in the membrane of cells, resulting in lysis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Monomuclear cell containing a densely packed nucleus and a small rim of cytoplasm.
Includes T cells and B cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Low MW proteins elaborated by infected cells.
Protect noninfected cells from viral infection.
Cytokines that also have immunomodulating functions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Local accumulation of fluid and cells after injury or infection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Subdivision based on structural differences
IgG
IgA
IgM
IgE
IgD |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A subdivision of the classes of immunoglobulins based on structural differences. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A glycoprotein that functions as antibody. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Protection azquired by deliberate introduction of an antigen into a responsive host. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Nonspecific resistance not acquired through contact with antigen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Development of resistance to a foreign substance
Can be antibody-mediated, cell-mediated, or both |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pertaining to Immunity in a body fluid and used to denote immunity mediated by antibody and complement |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Sharing transplantation antigens |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Site on an antigen recognized by an antibody |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Developing T cells found in thymus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
- To produce, maintain, and distribute lymphocytes
- To act as a filter
- To return excess water from the interstitial space back to the general circulation
|
|
Definition
Functions of Lymphoid System |
|
|
Term
- Start as pockets rather than tubes
- Larger diameter
- Have thinner walls
- Flat and irregular in section
|
|
Definition
How do lymphatic capillaries differ from blood capillaries? |
|
|
Term
Special lymphatic capillaries in small intestine
Transport lipids from digestive tract |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
from the right lymphatic duct empties into the right subclavian vein
from the thoracic duct empties into the left subclavian vein |
|
Definition
Where do all lympatics empty into? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
CD Markers of Neutrophils |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
CD Markers of Macrophages |
|
|
Term
Presence of CD 56 and CD 16
Absence of CD 3 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
CD 8
binds to MHC class I molecules |
|
Definition
CD Markers of Cytotoxic T Cells |
|
|
Term
CD 4
binds to MHC class II molecules |
|
Definition
CD Markers on Helper T Cells |
|
|
Term
Distributed on all nucleated somatic cells
Present peptide antigens to CD 8 T cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Distributed on antigen-presenting cells and activated T cells
Present peptide antigens to CD 4 T cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Classical Pathway
Lectin Pathway
Alternative Pathway |
|
Definition
3 Pathways of Complement Activation |
|
|
Term
IgM and IgG attach to pathogen
C1 binds to Ab
C3 is cleaved by C3 Convertase into C3a and C3b |
|
Definition
Describe the Classical Pathway of Complement Activation |
|
|
Term
Mannose-binding lectin binds to sugar residues found in microbial surface polysaccharides
Then the pathway follows the classical pathway from the cleaving of C3 |
|
Definition
Describe the Lectin Pathway of Complement Activation
|
|
|
Term
Many different substances activate C3 cleavage |
|
Definition
Describe the Alternative Pathway of Complement Activation
|
|
|
Term
Recruitment of Inflammatory Cells
Opsonization
Membrane Attack Complex |
|
Definition
3 Possibilities of cell Death from Complement |
|
|
Term
- Neutrophil activation
- neutrophil adhesion
- promotes diapedesis and chemotaxis
- monocyte activation to produce IL-1 and IL-6
- Mast Cell degranulation
|
|
Definition
Biological Effects of C5a |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
How many complement proteins are there? |
|
|
Term
C3 is cleaved by C3 convertase into C3a and C3b
C3a is an anaphylatoxin
C3b leads to the MAC or Opsonization |
|
Definition
Why is C3 important in the complement cascade? |
|
|
Term
Predisposition to Systemic Lupus Erethymetosis
Opsonization of immune complexes help keep them soluble, deficiency results in increased precipitation in tissues and inflammation. |
|
Definition
What is the disease and mechanism associated with a deficiency of C1, C2, and C4? |
|
|
Term
Susceptibility to bacterial infections.
Lack of opsonization and inability to utilize MAC |
|
Definition
What is the disease and mechanism associated with a deficiency of C3?
|
|
|
Term
Susceptibility to Gram Negative infections
Inability to attack outer membrane
Clinical manifestation is increased temperature and respiratory rate and decreased BP |
|
Definition
What is the disease and mechanism associated with a deficiency of C5-C9?
|
|
|
Term
Two chains (a and b) that have a transmembrane portion and a distal CDR.
This attaches to the MHC markers on a cell surface. |
|
Definition
Describe the structure and function of T Cell receptors |
|
|
Term
- The native protein is denatured
- Peptides are cut and placed in MHC "cradle"
- MHC is exocytosed to the plasma membrane
MHC class I has b-2 microglobulin (non-covalently linked) and presents to CD8 T cells
MHC class II presents to CD4 T cells
TH1 activates macrophages
TH2 activates B cells
|
|
Definition
Describe the structure and process of antigen presentation with MHC markers |
|
|
Term
Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA) |
|
Definition
What are MHC markers also known as? |
|
|
Term
- Progenetor cells give rise to many lymphocytes of different specificity
- An antigen comes in contact with a lymphocyte of correct specificity
- Clonal expansion due to being activated by presentation with antigen
|
|
Definition
Describe the process of clonal selection and differentiation. |
|
|
Term
Complementary Determinant Region
The domain on an immunoglobulin or T cell receptor that is variable and includes the active site. |
|
Definition
What is the CDR portion of immunoglobulins and T cell receptors? |
|
|
Term
Ab sees and binds to native conformation
T cell recognition requires processing and is going to be presented on an MHC molecule |
|
Definition
What is different about the peptide when it is presented by surface immunoglobulins as opposed to MHCs? |
|
|
Term
Type 1 Helper T cell
INF-g released by innate system cells
activates macrophages or cause B cells to switch to IgG
Promotes bacterial clearance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Type 2 Helper T cells
IL-4 is released
Activate mast cells and eosinophils and cause B cells to switch production to IgE
Aids in response to parasites |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
pentamer
primary immune response |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
dimer
prevent attachment of pathogens to EC |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
monomer
primary and secondary immune response |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
monomer
binds to mast cells and basophils to cause them to release histamine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
monomer
attached to surface of B cell
important in B cell activation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Somatic recombination
Point mutations
Class switching |
|
Definition
Mechanisms of Antibody Diversity |
|
|
Term
Neutralization
Agglutination
Precipitation
Complement Fixation |
|
Definition
Mechanisms of antibody action |
|
|
Term
[image]Variable region on the N-termini
Fc region is constant and may have transmembrane regions on C-termini if on B cell
Heavy Chains are 50 kD each
Light Chains are 25 kD each |
|
Definition
Describe the structure and function of antibodies/immunoglobulin |
|
|
Term
Source: Macrophages (IFN-a), fibroblasts (IFN-b)
Function: Antiviral
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Source: T Cells and NK Cells
Function: Activateion of macrophage and TH1 differentiation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Source: Macrophages and T cells
Function: Cell activation, fever, cachexia, antitumor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Source: T cells
Function: Activates PMNs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Source: Macrophages
Function: Cell activation, fever |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Source: T cells
Function: T cell growth and activation
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Source: T cells and mast cells
Function: B cell proliferation and switching to IgE
TH2 differentiation
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Source: Macrophages
Function: Differentiation of T cells
activation of NK cells
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This includes immunological barriers and the innate immune response |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
These are the two main buckets of the acquired immune response |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Host is not actively involved in, you just acquire due to transfer of immunoglobulins |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
2 Parts of Passive Immunity |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Giving someone antibodies against rabies is an example of what immunity? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Passing immunity from the mother to fetus or through breastfeeding is an example of which immunity? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Receiving a flu shot would be an example of which immunity? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
When exposed to an antigen for a second time and memory B and T cells are activated against it, this type of immunity is? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What are the three main levels of acute inflammatory response? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Which antibody is naturally acquired through colostrum from mother? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is an advantage of passive immunity? |
|
|
Term
No long term protection
Serum sickness
Type III Hypersensitivity
Transmissino of Hepatitis and AIDS
GVHD |
|
Definition
What are the disadvantages of passive immunity? |
|
|
Term
Attenuated organisms
Killed Organisms
Subcellular Fragments
Toxins |
|
Definition
What are 4 methods in which artificial active immunity can be made from? |
|
|
Term
When T cells are removed from the thymus and B cells are removed from the bone marrow, then they are inactivated to produce tolerance. |
|
Definition
What is central tolerance? |
|
|
Term
Lack of response due to the absence of signals |
|
Definition
What is peripheral tolerance? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the loss of tolerance? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A mechanism by which we see autoimmune diseases develop. Molecules that look like self. Therefore host cells are attcked by immune system. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is an autoimmune disease that follow strep throat. |
|
|
Term
Severe Combined Immune Deficiency |
|
Definition
What does SCID stand for? |
|
|
Term
The thymus is not developed properly
It is a T Cell disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Lack of IgG development
Lack of B Cell development |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The inability of cells to be phagocytic |
|
Definition
What is Chediak-Higashi Disease? |
|
|
Term
Pregnancy
Blood Transfusion
Previous Transplant |
|
Definition
What are the three ways that patients can be sensitized to HLA? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is where the body already has antibodies against transplant. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is the rejection where HLA sensitization produces HLA specific antibodies and T cells are generated. |
|
|
Term
Graft versus Host Disease |
|
Definition
What does GVHD stand for? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
T/F: There is no evidence that the frequency of cancer rises with patients with immunodeficiencies. |
|
|
Term
Tumor associated Antigens |
|
Definition
These antigens are similar to viral infection and create defective signaling that will not activate T cells properly. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Who developed the smallpox vaccination? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Sniffing of small pox crust |
|
Definition
In 3000 BC Egyptians and 2000 BC in China, sniffed this to be immunized. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The Turks introduced this in 1500 BC |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This vaccine was introduced in 1885 by Pasteur |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This vaccine was introduced in the 1920's |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Vaccine for this was introduced in 1934 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What vaccine was developed in the 1960's and by whom? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This disease is caused by the variola virus |
|
|
Term
Activate immune response immediately
Produce antibodies quickly
Prevent disease from occurring because the antigen is eliminated rapidly |
|
Definition
A memory B cell or T cell circulating through the body will elicit which three responses when recognizing antigen? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This vaccine is made from a virus or bacteria that has to replicate to work. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Made from a virus or bacteria, can fractionate, and organisms do not replicate. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
T/F: A toxoid takes a toxin and chemically alters it so it loses its activity but can still illicit an immune response |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This vaccine type stimulates T cell independent immunity. It stimulates B cells without T cells, is short lived and needs boosters. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This vaccine type stimulates T cell dependent immunity. T helper cells involved, produces memory and results in booster effect upon subsequent exposure. |
|
|
Term
Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) |
|
Definition
What is a known complication of the H1N1 vaccine? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
T/F: Gullain-Barre Syndrome is a neurological disease |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
T/F: Humoral factors and cell-mediated immune phenomena have been implicated in the damage of myelin and or myelin-producing Schwann cells. |
|
|
Term
Vaccinations
Epidural anesthesia
Thrombolytic agents |
|
Definition
List three events that GBS follows |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the infection that is known to hae the highest prevalence of GBS if infected with it before GBS? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the primary method of treatment for GBS? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A single cell producing a single antibody specificity |
|
|
Term
Cleaves both Fab regions and the Fc region |
|
Definition
How does papain cleave IgG? |
|
|
Term
Yes they can. However, effectiveness is quite limited. |
|
Definition
When papain cleaves an IgG molecule, can Fab and the Fc regions still bind? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This separates the Fc fragment from the Fab regions and leaves the Fab regions bivalent. Therefore it cannot bind complement anymore. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
T/F: A papain digested IgG could neutralize a toxin. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
T/F: Could a pepsin digested IgG neutralize? |
|
|
Term
False
The macrophage would not be able to recognize |
|
Definition
T/F: A pepsin or papaindigested fragment can opsonize? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the spleen cells in a laboratory fused with to make an immortal cell line? |
|
|
Term
Hypervariable regions directing involved with antigen binding |
|
Definition
Humanized Monoclonal Antibodies
Which part of the mouse antibody is not replace with humanized counterparts to create humanized monoclonal antibodies? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
T/F: In a chimeric antibody, the variable light and variable heavy chains are xenographic in nature. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What type of humanized monoclonal antibody has a human framework, but xenographic CDR? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Hybridomas and recombinant DNA technologies are two ways of producing ____ _____. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
When producing monoclonal antibodies through recombinant technology, what vector is usually used to accomplish this? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Toxins can be coupled to antibodies through papain digestion. |
|
|
Term
False
OKT3 is against CD3 T cells |
|
Definition
T/F: OKT3 is a mouse monoclonal antibody that is against CD4 T cells. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What monoclonal antibody would one receive if they were rejecting a transplant? |
|
|
Term
Shuts down ALL the T cells |
|
Definition
Why does OKT3 cause patients to be severely immunosuppressed? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Herceptin is a humanized antibody used to treat what type of cancer? |
|
|
Term
B-cell leukemia
(Chronic lymphocytic leukemia) |
|
Definition
Campath is a humanized monoclonal antibody used against what? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
T/F: Humira is a monoclonal antibody used to treat rheumatoid arthritis by acting against cytokine TNF |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
T/F: Enbrel is a monoclonal antibody used to treat Rheumatoid arthritis by blocking TNF. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
In transplant rejection, the organ transplanted into the recipient is attacked by what cell in the immune system? |
|
|
Term
When bone marrow is transplanted, the T cells in the transplant attack the recipient's tissues. |
|
Definition
What is graft versus host disease (GVHD)? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What are three HLA class 1 proteins that are important in transplantations? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What are the three HLA class II proteins that are important in transplants? |
|
|
Term
B lymphocytes
Monocytes
Dendritic Cells |
|
Definition
HLA class II molecules are found on what cells? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
T/F: HLA class I molecules have an alpha transmembrane chain and a beta-2-microglobulin. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
T/F: HLA class II molecules have an alpha and a beta transmembrane chain. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Kappa and Lambda refer to _____ chains of immunoglobulins?
A. Heavy B. Light C. Disulfide Bond D. None of the above |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Which chromosome encodes for the HLA genes? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Which HLA gene is encoded most distal from the centromere? |
|
|
Term
The tope of the head and the antlers |
|
Definition
Which part of the "Bullwinkle model" contain(s) polymorphisms that govern peptide binding? |
|
|
Term
Previous rejected organ allografts
Previous pregnancy
Previous blood transfusion (WBC) |
|
Definition
How could preformed anti-HLA antibodies be present in renal transplant candidates? |
|
|
Term
Hyperacute rejection; graft thrombosis; graft loss
Acute humoral rejection, delayed graft function, early graft loss |
|
Definition
Why are donor reactive HLA specific IgG antibodies a high risk to transplants? |
|
|
Term
lymphocyte crossmatch
antibody screening tests |
|
Definition
What are two tests that are run to assess HLA sensitization in a patient? |
|
|
Term
It is a test to ensure that the transplant recipient does not have antibodies. |
|
Definition
In a lymphocyte crossmatch, what is being done? |
|
|
Term
amos modified NIH XM cell mediated lysis |
|
Definition
In this type of lymphocyte crossmatch, anti HLA-A, B, or C antibodies are detected, and it causes the cell to lyse. |
|
|
Term
anti-human globulin (AHG) augmented XM complement mediated lysis |
|
Definition
What type of lymphocyte crossmatch would detect low levels of IgG anti-HLA or non-complement binding antibodies? |
|
|
Term
Flow cytometric T and B cell XM
Complement Independent
Able to detect HLA II antibodies |
|
Definition
What type of lymphocyte crossmatch is similar to AHG but is even more sensitive and is not complement-dependent and uses fluorescence? |
|
|
Term
Least: Amos-Modified NIH XM
Anti-Human Globulin augmented XM
Most: Flow Cytometric T&B cell XM |
|
Definition
Rank the lymphocyte crossmatch from least sensitive to most sensitive? |
|
|
Term
Dendritic cells from donor migrate to the spleen where they activate effector T cells.
Effector T cells migrate to graft via blood.
Graft destroyed by effector T cells. |
|
Definition
What happens if a kidney used for transplantation is recognized as foreign to the recipients immune system? |
|
|
Term
48 hours
Yes, HLA matching benefit
Yes, HLA matching is used in allocation |
|
Definition
What is the kidney's max cold time and HLA matching benefit and is HLA matching used in allocation? |
|
|
Term
24 hours
No HLA matcing benefit
No, HLA matching in allocation |
|
Definition
What is the pancreas's max cold time and HLA matching benefit and is HLA matching used in allocation? |
|
|
Term
24 hours
No HLA matching benefit
No HLA matching in allocation |
|
Definition
What is the liver's max cold time and HLA matching benefit and is HLA matching used in allocation? |
|
|
Term
4-5 hours
Yes, HLA matching benefit
No, HLA matching in allocation because it is so rare. |
|
Definition
What is the heart max cold time and HLA matching benefit and is HLA matching used in allocation? |
|
|
Term
6-8 Hours
Yes, HLA matching benefit
No HLA matching in allocation |
|
Definition
What is the lung's max cold time and HLA matching benefit and is HLA matching used in allocation? |
|
|
Term
Indefinite
Yes, HLA matching benefit
Yes HLA matching in allocation |
|
Definition
What is the blood stem cell's max cold time and HLA matching benefit and is HLA matching used in allocation? |
|
|
Term
Autologous Transplantation
Breast Cancer uses this |
|
Definition
What is the graft called when it is within the same individual or autotransplantation? |
|
|
Term
Syngeneic Graft
Most ideal |
|
Definition
What is the graft called that uses identical twins (isotransplantation)? |
|
|
Term
Allogeneic Graft
Most common, what Dr. Fowler was a donor for |
|
Definition
What type of graft is non-identical, allotransplantation? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What type of graft occurs between species, xenotransplantation? |
|
|
Term
Cytotoxic Agents
Agents interfering with gene expression
Agents interfering with intracellular signaling
Agents interfering with intercellular signaling |
|
Definition
What do immunosuppressive agents do in the body? 4 things |
|
|
Term
False
The recipient's T cells attack... leads to graft rejection |
|
Definition
T/F: In kidney tranplantation, the donor's T cells attack the transplant. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
T/F: In bone marrow transplantation, the T cells in the transplant or graft attack the recipient's tissue. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A regimen in which the transplant recipient is prepared for bone marrow transplantation is called _____. |
|
|
Term
The antigen in the HLA of the recipient is the one recognized by the T cells of the donor. |
|
Definition
What is the antigen being presented in GVHD? |
|
|
Term
By T cell recognitionof host alloantigens.
Term alloantigens means same thing as HLA MHC. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
NK cells, CD8+ T cels, cytokines |
|
Definition
Effector cells are cells from the donor. What are a few that are prevalent in the recipient post engraftment? |
|
|
Term
Epithelial cell necrosis, skin, liver, gastrointestinal tract
Characterized by skin rash, jaundice, and diarrhea |
|
Definition
What are some sign of acute GVHD? |
|
|
Term
Minor histocampatibility antigens are governing the immune response |
|
Definition
What is the term when all HLA are matched and we still see GVHD? |
|
|
Term
Adv: Donor availability and no GVHD
Dis: potential infusion of malignant cells |
|
Definition
What is an advantage and disadvantage of autologous transplant? |
|
|
Term
Adv: No malignant cells infusion, decreased rate of GVHD
Dis: Donor availability and limited GVL |
|
Definition
What is an advantage and disadvantage of syngeneic transplant? |
|
|
Term
Adv: No malignant cells in infusion, GVL
Dis: potential GVHD, potential graft rejection, donor availability, limited by age and co-morbidities |
|
Definition
What is an advantage and disadvantage of allogeneic transplant? |
|
|
Term
The goal and the rationale is to attempt to eradicate all tumor cells prior to bmt and use hemopoetic cells to rescue the patient |
|
Definition
What does it mean to maximize conditioning? |
|
|
Term
The goal and the rationale is to use donor stem cells for tolerance and donor T cells and NK cells for GLV/GVTumor or otherwise abnormal host cells |
|
Definition
What does it mean to minimize the conditioning? |
|
|
Term
False
They would most likely undergo maximal conditioning |
|
Definition
T/F: A patient who is young and healthy would most likely undergo minimal conditioning. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Is there a sign of GVHD in stage 0 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the worst stage of GVHD? |
|
|
Term
allele mismatch single class I mismatch and single class II mismatch multiple class i mismatch class i and class ii mismatch |
|
Definition
rank the probability of survival from highest to lowest of the following: multiple class i mismatch class i and class ii mismatch single class i mismatch single class ii mismatch allele mismatch |
|
|
Term
class i and class ii mismatch single class ii mismatch multiple class i mismatch single class i mismatch allele match |
|
Definition
rank the propability of gvhd based on mismatching from highest to lowest: allele match multiple class i mismatch class i and class ii mismatch single class i mismatch single class ii mismatch |
|
|
Term
inhibits dna synthesis....interfers with and inhibits tcell profileration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
interfering with dena replication and rna transcription |
|
Definition
what is cyclophosphamide? |
|
|
Term
dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor..inhibits dna synthesis by inhibiting the production of thymidine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
antibody against tcells.....depleting tcells inducing complement lysis and uptake...modulates and masks cell surface receptors for t&b lymphocytes... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
interfers with signal tranduction from tcr to inhibit t cell activation and reduces transcription of cytokine genes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
block independent signaling pathways in t & b cells..blocks proliferation of t cells and b cell proliferation and Ig synthesis |
|
Definition
Describe action of Rapamycin |
|
|
Term
elimination, equilibrium and escape |
|
Definition
what are the three categories of cancer immunoediting |
|
|
Term
represents the process of the immune system that selects or promotes cancer cells and initiates response of immune system to allow cancer to grow or to kill the cancer....important that this is the point that the immune response recognizes the tumor |
|
Definition
Define equilibrium in cancer immunoediting |
|
|
Term
mutated self protein overexpressed or abernathy expressed self protein oncogenic virus
important to denote here that tcells cd8 specifically is the type of cell involved in immunoediting |
|
Definition
How are tumor cells displayihng what proteins/virus will be recognized by CD8 T cells |
|
|
Term
loss/down regulation of HLA class I
down regulation, mutation or loss of tumor antigens
loss of co-stimulation alteration in cell death receptor signaling
immunosuppresive cytokines production of other suppressive factors |
|
Definition
What are the 4 ways that cancer avoids immune surveillance? |
|
|
Term
Stimulating the antitumor response
Decreasing suppressor mechanism
Altering tumor cells to increase their immunogenicity and make them more susceptible to immunologic defenses
Improving tolerance to cytotoxic drugs or radiotherapy |
|
Definition
What are the main mechanisms of immunotherapy? |
|
|
Term
antibody therapy
cytokine therapy
adoptive therapy-passively transfer cells to patient
vaccination
combinational therapy |
|
Definition
What are some current immunotherapeutic strategies? |
|
|
Term
Killed tumor cells
Purified tumor antigens
Dendritic cells pulsed with immunoglobulins
Plasmid DNA immunization |
|
Definition
What are the types of tumor vaccines? |
|
|
Term
Stimulating tumor cells by exposing them to tumor cells or antigens in the laboratory and the injecting expanded population of treated cells into the patient.
Patient is both donor and recipient |
|
Definition
What is adoptive immunotherapy? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Color of staining for gram positive |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Color of staining for acid fast gram positive |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
color of staining for gram-negative |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
color of staining for acid fast |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
color of staining for wall-less |
|
|
Term
1-8 microns
coccus (cocci)
bacillus (bacilli)
spirochete |
|
Definition
What are the main shapes of bacteria |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the bacterial cell was composed of? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
How many layers of peptidoglycan do gram-positive bacteria have? Gram-negative? |
|
|
Term
found in tears, saliva, and nasal secretions |
|
Definition
What is a natural antimicrobial found in the human body that targets the peptidoglycan of bacteria? |
|
|
Term
N-acetyl glucosamide - N-acetyl muramic acid
Have b(1,4) linkages |
|
Definition
What are the monomers of peptidoglycan? |
|
|
Term
L and D amino acids
Variability in these side chains are a typing mechanism for different species |
|
Definition
What serves as linkages for side chains in peptidoglycan layers? |
|
|
Term
Lipid A which is in the embedded in the outer membrane |
|
Definition
What mediates septic shock in gram-negative bacteria? |
|
|
Term
Peptidoglycans
40+ layers |
|
Definition
Gram Positive cell walls are composed of what? |
|
|
Term
Transformation
Transduction
Conjugation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Gram Positive
Peptidoglycan layer is so thick that the MAC cannot penetrate the cell wall. |
|
Definition
What type of bacterial cell is resistant to complement lysis? Why? |
|
|
Term
Waxes and Lipids
These hold onto the acid stains, which gives the cells their names. |
|
Definition
What is the cell wall composed of in acid-fast bacteria? |
|
|
Term
Flagella
capsule
pili
cell wall
endospore
|
|
Definition
What are the major components of the prokaryotic cell that can become virulence factors?
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Part of the outer membrane that mediates septic shock with a gram negative organism
|
|
|
Term
Thick Peptidoglycan Layer (40+)
Teichoic Acids and Lipoteichoic Acids
Other Proteins and Carbohydrates
|
|
Definition
Important Components for Gram Positive Bacteria
|
|
|
Term
Has an Outer Phospholipid Bilayer Membrane
Periplasmic Space
Single Layer of Peptidoglycan
Porins
Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
|
|
Definition
Important Components for Gram Negative Bacteria
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Where do b-lactamases reside in the gram negative bacteria?
|
|
|
Term
b-lactamases are enzymes that break down b-lactams (penicillins). Therefore, the organism is resistant to those microbials.
|
|
Definition
What is the importance of b-lactamases?
|
|
|
Term
Bacteria in the Bloodstream (Bacteremia) breaks down. A component of the lipopolysaccharide, Lipid A, helps is engulfed or attached to a macrophage. The macrophage, which then releases IL-1 and TNF-a, which work synergistically to induce fever, vasodilation, and “leaky” capillaries for chemotaxis of immune cells into tissue. This allows a severe drop in blood pressure and volume.
|
|
Definition
What Is Happening During Septic Shock?
|
|
|
Term
Treatment centers around two key concepts: dynamically addressing the primary pathogen responsible for the mediation into sepsis and reversing the hypersensitivity reaction within the individual. Antibiotics such as tetracyclines have shown to be effective. Surgical debriidement of infected tissue removes infected cells and bacterial mass. However, this may lead to a susceptibility to an opportunistic pathogen. Hemodynamic support, as in pushing fluids and vasopressor agents aid in the reversal of hypersensitivity reactions by the immune system.
|
|
Definition
What are accepted and developing methods for treating septic shock?
|
|
|
Term
Lysozyme hydrolyzes the backbone and is naturally found in tears, saliva, and nasal secretions
|
|
Definition
Naturally occurring enzyme that breaks down the peptidoglycan and where it is found
|
|
|
Term
Main Chain is N-acetyl glucosamine and N-acetyl muramic acid (b1,4 linkage)
Cross-links are tetrapeptide with both L and D amino acids
|
|
Definition
Composition of the murein backbone (peptidoglycan)
|
|
|
Term
It is found in all species, though is highly variable between species. It is used for typing.
|
|
Definition
What is significant about the tetrapeptide sequence in the murein backbone?
|
|
|
Term
At the b1,4 linkage between N-acetyl glucosamine and N-acetyl muramic acid
|
|
Definition
Where does lysozyme cleave the murein backbone?
|
|
|
Term
Smooth bacteria include the O-antigen on the end of their LPS, while rough end at the core.
|
|
Definition
What is the difference between smooth and rough bacteria?
|
|
|
Term
Acid Fast Bacteria (Mycobacteria)
|
|
Definition
These bacteria have a cell wall that is composed of fatty acids and waxes that contribute to virulence.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Filament (major straight structure that is swung around)
Hook (where we have the bend)
Rings (insertions into the membranes) |
|
Definition
Main components of the flagella
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Hair-like proteins that are responsible for adhesion
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Sex pili are used in which process
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Protein coat on the surface of bacteria that can be a virulence factor
|
|
|
Term
Lag Phase (first introduction to environment – active metabolism)
Log Phase (rapid cell growth – population doubling every generation)
Stationary Phase (balance between reproduction and death – endospores are formed)
Death Phase
|
|
Definition
Phases of Bacterial Growth
|
|
|
Term
Bacteria that have 0-20°C optimum growth. No known psychrophilic human pathogens.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bacteria that have 20-40°C preferred range, optimum 35-37°C = 98°F body temp (most human pathogens). This causes special concerns with refrigerated foods
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bacteria that have 40-90°C growth range
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
need up to 30% salt to grow
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
differentiates based on hemolysis reactions
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
differentiates based on casease production
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
differentiates based on type of lactose fermentation (mixed acid/neutral)
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Differentiates based on lactose fermentation
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Staphylococcus epidermidis & S. aureus
Propionibacterium, Corynebacterium
Pityosporum & Candida (fungi)
|
|
|
Term
Normal Flora of Upper Respiratory Tract
|
|
Definition
Staphylococcus epidermidis & S. aureus
Streptococcus pneumoniae, Hemophilus, Neisseria, diptheroids
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Streptococcus, Lactobacillus,
Corynebacterium Actinomycetes, Treponema,
Bacteroides, Fusobacterium, Candida
|
|
|
Term
Normal Flora of Large Intestine
|
|
Definition
Gram negative enterics (E. coli, Enterobacter, Citrobacter, Proteus, Klebsiella, Shigella), Enterococcus, Lactobacillus, Bacteroides, Fusobacterium, Clostridium, Candida
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
S.epidermidis, Micrococcus, Enterococcus,
Lactobacillus, Pseudomonas, Klebsiella, Proteus, diptheroids
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Lactobacillus, Streptococcus, Staphylococcus,
Bacteroides, Clostridium, Candida, Trichomonas vaginalis (protozoan)
|
|
|
Term
Normal Flora of Male external genitalia
|
|
Definition
Mycobacterium smegmatis, other skin flora
|
|
|
Term
Damage to DNA
Protein Denaturation
Disruption of Cell Membrane of Wall
Removal of Sulfhydral Groups
|
|
Definition
Modes of Action for Antimicrobials
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Specialized Genetic Elements Capable of Independent Replication
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Genetic Elements that Moves from One Gene Locus to Another
|
|
|
Term
Transformation
Conjugation
Transduction
|
|
Definition
Mechanisms of Bacterial Genetic Transfer
|
|
|
Term
Nt = N0 2n
where n is the number of generations
n = (log Nt – log N0)/0.301
|
|
Definition
Equation for Unchecked Binary Fission
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Time needed for a culture population to double
|
|
|
Term
1. Microbe found in diseased animals and absent from healthy animals
2. Microbes isolated and grown in culture
3. Cultures causes disease in healthy animals
4. Microbe is re-isolated from diseased animals and re-cultured
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Peak of Disease is known as
|
|
|
Term
1. Incubation period (no signs or symptoms)
2. Prodromal phase (vague symptoms)
3. Invasive Phase (most severe signs and symptoms)
4. Decline Phase (declining signs and symptoms)
5. Convalescence Period
|
|
Definition
Phases of Bacterial Infection
|
|
|
Term
Portals of Entry
Number of Invading Microbes
Adherence
Penetration or Evasion of Immune Defense
Cytopathic Effects
Portals of Exit
|
|
Definition
What are the Important Points of Transmission and Infectious Process
|
|
|
Term
Pili
Lipoteichoic Acid, F and M Proteins
|
|
Definition
Virulence Factors that Deal with Adherence
|
|
|
Term
Exotoxins are produced inside gram positive bacteria and are secreted or released into surrounding media.
Endotoxins are incorporated into the outer surface of the cell wall in gram negative bacteria. They are liberated when the cell breaks apart.
|
|
Definition
What is the difference between Exotoxins and Endotoxins?
|
|
|
Term
Fragment A (inhibits protein synthesis)
Fragment B (binds to surface of CD by CD2)
|
|
Definition
What are the two fragments of Diptheria Toxin
|
|
|
Term
Protein A binds the Fc region of IgG
|
|
Definition
Why is Protein A expression on the surface of microbes considered an antiphagacytic agent?
|
|
|
Term
Purification of Antibodies
|
|
Definition
What is Protein A also used for?
|
|
|
Term
Genetic recombination presents a myriad of possible combinations for pili structure.
|
|
Definition
How do pili evade the immune system?
|
|
|
Term
Penicillians
cephalasporins
bacitracin
vancomycin
|
|
Definition
Antimicrobials that Inhibit Cell Wall Synthesis
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Antimicrobials that Inhibit Nucleic Acid Replication and Transcription
|
|
|
Term
Chloramphenicol
erythromycin
tetracyclines
streptomycin
|
|
Definition
Antimicrobials that Inhibit Translation
|
|
|
Term
Sulfanilamides
trimethoprim |
|
Definition
Antimicrobials that Inhibit Metabolite Synthesis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Antimicrobials that Cause Injury to Plasma Membrane
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Protein Shell That Coats And Encloses Nucleic Acid (RNA Or DNA)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Make Up Capsid. Morphologic Units (Polypeptides)
|
|
|
Term
Classified as + or -. Lipid containing membrane surrounding some viral particles.
Becomes very important when we look at the release of some viral particles.
As the virus exits the cell, it may carry host membrane components.
|
|
Definition
Describe the Envelope of a Viral Particle
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Protein/Nucleic Acid Complex
|
|
|
Term
naked ssDNA viron with icosahedral symmetry that causes 5th disease
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
enveloped dsDNA viron with icosahedral symmetry that causes HPV and genital warts
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
dsDNA viron with complex symmetry and coats that causes Herpes Type 1 and 2
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
enveloped RNA viron that causes SARS
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
enveloped RNA viron that causes HIV
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
enveloped RNA viron with helical symmetry that causes flu
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
enveloped RNA viron with helical symmetry that causes rabies
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Attachment
Penetration
Uncoating
Expression of viral genome
Synthesis of viral components
Assembly
Release
|
|
Definition
Basic Steps for Viral Replication Cycle
|
|
|
Term
Causes Mononucleosis
Attaches via CD21 on B cells
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Respiratory
Most exposure to the environment
|
|
Definition
The most common port of entry for viral infections is
|
|
|
Term
Cilia, lymphocytes, macrophages, IgA
|
|
Definition
Localized Immune Response to Respiratory Viral Infections
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
How many cases worldwide do we have of HIV? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Worldwide New Infection Rate with HIV for 2007 |
|
|
Term
Sub-Saharan Africa
22.5 million cases
Especially in Zimbabwe and Botswana |
|
Definition
Where is the heaviest accumulation of HIV cases seen? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What strain of HIV and what type of virus is responsible for causing AIDS? |
|
|
Term
Binding and Entry
Reverse Transcription
Replication
Budding
Maturation |
|
Definition
Phases of the HIV Life Cycle |
|
|
Term
When the CD4 cell count falls below 200 cells/ml
and/or
A typical AIDS-defining illness is observed |
|
Definition
When is an HIV infection considered AIDS? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Which presents a good correlation of disease progression with HIV, viral load or CD4 cell count? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What are "cofactors" for HIV infection? |
|
|
Term
Erythema infectisum.
Mild constitutional symptoms may accompany the rash, which has a typical “slapped cheek” appearance. Join involvement is a prominent feature in adult cases. The symptoms mimic RA.
|
|
Definition
Clinical manifestation of parvovirus (Fifth Disease)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Treatment for Fifth Disease
|
|
|
Term
Oropharyngeal: HSV-1 involves the buccal and gingival mucosa of the mouth. Symptoms include fever, sore throat, vesicular and ulcerative lesions, gingivostomatitis, and malaise.
Keratoconjunctivitis: HSV-1 may occur in the eye, producing sever keratoconjunctivtis
Genital Herpes: HSV-2 causes genital herpes is characterized by vesiculoulcertive lesions of the penis of the male or the cervic, vulva, vagina, and perineum of the female
|
|
Definition
Clinical manifestations of Herpesviruses
|
|
|
Term
Several antiviral drugs have proved effective against HSV infections, including acyclovir, valacyclovir, and vidarabine. Acyclovir is currently the standard therapy.
All are inhibitors of viral DNA synthesis.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Symptoms of classic influenza usually appear abruptly and include chills, headache, and dry cough, followed closely by high fever, generalized muscular aches, malaise, and anorexia.
|
|
Definition
Clinical manifestation of orthomyxovirus (influenza) |
|
|
Term
The NA inhibitors zanamivir and oseltamivir were approved in 1999 for treatment of both influenza A and B.
To be maximally effective, the drugs must be administered very early in the disease.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The human coronavirses produce “colds” usually afebrile in adults. The tymptoms are similar to those produced by rhinovirses, typified by nasal discharge and malaise.
Symptoms usually last about 1 week.
|
|
Definition
Clinical manifestation of coronavirus (SARS)
|
|
|
Term
There is no proven treatment and no vaccine.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The clinical spectrum can be divided into three phases
a short prodromal phase – malaise, anorexia, headache, photophobia, nausea, sore throat and/or fever
acute neurologic phase – signs of nervous system dysfunction
coma phase
|
|
Definition
Clinical manifestation of rabies
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Source: Macrophages (IFN-a), fibroblasts (IFN-b)
Function: Antiviral
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Source: T Cells and NK Cells
Function: Activateion of macrophage and TH1 differentiation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Source: Macrophages and T cells
Function: Cell activation, fever, cachexia, antitumor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Source: T cells
Function: Activates PMNs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Source: Macrophages
Function: Cell activation, fever |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Source: T cells
Function: T cell growth and activation
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Source: T cells and mast cells
Function: B cell proliferation and switching to IgE
TH2 differentiation
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Source: Macrophages
Function: Differentiation of T cells
activation of NK cells
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Spores germinate in the tissue at the site of entry, and growth of the vegetative organisms results in formation of gelatinous edema and congestion. Bacilli spread via lymphatics to bloodstream shortly before and after death.
|
|
Definition
Characteristics of spores of Bacillus anthracis
|
|
|
Term
Capsule is required for virulence. The poly-D-glutamic acid capsule is antiphagocytic. The capsule gene is on a plasmid.
|
|
Definition
Characteristics of capsule of Bacillus anthracis
|
|
|
Term
Anthrax toxin is made up of three proteins: protective antigen (PA), edema factor (EF), and lethal factor (LF). PA binds to specific cell receptors, and following proteolytic activation it forms a membrane channel that mediates entry of EF and LF into the cell.
EF is an adenylyl cyclase; with PA it forms a toxin known as edema toxin.
LF plus PA form lethal toxin, which is a major virulence factor and cause of death.
|
|
Definition
Characteristics of Anthrax toxin from Bacillus anthracis
|
|
|
Term
Many antibiotics are effective against anthrax in humans, but treatment must be started early.
Ciprofloxacin is recommended for treatment; penicillin G, along with gentamicin or streptomycin, has previously been used to treat anthrax.
|
|
Definition
Treatment of infection with Bacillus anthracis
|
|
|
Term
Food poisoning caused by Bacillus cereus has two distinct forms
The emetic type is associated with fried rice
The diarrheal type is associated with meat dished and sauces.
|
|
Definition
What is an infection of Bacillus cereus associated with?
|
|
|
Term
Nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, and occasionally diarrhea. Recovery occurring within 24 hours.
|
|
Definition
Clinical manifestation of the emetic form of B cereus infection
|
|
|
Term
Incubation period of 1-24 hours is followed by profuse diarrhea with abdominal pain and cramps. Fever and vomiting are uncommon.
|
|
Definition
Clinical manifestation of diarrheal form of B cereus infection
|
|
|
Term
An exotoxin that has seven antigenic variants, however types A, B, and E are the principal causes of human illness. Types A and B have been associated with a variety of foods and type E predominately with fish products.
The toxin is a large protein that is cleaved into two proteins linked by a disulfide bond.
|
|
Definition
Characteristics of Clostridium botulinum toxin
|
|
|
Term
Toxin is absorbed from the gut and binds to receptors of presynaptic membranes of motor neurons of the PNS and cranial nerves.
After cleaving of the toxin, it inhibits the release of ACh at the synapse, resulting in lack of muscle contraction and paralysis.
|
|
Definition
Pathology of Clostridium botulinum toxin
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Term
Yes, the toxins are destroyed by heating for 20 minutes at 100 °C.
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Definition
Can Clostridum botulinum toxin be destroyed?
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Term
Visual disturbances (incoordination of eye muscles), inability to swallow, and speech difficulty, signs of bulbar paralysis are progressive, and death occus from respiratory paralysis or cardiac arrest.
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Definition
Clinical manifestation of oral digestion of Clostridum botulinum
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Term
Potent antitoxins to three types of botulinum toxins have been prepared in horses. Since the type responsible for an individual case is not known, trivalent antitoxin must be promptly administered with customary precautions.
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Definition
Treatment of Clostridum botulinum
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Term
The toxin initially binds to receptors on presynaptic membranes of motor neurons, and migrates to the CNS. The toxin diffuses to terminals of inhibitory neurons, and degrades a protein required for docking of neurotransmitter vesicles on the presynaptic membrane. Release of the inhibitory neurotransmitters is blocked, and motor neurons are not inhibited. Spastic paralysis results.
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Definition
Pathology of Clostridum tetani toxin
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Term
The disease is characterized by tonic contraction of voluntary muscles (lockjaw). Gradually, other moluntary muscles become involved, resulting in tonic spasms. Any external stimulus may precipitate a titanic generalized muscle spasm. Death usually results from interference with the mechanics of respiration.
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Definition
Clinical manifestation of Clostridium tetani
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Term
The IM administration of human antitoxin give adequate systemic protection. It neutralizes the toxin that HAS NOT BEEN FIXED to nervous tissue.
Patients who develop symptoms are treated symptomatically, with muscle relaxants, sedation, and assisted ventilation. Penicillin strongly inhibits the growth of bacteria and prevents further toxin production.
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Definition
Treatment of Clostridium tetani
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Term
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Definition
Bacteria that is the causal agent for gas gangrene
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Term
The alpha toxin is a lecithinase, and its lethal action is proportionate to the rate of splitting. The theta toxin has similar hemolytic and ncrotizing effects but is not a leithinase. DNase and hyaluronidase are also produced.
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Definition
Characteristics of Clostridium perfringens toxin
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Term
From a contaminated wound, production of a foul smelling discharge, rapidly progressing necrosis, fever, hemolysis, toxemia, shock, and death.
Food poisoning usually follows the ingestion of large numbers of this bacteria that have grown in warmed meat dishes. The toxin forms when the organisms sporulate in the gut, with the onset of diarrhea – usually without vomiting or fever.
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Definition
Clinical manifestation of Clostrdium perfringens
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Term
Administration of antimicrobial drugs, particularly penicillin, is begun at the same time as surgical debridement if cutaneous. Food poisoning due to entertoxin usually requires only symptomatic care.
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Definition
Treatment of infection with Clostridium perfringens
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Term
There are over 35 different species, three of which are of clinical significance.
Staphylococcus aureus, Staphylococcus epidermidis, and Staphylococcus saprophyticus
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Definition
The genus Staphylococcus has how many species? How many and which ones are of clinical significance
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Term
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Definition
What is an enzyme that is produced that differentiates staphylococci from streptococci?
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Term
Catalase – converts H2O2 into H2O and O2
Coagulase – initiates fibrin polymerization
Clumping factor – responsible for adherence of organisms to fibrinogen and fibrin
Exotoxins – attacks membranes (cell membrane and sphingomyelin)
Leukocidin – attacks and kills white blood cells
Exfoliative toxins – superantigens that cause desquamation
Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin – TSST-1 binds to MHC class II which promotes toxic shock symptoms
Enterotoxins - superantigens
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Definition
What are the main substances and toxins that are associated with staphylococci?
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Term
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Definition
Most bacteria in Group A Streptococci (GAS) |
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Term
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Definition
Type of Hemolysis with S pyogenes |
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Term
Pharngitis
Impetigo
Rheumatic Fever
Scarlet Fever
Glomerulonephritis |
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Definition
Common and Important Diseases associated with S. pyogenes (GAS) |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
Composed of hyaluronic acid
Impede phagocytosis |
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Definition
Describe the capsule of GAS |
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Term
Consist partly of M protein
Covered with lipoteichoic acid (important for attachement to EC) |
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Definition
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Term
Streptokinase (fibrinolysin to break up clots)
Streptodornase (depolymerizes DNA)
Hyaluronidase (spreading factor)
Pyrogenic Exotoxins (Erythrogenic Toxin - associated with Streptococcal toxic shock syndrom and scarlet fever)
Diphosphopyridine Nucleotidase (aid in killing leukocytes)
Hemolysins |
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Definition
What are the important Toxins and Enzymes produced by S. pyogenes |
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Term
pharyngitis
Pili attache to epithelium via lipoteichnoic acid.
In infants and small children, the sore throat occrs with little fever and extends to middle ear and the mastoid. Cervical lymph nodes are typically enlarged.
In older children and adults, disease is more acute. Characterized by intense nasopharyngitis, tonsilitis, and intense redness and edema of the mucous membranes and high fever. |
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Definition
Name and describe the most common infection due to S pyogenes |
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Term
Consists of superficial vesicles that break down and erode areas where surface is covered with pus and later is encrusted. It spreads continuity and is highly communicable.
More widespread infection occurs in eczematous or wounded skin or in burns and may progress to cellulitis. |
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Definition
Describe impetigo caused by S pyogenes |
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Term
Penicillin G
most are also susceptible to erythromycin |
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Definition
Treatment of choice for S pyogenes |
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Term
Penicillin's action is to inhibit cell wall growth (formation of peptidoglycan cross-links) |
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Definition
What is the mode of action for the first antibiotic of choice for GAS? |
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Term
False. Antigens may be present with killed bacteria. |
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Definition
T/F: A positive antigen test for GAS, indicates the presence of a live bacteria. |
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Term
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Definition
Predominant Site for E coli infections |
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Term
staphylococci and streptococci |
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Definition
Most common Enterobacteriacae causing GI inflammation |
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Term
Gram negative rods
many times are motile due to peritrichous flagella
may or may not have a capsule
may be aerobic or anaerobic |
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Definition
Describe the general class of Enterobacteriacae |
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Term
Lipopolysaccharide side chains
Over 150 O serotypes |
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Definition
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Term
Capsule
Over 100 capsular antigens |
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Definition
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Term
Flagella
Over 50 flagellar antigens |
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Definition
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Term
E coli causes 90% of UTIs
K antigen (capsule) is mainly responsible |
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Definition
What is the most common cause of urinary tract infection, what percentage of UTIs are caused this way, and what it the primary virulance factor used? |
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Term
EPEC is an important cause of diarrhea in infants. Nosocomial and community infection for developed countries.
Adhere to mucosal cells of bowls by chromosomal encoded adherence factors. Loss of microvilli and formation of pedestals.
Result is self-limiting, watery diarrhea.
Duration shortened and cured by antibiotic treatment. |
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Definition
Discuss Enteropathogenic E coli |
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Term
ETEC is a causitive agent for "traveler's diarrhea" or "Montizuma's Revenge" and diarrhea for infants in developing countries.
Produce toxins LT and ST (discussed on another card)
Spread by fecal contamination.
At least 108 E coli need to be present to result in transmission. |
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Definition
Discuss Enterotoxigenic E coli |
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Term
Organisms produce LT and/or ST
LT (heat-labile exotoxin) is a high MW protein in two subunits. Subunit B attaches to EC and facilitates entry of Subunit A. Hypersecretion of water and chlorides results, with the inhibition of reabsorption of sodium.
ST (heat-stable enterotoxin) is a low MW protein that stimulates fluid secretion.
Both toxins are found on a plasmid. |
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Definition
Describe the toxins produced by ETEC |
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Term
EHEC is a causitive agent for hemorrhagic colitis ("Hamburger disease") with hemolytic uremic syndrome. Causes DIC in arterioles and arteries of nephrons, decreasing kidney function and potentially acute kidney failure and thrombocytopenia.
Extremely low innoculum required for disease. Most common serotype is O157:H7.
Many cases can be prevented by thoroughly cooking ground beef. |
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Definition
Discuss Enterohaemorrhagic E coli |
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Term
EIEC is similar to shigellosis
Invasion of epithelial cells
Food and water borne.
Most common in children in developing countries. |
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Definition
Discuss Enteroinvasive E coli |
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Term
Shigellae are slender gram-negative rods, that are aerobic or anaeorobic, and ferment glucose. Shigella sonnei also ferments lactose.
More than 40 O serotypes |
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Definition
Describe the organism of shigelae |
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Term
Endotoxins (lipid A)
Shigella dysenteriae exotoxin |
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Definition
Two types of toxins from Shigellae |
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Term
Heat-labile exotoxin that affects both the gut and CNS. The exotoxin is a protein that is antigentic, thus may illicit antitoxin production.
Produces diarrhea and inhibits sugar and amino acid absorption in the small intestine, proceeds to dysentery with blood and pus in stools. The neurotoxin effect may rsult in meningismus or coma. |
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Definition
Describe the Shigella Dysenteriae Exotoxin |
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Term
Motile organisms with peritrichous flagella. The classification of salmonellae is complex because the organisms are a continuum rather than a defined species. Antigenic structures O, H, and Vi (equivalent to K) are important pathogenic factors.
The organisms enter via the oral route, usually with contaminated food or drink. Host factors contribute to resistance. Salmonellae produce three main types of disease in humans (enteric fevers, septicemias, and enterocolitis), but mixed forms are frequent. |
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Definition
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Term
Produced by only a few of the salmonellae, of which Salmonella typhi is the most important.
Ingested salmonellae reach the small intestine, go through the lymphatics to the blood stream. The organisms multiply in the intestinal lymphoid tissue and are excreted in stools.
After an incubation period of 10-14 days, fever, malaise, headache, constipation, bradycardia, and myalgia occur. A gradual rise then high plateau in fever occurs.
Antimicrobials have reduced mortality rate from 10-15% to less than 1%. |
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Definition
Describe Enteric Fever (Typhoid Fever) |
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Term
Most common manifestation of salmonella infection. Organism penetrates and replicates inside of cell.
8-48 hours after ingestion, nausea, headache, vomiting, profuse diarrhea with low-grade fever occurs. Episode usually resolves in 2-3 days.
Bacteremia is rate (2-4%). |
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Definition
Describe Enterocolitis infection from Salmonella species |
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Term
Abrupt onset of liquid diarrhea in edemic area, up to 5 L/day in severe forms. Needs prompt replacement of fluids and electrolytes IV or orally. Killer in 3rd world countries.
Ogranisms gow in gut and produce toxin (describe on another card). Toxin causes hypersecretion in small intestine. Disease is toxin-mediated. |
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Definition
Describe clinical features, epidemiology and pathogenesis of Vibrio cholarae |
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Term
- Permenant activation of G protein
- Adenylene cyclase activated to produce 2nd messenger cAMP
- Release of potassium, chlorine, sodium, and bicarbonate ions.
- Change in osmotic pressure leads to diarrhea
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Definition
Describe the process invoked by Cholera Toxin |
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Term
Fever, diarrhea; PMNs and fresh blood in stools, especially in children. Usually self-limited.
Infection via oral route from food and pets. Organisms grow in the small intestine. Invasion of mucous membrane. Any toxins are uncertain. |
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Definition
Describe clinical features, epidemiology and pathogenesis of Campylobacter jejuni
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Term
Upper gastrointestinal illness with nausea and pain. About 90% of patients with duodenal ulcers and 50-80% of those with gastric ulcers are caused by H pylori.
Spiral-shaped gram negative rod with many flagella on one end that grows best in pH 6-7 at 37 °C.
H pylori is found deep in the mucous layer where the pH is more suitable for growth. The bacterium overlies gastric-type EC. Production of a protease that modifies the gastric mucus, reduces the ability of acid to diffuse through the mucus. Potent urease activity, which yields production of ammonia and further buffering of acid. |
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Definition
Describe clinical features, epidemiology and pathogenesis of Helicobacter pylori
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Term
Nomenclature confusion as this is not a virus, but a gram negative rod, with capsular polysaccharide.
No exotoxin, and causes flu-like symptoms. Therefore many times is mis-diagnosed as the seasonal flu.
High carrier-rate |
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Definition
Describe Haemophilus influenzae |
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Term
Small gram-negative rod that casues chancroid (soft chancre), an STD.
Ragged ulcer on the genitaliaz.
Treatment with IM ceftriaxone, oral Bactrim, or oral Erythromycin. |
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Definition
Describe Haemophilus ducreyi |
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Term
Gram-negative coccobacilli that has an vaccine (though boosters are needed)
Organisms colonize epithelium after transmission via the respiratory route. After a 2 week incubation, the "catarrhal stage" develops, shere large numbers of organisms are sprayed in droplets during mild coughing. During the "paroxysmal" stage, the cough develops its explosive character and the characteristic "whoop" upon inhalation.
Toxins
- Pertussis toxin - causes cough
- Adenylate cyclase toxin - damage to cell signaling
- Dermonecrotic toxin - necrotic condition of skin
- Hemolysin - irritation of bronchiols that contributes to cough and secondary infections
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Definition
Describe Bordetella pertussis |
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Term
Abrupt onset of fever
Hypotension
Headache
Stiff neck (nuchal rigidity)
Rash |
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Definition
Clinical manefestations of Neisseria meningitidis |
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Term
Transmission is via respiratory droplets
The nasopharynx is the portal of entry, however can become a transient portion of the flora.
Temporal pattern peaks in late winter to early spring. |
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Definition
Transmission and Portal of Entry for Neisseria meningitidis |
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Term
Aerobic gram-negative bacteria
At least 13 serogroups based on polysaccharide capsule
Relative importance of serogroups depends on geographic location and other factors, such as age. |
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Definition
Describe the organism of Neisseria meningitidis |
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